DGVCL

Q1.The following formula is correct:

1. Load factor = Average load for a period / Peak load for the same period
2. Load factor = Average load for a period x Peak load for the same period
3. Load factor = Average load for a period + Peak load for the same period
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q2.In a transformer the energy is conveyed from primary to secondary

1. Through cooling coil
2. Through air
3. By the flux
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q3.Efficiency of a power transformer is of the order of :

1. 100%
2. 98%
3. 50%
4. 25%

Correct Ans: B

Q4.A 100 watt light bulb turned on for 8 hours uses:

1. 800 kWh
2. 0.8 kWh
3. 8 kWh
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q5.As per Electricity Act, ____________means any line which is used for carrying electricity for any purpose.

1. Electric line
2. Transmission line
3. All of the above
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q6.The problematic pollutants in emission of coal based generating plants __________.

1. \(SO_2\)
2. \(NO_x\)
3. CO
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q7.For a 66 kV line having span of 200 meters between towers the approximate sag will be 2 m. If the span is double the sag will be:

1. 1 m
2. 2 m
3. 4m
4. 8m

Correct Ans: D

Q8.A _________ is used to measure the stator % winding temperature of the generator.

1. Thermocouple
2. Pyrometer
3. Resistance thermometer
4. Thermometer

Correct Ans: C

Q9.If 3 MW power is to be transmitted over a distance of 30 km, the desirable transmission voltage will be

1. 11 kV
2. 33 kV
3. 66 kV
4. 132 kV

Correct Ans: B

Q10.Induction cup relay is operated due to changes in

1. Current
2. Voltage
3. Impedance
4. all of above

Correct Ans: D

Q11.A certain transformer has 200 turns in the primary winding, 50 turns in the secondary winding and 120 volts applied to the primary. What is the voltage across the secondary?

1. 30 Volts
2. 480 Volts
3. 120 Volts
4. 60 Volts

Correct Ans: A

Q12.The following is not a Regulatory Commission:

1. BERC
2. GERC
3. CSERC
4. DGVCL

Correct Ans: D

Q13.The registered office of MGVCL is in__________________________.

1. Ahmedabad
2. Valsad
3. Vadodara
4. Godhra

Correct Ans: C

Q14.The following formula is correct:

1. Diversity factor =1 / Coincidence Factor
2. Diversity factor =1 x Coincidence Factor
3. Diversity factor =1 - Coincidence Factor
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q15.Where is RAM located?

1. Expansion Board
2. External Drive
3. Mother Board
4. All of above

Correct Ans: C

Q16.An _____________is a network of electrical components used to supply, transfer and use electric power:

1. Electric power system
2. Electric power
3. All of the above
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q17.Which of the following are components of Central Processing Unit (CPU)?

1. Arithmetic logic unit, Mouse
2. Arithmetic logic unit, Control unit
3. Arithmetic logic unit, Integrated Circuits
4. Control Unit, Monitor

Correct Ans: B

Q18.What would happen if a power transformer designed for operation on 50 Hz (frequency) were connected to a 500 Hz (frequency) source of the same voltage:

1. Eddy Current and Hysteresis losses will be excessive
2. Current will be too much high
3. Transformer may start to smoke and burn
4. No effect

Correct Ans: A

Q19.The energy radiated by Sun on a bright Sunny day is approximately:

1. \(700 W/m^2\)
2. \(800 W/m^2\)
3. \(1 kW/m^2\)
4. \(2 kW/m^2\)

Correct Ans: C

Q20.The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) is mainly responsible for:

1. Regulating tariffs for generation and inter-state transmission of energy including tariffs
2. Advising the government on tariff policy and promoting competition
3. Efficiency and economy in the electricity industry
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q21.Earthing switch is used for

1. Measuring of safety voltage
2. Protection of equipment from ground faults
3. Discharging residual energies
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q22.Which of the following is the product of data processing:

1. Information
2. Data
3. Software programme
4. System

Correct Ans: A

Q23.The Electricity Act is applicable in __________________.

1. All parts of India
2. All parts of India except state of Jammu and Kashmir
3. All the states of India
4. In Gujarat only

Correct Ans: B

Q24.If the height of transmission towers is increased, which of the following parameters is likely to change ?

1. Resistance.
2. Capacitance.
3. Inductance.
4. Impedance.

Correct Ans: B

Q25.About how many times longer would a 10 watt light bulb be able to burn compared to a 100 watt bulb with the same energy?

1. 10 times longer
2. 100 times longer
3. Same time
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q26.Which of the following is the least expensive protection for over current in low voltage system?

1. Rewireable fuse
2. Isolator
3. Oil Circuit breaker
4. Air break circuit breaker

Correct Ans: A

Q27._______ electric power is the most common method used by electrical grids to transfer power.

1. One-phase
2. Two-phase
3. Three-phase
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q28.What will happen if the primary of a transformer is connected to D.C. supply?

1. Transformer will operate with low efficiency
2. Transformer will operate with high efficiency
3. No effect
4. Transformer may start to smoke and burn

Correct Ans: D

Q29.The time of closing the cycle, in modern circuit breakers is

1. 0.003 sec
2. 0.001 sec
3. 0.01 sec
4. 0.1 sec

Correct Ans: A

Q30.The main disadvantages of having poor power factors are:

1. High cost of station and distribution equipment
2. Poor voltage regulation
3. High energy loss in conductor
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q31.Gujarat State Electricity Corp. Ltd. (GSECL) is a __________________ .

1. Transmission Company
2. Distribution Company
3. Regulatory Commission
4. Power Generation Company

Correct Ans: D

Q32.\(SF_6\) gas :

1. Is yellow in colour
2. Is lighter than air
3. Is nontoxic
4. Has pungent smell

Correct Ans: C

Q33.The following is correct :

1. \(P = V \times I\)
2. \(P = I^2 \times R\)
3. \(P = V^2/ R\)
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q34.For 11 kV line the capacitance per km per phase will be of the order of:

1. 1 Farad
2. 0.1 Farad
3. 0.01 Farad
4. 0.01 microF

Correct Ans: C

Q35.Which unit holds data permanently?

1. Input unit
2. Secondary storage unit
3. Output Unit
4. Primary Memory Unit

Correct Ans: B

Q36.The Minimum Oil Circuit Breaker (MOCB) is named because of :

1. Reduced requirement of oil
2. Reduced requirement of air
3. All of the above
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q37.Isolator in substation is open under ___________ condition.

1. No load
2. Short circuit
3. Full load
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q38.Transformer has __________________ .

1. Primary winding and secondary winding
2. Primary winding and Auxiliary winding
3. Auxiliary winding and secondary winding
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q39.In fuel cell, the _________energy is converted into electrical energy.

1. mechanical
2. chemical
3. heat
4. Sound

Correct Ans: B

Q40.If the displayed system time and date is wrong, you can reset it using :

1. Task bar
2. Menu bar
3. Desk top
4. Control panel

Correct Ans: D

Q41.A relay used for protection of motors against over-load is

1. Impedance relay
2. Electromagnetic attraction type
3. thermal relay
4. Buchholz's relay

Correct Ans: C

Q42.With effect from _______India has adopted a new legislation called the Electricity Act 2003.

1. 2 June 2003
2. 3 June 2003
3. 2 May 2003
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q43.Capacitance is the ability of a body to store an__________.

1. electrical charge
2. electric current
3. voltage
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q44.For 11kV line the inductance per km per phase will be of the order of:

1. 1 H
2. 0.1 H
3. 1 mH
4. 0.1 mH

Correct Ans: C

Q45.The SI unit of energy is :

1. Joule
   
2. Newton
3. Coulomb
4. Henry

Correct Ans: A

Q46.A circuit breaker is designed to protect an electrical circuit from damage caused by :

1. Over load
2. Short circuit
3. Over current
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q47.The number of cycles in which a high speed circuit breaker can complete its operation is

1. 3 to 8
2. 10 to 18
3. 20 to 30
4. 40 to 50

Correct Ans: A

Q48.The rating of fuse wire is always expressed in \(_{-----------}\)

1. ampere hours
2. kWh
3. amperes
4. ampere-volts

Correct Ans: C

Q49.A 17 inch personal computer uses approximately 150 watts in an hour. If you have same computer on for only 4 minutes (for checking e-mail) what would be the power consumption?

1. 0.1 kW
2. 0.04 kW
3. 0.01 kW
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q50.The UGVCL is operative in the ___________ Gujarat.

1. Northern
2. Southern
3. Central
4. Western

Correct Ans: A

Q51.The kVA rating of Three-phase transformer with Voltage = 200V and Current = 100A will be :

1. 34.64 kVA
2. 75 kVA
3. 20 kVA
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q52.GUVNL is :

1. Gujarat Urja Vikas Nigam Limited
2. Gujarat Urja Vikas Nikash Limited
3. Gujarat Urja Vyapar Nigam Limited
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q53.The friction losses in Real Transformers are :

1. 0 \(\%\)
2. 5 \(\%\)
3. 25 \(\%\)
4. 50 \(\%\)

Correct Ans: A

Q54.Transformer core is laminated to _____________ .

1. Reduce hysteresis loss
2. Reduce eddy current losses
3. Reduce copper losses
4. Reduce all above losses

Correct Ans: B

Q55.Step-down transformer converts high voltage and low current into:

1. How voltage and high current
2. High voltage and low current
3. Low voltage and high current
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q56.The permissible voltage variation in transmission and distribution system is

1. \(\pm 0.1 \%\)
2. \(\pm 1 \%\)
3. \(\pm 10 \%\)
4. \(\pm 25 \%\)

Correct Ans: C

Q57.A Transformer______________.

1. Changes DC to AC
2. Changes AC to DC
3. Steps up or down DC Voltages & Current
4. Steps up or down AC Voltages & Current

Correct Ans: D

Q58.Increasing the number of turns of wire on the secondary of a transformer will

1. Decrease the secondary current
2. Increase the primary current
3. Have no effect on the secondary current
4. Increase the secondary current

Correct Ans: A

Q59.In a transmission line if booster transformers are to be used, preferred location will be

1. At the receiving end
2. At the sending end
3. At the intermediate point
4. Anywhere in the line

Correct Ans: C

Q60.Core type transformers are popular in___________.

1. High voltage applications
2. Low voltage applications
3. All of the above
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q61.As per Electricity Act, _____________means a process which simultaneously produces two or more forms of useful energy (including electricity).

1. Cogeneration
2. Power generation
3. Captive Power Plant
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q62.Wave trap is used to trap the waves of

1. Power frequencies
2. Higher frequencies entering generator or transformer units
3. Either of above
4. None of above

Correct Ans: B

Q63.The main objectives in framing tariff are:

1. The consumers must readily understand the tariffs
2. The tariff must be equitable amongst different consumers
3. Tariffs can be modified from time to time
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q64.In the circuit breaker, the arcing contacts are made of

1. Stainless steel
2. Hard pressed carbon
3. porcelain
4. copper tungsten alloy

Correct Ans: D

Q65.The core construction is like spokes of a wheel in following transformer:

1. Berry Type Transformer
2. Core Type Transformer
3. Shell Type Transformer
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q66.DGVCL is not distributing electricity in __________ district.

1. Tapi
2. Vadodara
3. Navsari
4. Valsad

Correct Ans: B

Q67.You should choose Sleep option when

1. The computer is tired after working for the whole day.
2. You are leaving for a very short time and want to resume your work shortly.
3. When computer gets hanged frequently. Let it sleep for some time.
4. You finish working and are going to bed.

Correct Ans: B

Q68.Admittance relay is _______ relay.

1. Impedance
2. Directional
3. Non-directional
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q69.As per Electricity Act,______________ means a person who has been granted a license to undertake trading in electricity under section 12.

1. Electricity trader
2. Electricity supplier
3. All of the above
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q70.Directional relays are based on flow of

1. Power
2. Current
3. Voltage
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q71.One kilowatt-hour is?

1. 3.6 mega joules
2. 2.6 mega joules
3. 1.6 mega joules
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q72.kWh meter is the electric meter that measures the amount of electrical _________ in kWh that was consumed in the house.

1. Energy
2. Current
3. Voltage
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q73.A Step Up transformer :

1. Steps up the level of Voltage
2. Steps down the level of current
3. Step up the level of Frequency
4. (a) and (b) only

Correct Ans: D

Q74.________are used where it is necessary to control a circuit by a low power signal.

1. Relays
2. Transformer
3. Electric Motor
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q75.The following is/are the characteristics of \(SF_6\) circuit breakers:

1. It does not need an auxiliary breaking chamber
2. Short break time of 2 to 2.5 cycles
3. All of the above
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q76.A fuse wire should have

1. Low specific resistance and high melting point
2. Low specific resistance and low melting point
3. High specific resistance and high melting point
4. High specific resistance and low melting point

Correct Ans: D

Q77.For cost & safety, the outdoor substations are installed for voltages above:

1. 11 kV
2. 33 kV
3. 60 kV
4. 110 kV

Correct Ans: B

Q78.The Electricity Act is an Act of _______________of India enacted to transform the power sector in India.

1. The Parliament
2. A State resolution
3. All of the above
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q79.The process of a computer receiving information from a server via Internet is known as:

1. Uploading
2. Retrieving
3. Downloading
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q80.Reactance relay is normally preferred for protection against

1. Phase Fault
2. Over voltage Fault
3. Earth Fault
4. None of these

Correct Ans: C

Q81.The voltage of transmission can be regulated by

1. Use of tap changing transformers
2. Switching in shunt capacitors at the receiving end during heavy loads
3. Use of capacitors to neutralize the effect of series reactance
4. Any of the above methods

Correct Ans: D

Q82.Which of the following circuit breakers has high reliability & minimum maintenance?

1. Bulk oil type CB
2. Air blast CB
3. Vacuum CB
4. Sulphur hexafluoride CB

Correct Ans: D

Q83.True value has been 50 whereas measured value is 40 then the percentage error in the reading will be ______.

1. 20%
2. 40%
3. 50%
4. 30%

Correct Ans: A

Q84.The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to

1. Regenerative cycle efficiency
2. Rankine cycle efficiency
3. Carnot cycle efficiency
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q85.Which of the following is not a part of transformer installation?

1. Conservator
2. Breather
3. Buchholz Relay
4. Exciter

Correct Ans: D

Q86.The consumer of electricity could be :

1. Domestic
2. Agricultural
3. Industrial and Commercial
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q87.Which of the following does not change in a transformer ?

1. Current
2. Voltage
3. Frequency
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q88.The main advantage of AC over DC is:

1. Conversion flexibility from one voltage level to other
2. AC can be easily converted into DC by using a rectifier
3. AC is easy to maintain & can be easily distributed at long distances
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q89.The relay operating speed depends upon

1. The spring tension
2. The rate of flux built up
3. Armature core air gap
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q90.The arc temperature in Oil Circuit Breaker may reach up to_______.

1. 5,000 K
2. 8,000 K
3. 10,000 K
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q91.Taskbar is used for

1. Navigation program
2. Switching between program
3. Start a program
4. All of above

Correct Ans: D

Q92.Which of the following 3-phase connection of a transformer causes interference with the neighbouring communication lines:

1. Delta-Star
2. Star-Delta
3. Delta-Delta
4. Star-Star

Correct Ans: D

Q93.The following is a Distribution Company:

1. DERC
2. MGVCL
3. GERC
4. CSERC

Correct Ans: B

Q94.The rating of transformer may be expressed in ____________.

1. kVAR
2. kW
3. kVA
4. Horse power

Correct Ans: C

Q95.The transformer works on the principle of:

1. Mutual induction
2. Mutual capacitance
3. All of the above
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q96.The load of a consumer is generally measured in terms of :

1. Volts
2. Amperes
3. Ampere hour
4. kW

Correct Ans: D

Q97.In India __________ supply is 415 V supply through 4-wires.

1. Single - phase
2. Three - phase
3. Two-phase
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q98.The following is a Transmission Company:

1. GERC
2. DGVCL
3. GETCO
4. MGVCL

Correct Ans: C

Q99.Cylindrical type transformer has:

1. Single magnetic circuit
2. Double magnetic circuit
3. All of the above
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q100.An Auto-transformer (which has only one winding) may be used as a ______ .

1. Both Step-Up and Step-Down transformer
2. Step-Down Transformer
3. Step-Up Transformer
4. None of these

Correct Ans: A

QGL1.સાઠ વર્ષે ઊજવાતો ઉત્સવ'- આ માટે વપરાતો એક શબ્દ જણાવો.

1. રજત મહોત્સવ
2. હીરક મહોત્સવ
3. સુવર્ણ મહોત્સવ
4. અમૃત મહોત્સવ

Correct Ans: B

QGL2.તે પૂરાં ભજિયાં બનાવતાં ય જાણતી નથી. આ વાક્યને સુધારીને સાચો વિકલ્પ આપો.

1. તે ભજિયાં બનાવતાંય પુરું જાણતી નથી.
2. તે પૂરાં ભજિયાં બનાવવાનું ય જાણતી નથી.
3. તે પૂરાં ભજિયાં બનાવતાં ય જાણતી નથી.
4. કોઇ સુધારો નહિ

Correct Ans: A

QGL3.પ્રસાદ: કૃપા : : પ્રાસાદ : ________ અર્થભેદ સ્પષ્ટ કરો.

1. પ્રાસ
2. નૈવેધની પ્રસાદી
3. પ્રસન્નતા
4. મહેલ

Correct Ans: D

QGL4.નીચેનામાંથી ક્યા વિકલ્પમાં વિરુદ્ધાર્થી શબ્દ છે ?

1. બપોર- મધ્યાહ્ન
2. ચડતી-પ્રગતિ
3. સગવડ-સુવિધા
4. ફળદ્રુપ-ઉજ્જડ

Correct Ans: D

QGL5.શિક્ષકે પૂછ્યું, તારે શું જોવે છે? રેખાંકિત ભાગમાં ભૂલ લાગતીહોય તો પ્રથમ ત્રણમાંથી સાચો વિકલ્પ પસંદ કરો અથવા ભૂલ ન હોય તો ચોથો વિકલ્પ આપો.

1. કોઇ ભૂલ નથી
2. જુવે છે
3. જોઇએ છે
4. જોઇએ છીએ

Correct Ans: C

QGL6.પોલીસે ચોરનો હાથ ઝાલ્યો અને તેને હાથકડી પહેરાવી'. આ વાક્ય રચનાનો પ્રકાર જણાવો.

1. સાદું વાક્ય
2. સંયુક્ત વાક્ય
3. સંકુલ વાક્ય
4. પ્રેરક વાક્ય

Correct Ans: B

QGL7.આપેલા વાક્યોમાંથી કઇ રચના ભાવે પ્રકારની છે?

1. તેનાથી બારમાની પરીક્ષા અપાઇ.
2. મારાથી ગીત ગવાયું.
3. મારાથી પત્ર લખાય છે.
4. મારાથી મિત્રને વળગીને ખૂબ રડાયું.

Correct Ans: D

QGL8.અહીં આપેલા વિરુદ્ધાર્થી જોડકાં પૈકી કયું જોડકું અયોગ્ય છે?

1. સાર્થક × નિરર્થક
2. નિવૃત્તિ × સંવૃત્તિ
3. શાશ્વત × ક્ષણિક
4. શિખર × તળેટી

Correct Ans: B

QGL9.આપેલા વાક્યોમાંથી કયું સંકુલ વાક્ય છે તે જણાવો.

1. તેણે ખૂબ મહેનત કરી પણ કામમાં ન આવી.
2. હું જેમ બોલું તેમ બોલ.
3. બોલવું ન હતું એટલે બોલ્યો નહિ.
4. વાંચો અને પાસ થાવ.

Correct Ans: B

QGL10.અહી આપેલા શબ્દોને અર્થપૂર્ણ ક્રમમાં ગોઠવો. (1) દૂધ (2) ઘી (3) ગાય (4) ઘાસ (5) માખણ

1. 5,4,3,2,1
2. 3,4,1,5,2
3. 4,3,5,1,2
4. 4,3,1,2,5

Correct Ans: B

QGK1.Which among the following cities will host the Summer Olympic Games in 2024?

1. Paris
2. New Delhi
3. London
4. Sydeny

Correct Ans: A

QGK2.Who has been appointed as the first Lieutenant Governer of the Union Territory of Ladakh?

1. Radha Krishna Mathur
2. Amit shah
3. Satya Pal Malik
4. Ram Nath Kovind

Correct Ans: A

QGK3.Which state has recently approved the 'Disha Bill 2019' which mandates disposal of cases of atrocities against women within 21 days?

1. West Bengal
2. Punjab
3. Uttar Pradesh
4. Andhra Pradesh

Correct Ans: D

QGK4.What is the full form of TRAI?

1. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India
2. Transmission Regulatory Authority of India
3. Technological Regulatory Authority of India
4. Television Regulatory Authority of India

Correct Ans: A

QGK5.Who is the chairman of \(15^{th}\) Finance Commission of India?

1. Nand Kishor Singh
2. Urjit Patel
3. Arvind Panagariya
4. Rajiv Kumar

Correct Ans: A

QGK6.Which of the following countries partnered with India under IBSA Dialogue Forum?

1. Bangladesh, Singapore and Australia
2. Brunei, Sudan and Armenia
3. Brazil and South Africa
4. Bhutan, Sri Lanka and Afghanistan

Correct Ans: C

QGK7.Which among the following Indian states shares its border with Nepal?

1. Assam
2. Uttarakhand
3. Arunachal Pradesh
4. Himachal Pradesh

Correct Ans: B

QGK8.When was the Poona Pact signed by B.R.Ambedkar?

1. 1940
2. 1945
3. 1947
4. 1932

Correct Ans: D

QGK9.AIDS is an acronym of _____________

1. Acquired Integrated Deficiency Syndrome
2. Acquired Inoculation Deficiency Syndrome
3. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
4. Acquired Influenza Deficiency Syndrom

Correct Ans: C

QGK10.Lignite is an example of which type of rock?

1. Plutonic Rock
2. Sedimentary Rock
3. Metamorphic Rock
4. Volcanic Rock

Correct Ans: B

QEK1.Replace the underlined phrase grammatically with the help of the given options. If the given sentence is correct then select the option 'The given sentence is correct'.

The conference \(\mathbf{\underline{was\: prolongs\: because\: they \:were}}\) waiting for their chief guest to arrive

1. The given sentence is correct
2. was prolonged because they were
3. was prolonged since they will
4. was prolonged because they was

Correct Ans: B

QEK2.Fill the blanks with suitable Article from the given alternatives.

Oncologists are doctors who specialize in treating _________ cancer.

1. the
2. No article
3. an
4. a

Correct Ans: B

QEK3.Choose the word which best expresses the similar meaning of the given word "INEPT".

1. Expert
2. Artless
3. Lucid
4. Able

Correct Ans: B

QEK4.Rearrange the following to form a meaningful sentence and find the most logical order from the given options.

P: as an environmental scourge that killed

Q: in 2017, air pollution should be

R: an estimated 1.24 million people in India

S: among the highest policy priorities

1. PSRQ
2. PRQS
3. PRSQ
4. PQRS

Correct Ans: B

QEK5.Fill in the blanks with suitable Preposition from the given alternatives.

My friend is afraid ______ animals.

1. beneath
2. above
3. in
4. of

Correct Ans: D

QEK6.Choose the best option from the given alternatives which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

A place for clothes

1. Oasis
2. Wardrobe
3. Corridor
4. Abattoir

Correct Ans: B

QEK7.Find the word which is correctly spelt from the given options.

1. Beautifully
2. Encaptulate
3. Contagiuous
4. Detorioration

Correct Ans: A

QEK8.Find the word which is correctly spelt from the given options.

1. Enacttment
2. Consistancy
3. Abandoned
4. Benavolent

Correct Ans: C

QEK9.In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the option corresponding to it. If the sentence contains no error, Select "No error" option. (Avoid punctuation errors)

(A) How long have / (B) you been working / (C) on this company?/ (D) NO ERROR

1. A
2. D
3. B
4. C

Correct Ans: D

QEK10.Choose the word which expresses nearly the opposite meaning of the given word "TURMOIL".

1. Disorder
2. Calm
3. Disturbance
4. Bustle

Correct Ans: B

QEE1.A step down DC chopper has input voltage of 200 V with 10 Ω load resistor connected, voltage drop across chopper is 2 V when it is ON. For a duty cycle of 0.6, calculate the average value of output voltage.

1. 131 V
2. 154 V
3. 118.8 V
4. 121.2 V

Correct Ans: C

QEE2.If the severity of single line-to-ground fault at the terminals of an unloded star connected synchronous generator is greater than that of 3-phase faults, then _______ where, \(X_1\) is the positive sequence reactance of the generator, \(X_{g0}\) is the zero sequence reactance of the generator and \(X_n\) is the neutral reactance.

1. \(X_n=\frac{1}{3}(X_1-X_{g0})\)
2. \(X_n<\frac{1}{3}(X_1-X_{g0})\)
3. \(X_n=3(X_1-X_{g0})\)
4. \(X_n>\frac{1}{3}(X_1-X_{g0})\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE3.Hay's bridge is suitable for the measurment of ________ .

1. capacitance with low dissipating factors
2. capacitance with high dissipating factors
3. inductance with \(Q<10\)
4. indutance with \(Q>10\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE4.The value of \(\int_{0}^{2+i} Z^{-2}dz\) along the line \(y=\frac{x}{2}\) is equal to _________.

1. \(\frac{5}{2}(2-i)\)
2. \(\frac{5}{3}(2-i)\)
3. \(\frac{5}{3}(2i+1)\)
4. \(\frac{5}{3}(2+i)\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE05.The condition for symmetry of impulse response of M-point linear phase FIR system, when \(h(n)\) is non-zero for \(0 \le n \le M-1,\) is ________.

1. \(h(n) = h(M-1)\)
2. \(h(n) = h(M+1+n)\)
3. \(h(n) = h(M-n)\)
4. \(h(n) = h(M-1-n)\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE6.Two identical coaxial circular coils carry the same current 'I', but in opposite directions. The magnitude of the magnetic field 'B' at a point on the axis midway between the coils is _____ .

1. twice that produced by one coil
2. Zero
3. half that produced by one coil
4. same as that produced by one coil

Correct Ans: B

QEE7.A 250 V DC shunt motor takes 41 A at full load. The resistance of motor armature and shunt field winding are 0.1 Ω and 250 Ω respectively. Calculate the back emf on full load.

1. \(E_b\)= 254 V
2. \(E_b\)= 250 V
3. \(E_b\)= 125 V
4. \(E_b\)= 246 V

Correct Ans: D

QEE8.The input voltage applied to a \(1\:k\Omega\) resistance in order that a current of 100 mA may flow is:

1. 0.1 V
2. 100 V
3. 1 V
4. 10 V

Correct Ans: B

QEE9.Two inductively coupled coils have self inductance \(L_1=50\: mH\) and \(L_2= 200 \:mH\). The maximum possible mutual inductance between the coils is _______ .

1. 100 mH
2. 250 mH
3. 150 mH
4. 200 mH

Correct Ans: A

QEE10.A unity feedback control system has an open loop transfer function

\(G(s)=\frac{K}{s(s+1)(s+2)(s+3)}\)


The centroid of the asymptotes in root-locus will be ________.

1. \(-1\)
2. \(-1.5\)
3. \(0\)
4. \(2\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE11.In power system load flow studies, the quantities specified at a slack bus are _______ and _______ .

1. V and \(\delta\)
2. P and \(\delta\)
3. P and Q
4. P and V

Correct Ans: A

QEE12.If the field of the synchronous motor is over excited, the power factor will be _______ .

1. Unity
2. Zero
3. Lagging
4. Leading

Correct Ans: D

QEE13.The Fourier series for the function \(f(x)=x(\pi -x)\:in \: 0\le x \le \pi \:is\: f(x)=\frac{\pi^2}{6}-4 \Big [\frac{\cos 2x}{2^2}+\frac{\cos 4x}{4^2}+... \Big ]\) Then \(\frac{1}{1^4}+\frac{1}{2^4}+\frac{1}{3^4}+\frac{1}{4^4}+...\infty \:\:is\) ___________.

1. \(\frac{\pi^2}{6}\)
2. \(\frac{\pi^4}{90}\)
3. \(\frac{\pi^2}{12}\)
4. \(\frac{\pi}{8}\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE14.For the closed-loop second order system with PI controller shown in Fig., the steady state error for unit ramp input is given by:

1. \(e_{SS}=\frac{2\zeta}{\omega_n}\)
2. \(0\)
3. \(e_{SS}=\frac{\zeta}{\omega_n}\)
4. \(e_{SS}=2\zeta \omega_n\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE15.The value of \(\iint r^3drd\theta\) over the area between \(r=2\sin\theta\) and \(r=4\sin\theta\) is equal to __________.

1. \(\frac{45}{2}\)
2. \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
3. \(\frac{45\pi}{2}\)
4. \(\frac{43\pi}{2}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE16.The open loop transfer function of unity feedback control system is:


\(G(s)=\frac{K}{s(s+a)(s+b)},\: 0 < a \le b\). The system is stable if

1. \(0 < K < ab(a+b)\)
2. \(0 < K < \frac{a(a+b)}{b}\)
3. \(0 < K < \frac{(a+b)}{ab}\)
4. \(0 < K < \frac{ab}{(a+b)}\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE17.The emf generated by a DC generator running at 600 rpm is 400 V. What should be the speed of rotation if the induced emf is 500 V? Assume the flux to be constant.

1. 600 rpm
2. 750 rpm
3. 330 rpm
4. 480 rpm

Correct Ans: B

QEE18.Determine the constant 'C' such that the vector \(\vec F=(x+5y)\hat a_x+(y-3x)\hat a_y+(x+cz)\hat a_z\) will be Solenoidal.

1. c = 1
2. c = -1
3. c = 2
4. c = -2

Correct Ans: D

QEE19.The output Y of the logic circuit shown in Fig. is _______ .

1. \(Y=A\)
2. \(Y=\overline{A}\)
3. \(Y=1\)
4. \(Y=0\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE20.A resistor of 50 \(\Omega\), an inductor of 0.02 H and a capacitor of 5 \(\mu F\) are connected in series. The power factor at resonance is __________ .

1. zero
2. 0.8 leading
3. unity
4. 0.8 lagging

Correct Ans: C

QEE21.If 'f' is the supply frequency, then in a 3-phase full converter, the output voltage pulsates at a frequency equal to _______.

1. 6f
2. 2f
3. 3f
4. f

Correct Ans: A

QEE22.The per unit impedance of a generator on a 60 MVA, 20 kV base is j0.09 p.u. The per unit impedance to a 100 MVA, 20 kV base will be ______ .

1. j 0.54 p.u.
2. j 1.5 p.u.
3. j 0.15 p.u.
4. j 0.054 p.u.

Correct Ans: C

QEE23.In the inverting amplifier circuit shown in Fig., \(R_1 = 1 k\Omega\) and \(R_f = 3 k\Omega\). Determine the output voltage \(V_o\) when the input voltage is \(V_{in} = 1 V\).

1. \(V_o = 3 \:V\)
2. \(V_o = 1.5 \:V\)
3. \(V_o = - 1.5 \:V\)
4. \(V_o = -3 \:V\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE24.\(x\:\xrightarrow{lim}\:0^+ \frac{\log{x}}{\cot x}\) =

1. 2
2. 1
3. 0
4. -1

Correct Ans: C

QEE25.There charges q, -q and q are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side 'a' as shown in Fig. Find the field at the centroid of the triangle.

1. \(E=\frac{3}{2}(\frac{q}{\pi \varepsilon a^2})\)
2. \(E=\frac{1}{2}(\frac{q}{\pi \varepsilon a^2})\)
3. \(E=\frac{3}{4}(\frac{q}{\pi \varepsilon a^3})\)
4. \(E=\frac{1}{3}(\frac{q}{\pi \varepsilon a})\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE26.If 'Pm' is the gross mechanical power developed, 'Pcu' is the rotor copper loss and 's' is the slip of induction motor, then the ratio of rotor copper loss to the gross mechanical power developed is ________ .

1. \(\frac{P_{cu}}{P_m}=s\)
2. \(\frac{P_{cu}}{P_m}=1-s\)
3. \(\frac{P_{cu}}{P_m}=\frac{1-s}{s}\)
4. \(\frac{P_{cu}}{P_m}=\frac{s}{1-s}\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE27.In the toggle mode, a JK flip-flop has ______ .

1. J = 0 and K = 1
2. J = 1 and K = 0
3. J = 1 and K = 1
4. J = 0 and K = 0

Correct Ans: C

QEE28.A 3-PHASE inverter delivers power to a resistive load from a DC source \('V_s'\). For star connected load of \(R' \Omega\) per phase, the RMS value of load current \((I_{or})\) for 120 degree conduction mode is ______ .

1. \(I_{or}=\frac{1}{\sqrt2}(\frac{V_s}{R})\)
2. \(I_{or}=\frac{\sqrt3}{2}(\frac{V_s}{R})\)
3. \(I_{or}=\frac{1}{\sqrt3}(\frac{V_s}{R})\)
4. \(I_{or}=\frac{1}{\sqrt6}(\frac{V_s}{R})\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE29.The solution of \((D^2-7DD^{'}+6D^{'2})z=0\) is _______. [Where \(D=\frac{∂}{∂x}\) & \(D^{'}=\frac{∂}{∂y}\)]

1. \(z=f_1(y+x)+f_2(y+6x)\)
2. \(z=f_1(y+x)+f_2(y-6x)\)
3. \(z=f_1(y-x)+f_2(y+6x)\)
4. \(z=f_1(y-x)+f_2(y-6x)\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE30.When the load impedance is equal to the characteristic impedance of the transmission lines, then the reflection coefficient and standing wave ratio are, respectively _____ .

1. 0 and 1
2. 0 and 0
3. 1 and 1
4. 1 and 0

Correct Ans: A

QEE31.The equivalent circuit representation for the electrical circuit shown in Fig. is

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Correct Ans: D

QEE32.What is the fundamental period \(T_o\) of the signal \(x(t) = 2 \cos(\frac{t}{4})?\)

1. \(T_o=6\pi\)
2. \(T_o=10\pi\)
3. \(T_o=4\pi\)
4. \(T_o=8\pi\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE33.For 'n' on-cycles and 'm' off-cycle of single phase AC voltage controller, the input power factor is _______ .

1. \(\sqrt \frac{n}{n+m}\)
2. \(\sqrt \frac{m}{n}\)
3. \(\sqrt \frac{n}{m}\)
4. \(\sqrt {nm}\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE34.A transformer has equivalent resistance referred to secondary R02 and reactance referred to secondary X02. The regulation will be zero when the phase angle is ____ .

1. \(\phi=\tan^{-1}(\frac{R_{02}}{X_{02}})
   \)
2. \(\phi=\tan^{-1}(\sqrt\frac{R_{02}}{X_{02}})
   \)
3. \(\phi=\tan^{-1}(\frac{X_{02}}{R_{02}})
   \)
4. \(\phi=\tan^{-1}(\sqrt\frac{X_{02}}{R_{02}})
   \)

Correct Ans: A

QEE35. What capacitance must be connected in series with a \(30\:\mu F\) capacitor for the equivalent capacitance to be \(10\:\mu F\)?

1. \(10\mu F\)
2. \(20\mu F\)
3. \(5\mu F\)
4. \(15\mu F\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE36.An induction motor has a short-circuit current equal to five times the full-load current and full load slip is 4%. If the motor is started by a direct-on-line starter, then the ratio of the starting torque '\(T_{st}\)' to the full load torque '\(T_{fl}\)' is given by _______ .

1. \(\frac{T_{st}}{T_{fl}}=1\)
2. \(\frac{T_{st}}{T_{fl}}=0.04\)
3. \(\frac{T_{st}}{T_{fl}}=4\)
4. \(\frac{T_{st}}{T_{fl}}=1.25\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE37.A fixed resistor of suitable value is usually across a thermistor to ______ .

1. improve its linearity
2. decrease its resistance
3. increase its sensitivity
4. compensate its self-heating effect

Correct Ans: A

QEE38.The minimum number of 2-input NAND gates required to implement a 2-input XOR gate is _____ .

1. 4
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5

Correct Ans: A

QEE39.Determine the closed loop transfer function \(\frac{C(s)}{R(s)}\) for the block diagram shown in Fig.

1. \(\frac{C(s)}{R(s)}=\frac{G_1}{1+G_1H_1+G_1H_2}\)
2. \(\frac{C(s)}{R(s)}=\frac{G_1}{1-G_1H_1-G_1H_1H_2}\)
3. \(\frac{C(s)}{R(s)}=\frac{G_1}{1-G_1H_1+G_1H_2}\)
4. \(\frac{C(s)}{R(s)}=\frac{G_1}{1+G_1H_1+G_1H_1H_2}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE40.For the Circuit shown in Fig., find the value of resistor \(R_X\) such that the total power dissipated in the circuit is 2.5 kW.

1. 38 \(\Omega \)
2. 12 \(\Omega \)
3. 19 \(\Omega \)
4. 21 \(\Omega \)

Correct Ans: A

QEE41.A single phase transformer is connected to a 800 V supply. The voltage/turn of the transformer is 8 V. The secondary voltage of the transformer is found to be 400 V. Determine the number of primary and secondary winding turns.

1. N1= 800 turns and N2 = 30 turns
2. N1 = 75 turns and N2 = 25 turns
3. N1 =100 turns and N2 = 50 turns
4. N1 =125 turns and N2 = 65 turns

Correct Ans: C

QEE42.Consider an analog signal \(x(t) = 5 \sin(6000\pi t)+10 \cos(12000 \pi t)\). What is the Nyquist rate for this signal?

1. 24000 Hz
2. 12000 Hz
3. 18000 Hz
4. 6000 Hz

Correct Ans: B

QEE43.Which of the following multirange voltmeters has high and constant input impedance?

1. Electronic Voltmeter
2. Moving Iron Voltmeter
3. Dynamometer Type Voltmeter
4. PMMC Voltmeter

Correct Ans: A

QEE44.Which one of the following network gets affected by the method of neutral grounding?

1. Positive sequence network
2. Negative sequence network
3. Zero sequence network
4. Both Positive and Negative sequence network

Correct Ans: C

QEE45.A 6-Pole, 3-phase induction motor operates from a supply whose frequency is 50Hz. Calculate the speed of the rotor when the slip is s=4%.

1. 960 rpm
2. 1000 rpm
3. 1500 rm
4. 980 rpm

Correct Ans: A

QEE46.Three loads, each of resistance 50 \(\Omega\) are connected in delta to a 400 V, 3-phase supply. Determine the phase voltage and the phase current.

1. 400 V, 8 A
2. 230 V, 8 A
3. 400 V, 14 A
4. 230 V, 14 A

Correct Ans: A

QEE47.If \(u(t-a)\) is a unit step function, then \(L\lbrace u(t-a)\rbrace=\)

1. \(\frac {e^{-as}}{s}\)
2. \(\frac {e^{as}}{s}\)
3. \(\frac {e^{-as}}{s^2}\)
4. \(\frac {e^{as}}{s^2}\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE48.If the time constant of the serie RL circuit with \(R = 250 \:\Omega\) is 1 sec, find the required value of self-inductance.

1. 500 H
2. 50 H
3. 250 H
4. 100 H

Correct Ans: C

QEE49.The state variable description of an LTI system is given by


\( \begin{bmatrix}\dot {x_1} \\ \dot {x_2} \\\dot {x_3} \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix}0 & a_1 & 0\\ 0 & 0 &a_2 \\ a_3 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x_1 \\ x_2 \\ x_3 \end{bmatrix} +\begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} u\)


\(y=\begin{bmatrix}1 & 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x_1 \\ x_2 \\ x_3 \end{bmatrix}\)


The system is controllable for _______________.

1. \(a_1 \ne0,a_2\ne 0,a_3=0\)
2. \(a_1 \ne0,a_2 = 0,a_3\ne 0\)
3. \(a_1 =0,a_2 \ne 0,a_3\ne 0\)
4. \(a_1 =0,a_2 \ne 0,a_3= 0\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE50.What is the equivalent inertia constant, if two machines having constants H1 and H2 are swinging coherently?

1. \(H_{eq} = H_1 - H_2\)
2. \(H_{eq} = \frac{H_1 \: H_2}{H_1 - H_2}\)
3. \(H_{eq} = H_1 + H_2\)
4. \(H_{eq} = \frac{H_1 \: H_2}{H_1 + H_2}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE51.The sum of squares of the Eigen values of the matrix A = \(\begin{bmatrix}1&0&0 \\3&-1&0 \\ 2 &4&3 \end{bmatrix}\) is equal to ________.

1. 3
2. 11
3. 9
4. 5

Correct Ans: B

QEE52.The solution of the differental equation \(y^{"}+y=0\) satisfying the conditions \(y(0)=1\) & \(y(\frac{\pi}{2})=2\), is _______.

1. \(\cos x+2\sin x\)
2. \(e^x+2e^x\)
3. \(e^x(A+Bx)\)
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

QEE53.Which of the following is a current controlled device with bidirectional curent capability?

1. MOSFET
2. TRIAC
3. BJT
4. SCR

Correct Ans: B

QEE54.The phase voltage of a delta-connected three phase system with balanced loads is 240 V. The line voltage is:

1. 240 V
2. 139 V
3. 320 V
4. 415 V

Correct Ans: A

QEE55.The Norton's equivalent circuit for the circuit shown in Fig. is _______ .

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Correct Ans: B

QEE56.The Fourier Cosine Transform of the function \(F(x)=\left\{
\begin{array}{rl}
1, & \mbox{|x|$\lt $ $a$}\\
0, & \mbox{|x|>$a$}
\end{array}
\right.\)

1. \(\sqrt{\frac{2}{\pi}}\frac{\sin as}{s}\)
2. \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{\pi}}\frac{\cos as}{s}\)
3. \(\sqrt{\frac{1}{\pi}}\frac{\sin as}{s}\)
4. \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\frac{\cos as}{s}\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE57.A 500 KVA transformer with 5% reactance on its own rated kVA base will have a reactance of 10% at _____ .

1. 1500 kVA base
2. 2500 kVA base
3. 1000 kVA base
4. 500 kVA

Correct Ans: C

QEE58.If \(u=\frac{x^3 y^3 z^3}{x^3+ y^3+ z^3}\),then \(x\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}+y\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}+z\frac{\partial u}{\partial z}\)

1. 6\(u\)
2. 9\(u\)
3. 0
4. 3\(u\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE59. What is the flux density in a magnetic field of cross-sectional area 20 \(cm^2\) having a flux of 3 mWb?

1. 3 T
2. 6.5 T
3. 4.25 T
4. 1.5 T

Correct Ans: D

QEE60.A separately excited DC generator has induced emf of 250 V and a full load terminal voltage of 240 V. If the value of armature resistance is 0.1 \(\Omega\) ,find the output of the generator.

1. 26 kW
2. 25 kW
3. 24 kW
4. 28 kW

Correct Ans: C

QCK1.Identify whether the following statements are True or False with respect to Multithreading in Operating System:
Statement A: Single threaded process can run only on one processor regardless of how many processors are available.
Statement B: Multi-threading on a multiple CPU machine increases parallelism.

1. Statement A is False and Statement B is True
2. Both Statement A & Statement B are True
3. Both Statement A & Statement B are False
4. Statement A is True and Statement B is False

Correct Ans: B

QCK2.Identify which is not a type of SAN protocol?

1. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI)
2. Fibre Channel Protocol (FCP)
3. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE)
4. Network File System (NFS)

Correct Ans: D

QCK3.________________ is an act of sending Unsolicited Bulk E-mails (UBI) which one has not asked for.

1. Ads in websites
2. E-mail spamming
3. Vitus
4. Marketing mails

Correct Ans: B

QCK4.AGP, AMR, CNR, PCI are some of the slots in Motherboard. Identify the usage of these slots:

1. Inductor
2. RAM slot
3. Expansion slot
4. CPU slot

Correct Ans: C

QCK5.Identify the shortcut key in MS Word for indenting text.

1. Ctrl +J
2. Ctrl + K
3. Ctrl + I
4. Ctrl + M

Correct Ans: D

QCK6._______________ is the portion of virtual memory that is on the hard disk, used when RAM is full.

1. Additional space
2. Free space
3. Swap space
4. Empty space

Correct Ans: C

QCK7.______________ is the geometric representation of all the nodes in a network.

1. Logical topology
2. Physical topology
3. Bus Topology
4. Mesh Topology

Correct Ans: B

QCK8.The operating system maintains a _________________ for every process and a list of free memory blocks along with segment numbers, their size and corresponding memory locations in main memory.

1. page map table
2. page number
3. segment map table
4. offset

Correct Ans: C

QCK9._______________ particularly infects the executable files; the files with .com or .exe extensions. The virus becomes active when the infected file is executed.

1. Computer Worm
2. File Infector Virus
3. Multipartite Virus
4. Boot Virus

Correct Ans: B

QCK10.What will the shortcut key Ctrl + 9 will do in MsExcel?

1. Its use is to show (unhide) the hidden rows.
2. Its use is to hide the selected rows in the worksheet
3. It is used to hide the selected columns.
4. Its use is to put the strikethrough to all selected cells.

Correct Ans: B

Q1.Due to skin effect.  

1.  Current flows through the half cross section of the conductor  
2. Portion of the conductor near the surface carries less current and the core of the conductor carries more current.  
3.  Portion of the conductor near the surface carries more current and the core of the conductor carries less current  
4.  Uniform current flows through the conductor  

Correct Ans: C

Q2.In power plant a reserve generating capacity which is in operation but not in service is called as

1. cold reserve
2. hot reserve
3. firm reserve
4. spinning reserve

Correct Ans: B

Q3.The main advantage of using frictional Pitch winding is to reduce.  

1.  Amount of copper in the winding  
2.  Size of the machine  
3. Harmonics in the generated EMF  
4.  Cost of the machine  

Correct Ans: C

Q4.In a series RLC circuit, at resonance  

1.  Current is maximum and power factor is unity.  
2.  Current is minimum and power factor is 0.5.  
3.  Current is maximum and power factor is 0.5.  
4.  Current is minimum and power factor is unity.  

Correct Ans: A

Q5.Distribution transformers have good all day efficiency due to

1. low copper loss
2. low iron loss
3. low copper and iron loss
4. None of these

Correct Ans: B

Q7.What happens to the contents of (RAM) Random access memory, when the power of the computer is turned off? 

1.  Content is lost 
2.  Content remains intact 
3.  Content is transferred to other memory.  
4.  Content gets corrupted  

Correct Ans: A

Q8.Under operating conditions, the secondary of a current transformer is always short circuited because  

1.  It protects the primary circuits
2.  It avoids core saturation and high voltage induction
3.  It is safe to human beings
4.  It protects the secondary circuits

Correct Ans: B

Q9.The advantage of slip ring induction motor over the squirrel cage induction motor is  

1.  It is suitable for higher speed 
2.  It has higher efficiency 
3.  Its power factor is higher 
4. It can be started with the help of rotor resistance

Correct Ans: D

Q10.The corona effect can be minimized by increasing.  

1.  The length of the conductor  
2.  Spacing between the conductors  
3.  Diameter of the conductor  
4.  Both spacing between the conductors and diameter of the conductor  

Correct Ans: D

Q19.Hysteresis in an instrument means  

1. The repeatability of the instrument 
2. The reliability of the instrument 
3.  The change in the same reading when the input is first increased and then decreased.  
4.  The inaccuracy due to change in temperature

Correct Ans: C

Q20. The mutual inductance between two unity coupled coils of 9H and 4H is 

1. 36 H 
2. 13H 
3. 2.2 H 
4. 6H 

Correct Ans: D

Q21.If the fault current is 2000 A, the relay setting is 50% and CT ratio is 400:5, the plug setting multiplier is

1. 25
2. 15
3. 50
4. 10

Correct Ans: D

Q22.If the excitation of a synchronous generator fails, it act as a

1.  Synchronous motor  
2. Synchronous generator  
3. Induction motor  
4. Induction generator  

Correct Ans: D

Q23.The motor used in ceiling fan is  

1.  Split phase motor  
2. Capacitor start capacitor run motor  
3. Capacitor start motor 
4.  Universal motor  

Correct Ans: A

Q24.The purpose of Interpoles in DC machine is to nullify  

1.  the demagnetizing effect of Armature MMF.  
2.  The cross magnetizing effect of Armature MMF  
3.  The reactance voltage
4. the cross magnetizing MMF and the reactance voltage  

Correct Ans: D

Q27.What type of insulators will be used if the direction of the
transmission line is changed?

1. strain type
2. shackle type
3. Pin type.
4. suspension type

Correct Ans: A

Q28.IDMT relay Provides  

1.  An inverse time current characteristic  
2.  A definite time characteristics for lower values of fault current and an inverse characteristics for high values of fault current 
3.  A define time current characteristic  
4.  An Inverse characteristic for low values of the fault current and a define time characteristic for high values of the fault current

Correct Ans: D

Q30.The purpose of skewing of rotor slots in an induction motor is 

1.  To reduce the magnetic hum of the motor
2.  To increase the distribution Factor  
3.  To reduce the Locking tendency of the rotor  
4.  To increase the breadth Factor  

Correct Ans: A

Q31.Transposition of a transmission line is done to

1. Reduce line loss
2. Reduce skin effect
3. Balance line voltage drop
4. Reduce corona

Correct Ans: C

Q32.Making capacity of a circuit breaker is equal to

1. \(2.55\) times symmetrical breaking current.
2. \(1.5\) times symmetrical breaking current.
3. \(\sqrt{2}\) times symmetrical breaking current.
4. symmetrical breaking current.

Correct Ans: A

Q33.The bus bar zone faults are generally

1. phase to phase faults
2. double line to ground faults
3. single line to ground faults
4. three phase short circuit

Correct Ans: C

Q34.The main Criterion for the design of a distributor is

1. Voltage drop
2. Corona loss
3. Temperature rise
4. Radio interference

Correct Ans: A

Q35.An over excited synchronous motor draws current at

1. Lagging power factor
2. Unity power factor
3. Leading power factor
4. depends on nature of load

Correct Ans: C

Q36.For the protection of transformers, harmonic restraint is used to guard against

1. magnetising in-rush current
2. unbalanced operation
3. lightning
4. switching overvoltage

Correct Ans: A

Q37.If a relay fails to operate in spite of fault in its own zone of protection, it is said to

1. Over reach
2. Under reach
3. Reach
4. Pickup

Correct Ans: B

Q38.Which of the following correctly represent the sequence of operations of isolator, circuit breaker and earthing switch while opening a circuit?

1. Close earthing switch - open circuit breaker - open isolator
2. Close circuit breaker - close isolator - open earthing switch
3. Open isolator - close circuit breaker - open earthing switch
4. Open circuit breaker - open isolator - close earthing switch

Correct Ans: D

Q39.For fast load flow calculations, the best method is

1. Gauss-siedel
2. Newton raphson
3. Decoupled method
4. Approximate method

Correct Ans: B

Q40.Which of the following power distribution system gives better reliability?

1. Ring main system
2. Radial system
3. DC 3-wire system
4. None of these

Correct Ans: A

Q41.Which lightening stroke is most dangerous?

1. direct stroke on line conductor
2. direct stroke on tower top
3. indirect stroke on conductor
4. direct stroke on ground wire

Correct Ans: A

Q42.Which type of back up protection is widely used for the protection of Transmission Lines?

1. Relay backup
2. Remote backup
3. Control backup
4. Breaker backup

Correct Ans: B

Q43.A fuse wire should have

1. Low specific resistance and high melting point
2. Low specific resistance and low melting point
3. High specific resistance and high melting point
4. High specific resistance and low melting point

Correct Ans: D

Q44.buchholz relay causes

1. Tripping for Major fault and alarm for minor fault
2. Tripping for minor fault and alarm for Major fault
3. Tripping for both major and minor faults
4. Alarm for both major and minor faults

Correct Ans: A

Q45.In carrier current protection, the purpose of the wave trap is for

1. Trapping power frequency waves.
2. Trapping carrier frequency waves
3. Trapping high frequency waves entering into the generator-transformer unit.
4. Trapping low frequency waves entering into the generator-transformer unit.

Correct Ans: C

Q46.The best location of the power factor correction equipment to be installed in the transmission line is at

1. the sending end
2. any place
3. The receiving end
4. Middle of the line

Correct Ans: C

Q47.The efficiency of a transformer at full load, 0.8 p.f. lag is 90%. Its efficiency at full load, 0.8 p.f. lead will be

1. Less than 90%
2. More than 90%
3. 90%
4. 80%

Correct Ans: C

Q49.A mho relay is

1. voltage restrained
   directional relay..
2. voltage restrained over
   current relay.
3. directional restrained over-
   current relay.
4. directional restrained over-
   voltage relay.

Correct Ans: A

Q49.A mho relay is a

1. A voltage restrained directional relay
2. Directional restrained overvoltage relay
3. Voltage controlled over current relay
4. Directional restrained over current relay

Correct Ans: A

Q50.For Bulk power transmission over long distance HVDC is preffered because of

1. minimum line losses
2. of low cost
3. no harmonic problems
4. simple protection schemes

Correct Ans: A

Q51.Reactance relay is used to protect against

1. Earth fault only
2. Both phase and Earth faults
3. Phase fault only
4. Over voltage faults

Correct Ans: A

Q52.It is difficult to interrupt a capacitive current because

1. The current has a leading power
2. The restriking voltage can be high
3. Current magnitude is very small
4. Stored energy in the capacitor is very high

Correct Ans: B

Q53.The transient stability of a power system can be improved by

1. Excitation control
2. Single pole switching of circuit breaker
3. Phase shifting transformer
4. Increasing the turbine valve opening

Correct Ans: A

Q54.If the dielectric strength of the medium between the contacts build up more rapidly than the restriking voltage, the arc will be

1. Extinguish
2. Restrike
3. Increase in size
4. Decrease in size

Correct Ans: A

Q55.In a 3 step distance protection, the first zone distance relay protects a transmission line section upto

1. Its full length.
2. 50% of its full length.
3. 25% of its full length.
4. 80% of its full length.

Correct Ans: D

Q55.First zone distance relay protects the transmission line section up to

1. Its Full length
2. 25% of Its Full length
3. 50% Its Full length
4. 80% Its Full length

Correct Ans: D

Q57.\(Y_{bus}\) used in power flow studies and \(Z_{bus}\) used in short circuit studies

1. are the same
2. are transpose of each other
3. are inverse of each other
4. have no interrelation

Correct Ans: C

Q58.If a 5 A fuse is blown frequently in a house lighting circuit, it is required to

1. Insert a fuse of higher current rating
2. Insert a fuse of higher voltage rating
3. Check the load
4. Insert a fuse of higher wattage rating

Correct Ans: C

Q59.Which circuit breaker is generally used for railway traction?

1. \(SF_6\) circuit breaker
2. Air break circuit breaker
3. Vacuum circuit breaker
4. Minimum oil circuit breaker

Correct Ans: B

Q60.Permittivity is expressed in terms of

1. N/m
2. Weber/m
3. Farad/m
4. Farad/sq.m

Correct Ans: C

Q61.Which motor is used to start heavy load?

1. Shunt motor
2. Cumulatively compound motor
3. Differentially compound motor
4. Series motor

Correct Ans: D

Q62.The arc voltage in a circuit breaker is

1. in the phase with the arc current
2. lagging the arc current by 90°
3. leading the arc current by 90°
4. lagging the arc current by 180°

Correct Ans: A

Q63.For interruption of high voltages and low current, the circuit breaker preferred is

1. Air break circuit breaker
2. Air blast circuit breaker
3. Minimum oil circuit breaker
4. Vacuum circuit breaker

Correct Ans: B

Q64.To prevent mal-operation of differentially connected relay while energizing a transformer, the relay restraining coil is biased with

1. Second harmonic current.
2. Third harmonic current.
3. Fifth harmonic current.
4. Seventh harmonic current.

Correct Ans: A

Q66.If X is the system reactance and R its resistance, the power transferred is maximum when

1. \(X=R\)
2. \(X=\sqrt R\)
3. \(X=\sqrt 3\) R
4. \(X=2R \)

Correct Ans: C

Q67.Which of the following instruments is undesirable for the measurement of AC value?

1. Moving iron repulsion type
2. Dynamometer type
3. Moving iron attractive type
4. Permanent magnet moving type

Correct Ans: D

Q68.In a power system, the maximum number of buses are

1. P-Q bus
2. P-V bus
3. Slack bus
4. Infinite bus

Correct Ans: A

Q69. The Surge impedance of a 100km long underground cable is 50 Ω. The Surge impedance of a 40 km length of a similar cable would be

1. 50 Ω
2. 60 Ω
3. 20 Ω
4. 80 Ω

Correct Ans: A

Q70.What will happen if the supply terminals of a DC shunt motor are interchanged?

1. Motor will stop
2. The direction of rotation will reverse
3. Motor will run at its normal speed in the same direction in which it was running
4. Motor will run at a speed lower than the normal speed in the same direction

Correct Ans: C

Q71.Shunt compensation in an EHV line is used to

1. Improve stability
2. Improve the voltage profile
3. Reduce the fault level
4. Both B & C

Correct Ans: B

Q72.Class-B type insulation can be withstand a maximum temperature of

1. 120°C
2. 105°C
3. 130°C
4. 135°C

Correct Ans: C

Q73.The maximum short circuit current occurs in the case of

1. A three phase bolted fault
2. A double line to ground fault
3. A line to line fault
4. A single line to ground fault

Correct Ans: A

Q74.In two wattmeter method used for the measurement of power, if the p.f. is 0.5, then one of the wattmeter will read

1. Zero
2. \(\frac{W}{3}\)
3. \(\frac{W}{2}\)
4. \(\frac{W}{5}\)

Correct Ans: A

Q75.The equal area Criterion of stability is used for

1. no load on the bus bar
2. One machine and infinite bus
3. Multi machine and infinite bus
4. High load on the bus bar

Correct Ans: B

Q77.Load factor of a power station is defined as

1. \(maximum \: demand / average \: load\)
2. \(average \: load \times maximum \: demand\)
3. \(average \: load / maximum \: demand\)
4. \(\sqrt{average \: load \times maximum \: demand}\)

Correct Ans: C

Q78.In a transmission line, if the load is suddenly increase at the receiving end of the system, the phase shift will be

1. decrease
2. Become zero
3. Increase
4. Not be affected

Correct Ans: C

Q79.Isolated neutral system has the disadvantage of

1. Difficult earth fault relaying
2. Voltage oscillation
3. Persistent arcing ground
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q80.In load flow studies, the quantities specified at a generator bus of a power system are___________.

1. Q and δ
2. V and δ
3. P and V
4. P and Q

Correct Ans: C

Q82.The insulation coordination for UHV line (above 500KV) is done based on

1. Lighting surges
2. Lighting and switching surges
3. Switching surges
4. Voltage level of the line

Correct Ans: C

Q83.The purpose of providing a choke in a tube light is

1. To eliminate corona effect
2. To avoid radio interference
3. To improve the power factor
4. To limit the current to an appropriate value

Correct Ans: D

Q84.If the voltages at the two end of a line are 132 KV, and its reactance is 40 ohm, the stability limit of line is

1. 435.6 MW
2. 500 MW
3. 251.5 MW
4. 217.8 MW

Correct Ans: A

Q85.DC series motor are best suited for traction work because

1. Its torque is proportional to the square of the armature current and speed is inversely proportional to Torque
2. Its torque is proportional to the square of the armature current and speed is directly proportional to torque
3. Torque and speed are proportional to the square of the armature current
4. Torque and speed are inversely proportional to the square of the armature current

Correct Ans: A

Q87.The positive and negative sequence impedance of a transmission line / transformer

1. Equal
2. Zero
3. Different
4. Infinite

Correct Ans: A

Q88.At time \(t=0_+\), with zero initial condition, which of the following acts as a short circuit

1. Current source
2. Capacitor
3. Voltage source
4. Inductor

Correct Ans: B

Q89.An ideal voltage source

1. Has terminal voltage in proportion to current
2. Has terminal voltage in proportion to load
3. Has zero internal resistance
4. Has open circuit voltage nearly equal to the voltage on full load

Correct Ans: C

Q90.The incremental cost characteristics of two generators delivering \(200MW\) are as follows: <br>
\(\frac{dF_1}{dP_1} = 2 + 0.01 \: P_1 \: and \: \frac{dF_2}{dP_2} = 1.6 + 0.2 \: P_2\),
for economic operation, the generation \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) should be

1. \(P_1=P_2=100MW\)
2. \(P_1=120MW \: \& \: P_2=80MW\)
3. \(P_1=80MW \: \& \: P_2=120MW\)
4. \(P_1=200MW \: \& \: P_2=0MW\)

Correct Ans: Correct answer is not matched with above options

Q91.In the solution of load flow equation, Newton raphson (NR) method is superior to the Gauss Siedel method because

1. Time taken to perform one iteration in the NR method is less when compared to the time taken in the GS method
2. The number of iteration required in the NR method is more when compared to that in the GS method
3. The number of iterations is dependent on the size of the system in NR method
4. Convergence characteristic of the NR method are not affected by the selection of The Slack bus

Correct Ans: D

Q92.The purpose of guard ring in transmission line is to

1. Reduce the earth capacitance of the lowest unit
2. Increase the earth capacitance of the lowest unit
3. To equalize the potential across the disc
4. To reduce the transmission loss

Correct Ans: C

Q93.The transient stability limit of a system where in power is transmitted through a double transmission line is

1. Equal to its steady state stability limit
2. More than its steady state stability limit
3. Less than its steady state stability limit
4. Equal to its dynamic stability limit

Correct Ans: C

Q94.For the protection of parallel feeders fed from one end, the relays required are

1. Non-directional relays at the source end and directional relays at the load end.
2. Non-directional relays at both the source end and at the load end.
3. Directional relays at the source end and non- directional relays at the load end.
4. Directional relays at both the source end and the load end.

Correct Ans: A

Q95.A single phase transformer when supplied from a 220V, 50Hz supply has eddy current loss of 50 W. If the transformer is connected to a voltage of 330 V, 50 Hz, the Eddy current loss will be

1. 168. 75 w
2. 112. 5 w
3. 75 w
4. 50 W

Correct Ans: B

Q96.Zero Watt lamp consumes

1. No power
2. About 15 to 20 W power
3. About 5 to 7 W power
4. About 25 to 30 W power

Correct Ans: B

Q97.To limit current chopping in vacuum circuit breakers, the contact material used has

1. High vapour pressure and low conductivity properties
2. High Vapour pressure and high conductivity properties
3. Low Vapour pressure and low conductivity properties
4. Low Vapour pressure and high conductivity properties

Correct Ans: A

Q97.To limit current chopping in vacuum circuit breakers, the contact material employed should have the properties of

1. Low conductivity and high vapour pressure.
2. Low conductivity and low vapour pressure.
3. High conductivity and high vapour pressure.
4. High conductivity and low vapour pressure.

Correct Ans: A

Q98.The method of symmetrical component is useful for

1. Analyzing the performance of three phase machinery
2. Solving an unbalance three phase circuit
3. Calculating current resulting from unbalance fault
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

QGK1.Who among the following authorities chaired the \(22^{nd}\) meeting of Financial Stability and Development Council held in May 2020?

1. Governor of RBI
2. Union Finance Minister
3. Union Home Affairs Minister
4. Prime Minister

Correct Ans: B

QGK2.The Khelo India Youth Games 2020 was held in which city?

1. Pune
2. Guwahati
3. Jaipur
4. Nagpur

Correct Ans: B

QGK3.Who was the first Indian to become Governor General of independent India?

1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Vallabhbhai Patel
3. Rajagopalachari
4. Rajendra Prasad

Correct Ans: C

QGK4.Which one of the following is an example of sedimentary rocks?

1. Sandstone
2. Basalt
3. Granite
4. Marble

Correct Ans: A

QGK5.The simultaneous presence of high rate of inflation and high rate of unemployment is called __________.

1. Disinflation
2. Stagflation
3. Deflation
4. Depression

Correct Ans: B

QGK6.Under which field Abhijit Banerjee got Nobel Prize?

1. Economics
2. Medicine
3. Peace
4. Literature

Correct Ans: A

QGK7.Where is the India's research station called Bharati located?

1. Europe
2. Antarctica
3. South America
4. Arctic

Correct Ans: B

QGK8.In February 2020, the fourth East Asia Summit conference on maritime security cooperation was held in ___________.

1. Berlin
2. Dubai
3. Oslo
4. Chennai

Correct Ans: D

QGK9.What is the full form of 'SSC', a recruitment governing agency for Government of India?

1. Staff Standardised Commission
2. Staff Scrutiny Commission
3. Staff Selection Commission
4. Staff Screening Commission

Correct Ans: C

QGK10.What is the full form of 'RAM', a type of computer memory?

1. Relative Access Memory
2. Ready Access Memory
3. Random Access Memory
4. Read Access Memory

Correct Ans: C

QGL1.…………………. ચાર બેસે ચોટલા તો વાળી ઊઠે ઓટલા.
આ અધૂરી કહેવતને પૂર્ણ કરવા માટે આપેલા વિકલ્પોમાંથી ચયન કરો.

1. ગામ ત્યાં ઢેડવાડો
2. ગામને મોઢે ન બંધાય
3. ચાર બેસે પાઘડી તો વાત કરે પાધરી
4. ગોળાને મોઢે ગળણું બંધાય

Correct Ans: C

QGL2.કાન : શ્રવણ :: મુખ : ?????

1. બોલવું
2. સુંઘવું
3. જોવું
4. ચાલવું

Correct Ans: A

QGL3.નીચેનામાંથી કઈ જોડણી ખોટી છે?

1. વિપરિત
2. ખંડિત
3. પરિચિત
4. ગણિત

Correct Ans: A

QGL4.સમાસના બે પદો વચ્ચે પૂરકનો સંબંધ હોય તે વિકલ્પ કયો છે?

1. ભાઈબહેન
2. લંબચોરસ
3. જેમતેમ
4. સ્વર્ગવાસ

Correct Ans: A

QGL5.કીર્તિવાન'નો વિરુદ્ધાર્થી શબ્દ કયો?

1. કીર્તિમાન
2. કીર્તિ જેવો વાન ન હોવો
3. અપકીર્તિ
4. કીર્તિહીન

Correct Ans: D

QGL6.સૌ+ઇત્રીની મન+ઈષા હતી કે સર:+વરને કાંઠે એને વટો+ઋક્ષની છાયામાં જગત્ + ગુરુનાં આશીર્વાદ મળે.
સંધિ જોડીને વાક્યને શુદ્ધ સ્વરૂપ આપો.

1. સૌવીત્રીની મનિષા હતી કે સરોવરને કાંઠે એને વાતૃક્ષની છાયામાં જગતગુરુનાં આશીર્વાદ મળે.
2. સાવિત્રીની મનોઇશા હતી કે સરવરને કાંઠે એને વટવૃક્ષની છાયામાં જગતગુરુનાં આશીર્વાદ મળે.
3. સૌવિત્રીની માંનીષા હતી કે સરવરને કાંઠે એને વટવ્રીક્સની છાયામાં જગતગુરુનાં આશીર્વાદ મળે.
4. સાવિત્રીની મનીષા હતી કે સરોવરને કાંઠે એને વટવૃક્ષની છાયામાં જગદ્રુરુના આશીર્વાદ મળે.

Correct Ans: D

QGL7.અછત'નો સમાનાર્થી શબ્દ કયો?

1. છત વિનાનું ઘર
2. તંગી
3. છત્રી ફાટી જવી
4. ચુસ્ત

Correct Ans: B

QGL8.એ યોગ્ય વાકયનું ચયન કરો જેમાં પરોક્ષ ભૂતકૃદંત વિશેષણ તરીકે વપરાયું હોય.

1. ઉકત ત્રણેય વિકલ્પો માં પરોક્ષ ભૂતકૃદંતનો ઉપયોગ કરાયો નથી'
2. રમેશ અને હું નાનપણથી સાથે રહેલા'
3. મારે તમને એક વાત કહેવી છે'
4. બોલ્યાં વેણ તીર સમા'

Correct Ans: D

QGL9.કયા છંદમાં 17 અક્ષર, બંધારણ : 'મ ભ ન ત ત ગા ગા' અને યતિ-૪ તથા ૧૦ માં અક્ષરે હોય?

1. હરિગીત
2. શિખરિણી
3. પૃથ્વીછંદ
4. મંદાક્રાન્તા

Correct Ans: D

QGL10.ઈન્દ્રાવતી નદી: ગોદાવરી:: નંદાકિની નદી: ??????

1. સિંધુ
2. કાવેરી
3. નર્મદા
4. ગંગા

Correct Ans: D

QEE2.A 25-bus power system has 5 generator buses and 20 load buses. For the load flow analysis using Newton-Raphson method in polar coordinates, the size of the Jacobian matrix is ________.

1. 48 x 48
2. 25 x 25
3. 28 x 28
4. 44 x 44

Correct Ans: D

QEE4.The bus admittance matrix of as simple four bus system is shown in fig. is given as





\(Y_{bus}=\begin{bmatrix}1-j3 & 0 & -1+j3 & 0\\0 & 1.666-j5 & -0.666+j2 & -1+j3\\-1+j3 & -0.666+j2 & 3.666-j11 & -2+j6\\0 & -1+j3 & -2+j6 & 3-j9\end{bmatrix}\)


The shunt admittance at all the buses is assumed to be negligible. If the line of admittance \((2-j6)\) p.u. is connected between bus 1 and bus 2. The new bus admittance matrix is

1. \(Y_{bus}=\begin{bmatrix}3-j9 & -2+j6 & -1+j3 & 0\\-2+j6 & 3.666-j11 & -0.666+j2 & -1+j3\\-1+j3 & -0.666+j2 & 3.666-j11 & -2+j6\\0 & -1+j3 & -2+j6 & 3-j9\end{bmatrix}\)
2. \(Y_{bus}=\begin{bmatrix}3+j3 & 0 & -1+j3 & 0\\0 & 3.666+j1 & -0.666+j2 & -1+j3\\-1+j3 & -0.666+j2 & 3.666-j11 & -2+j6\\0 & -1+j3 & -2+j6 & 3-j9\end{bmatrix}\)
3. \(Y_{bus}=\begin{bmatrix}3-j9 & 0 & -1+j3 & 0\\0 & 3.666-j11 & -0.666+j2 & -1+j3\\-1+j3 & -0.666+j2 & 3.666-j11 & -2+j6\\0 & -1+j3 & -2+j6 & 3-j9\end{bmatrix}\)
4. \(Y_{bus}=\begin{bmatrix}3+j3 & 2-j6 & -1+j3 & 0\\2-j6 & 3.666+j1 & -0.666+j2 & -1+j3\\-1+j3 & -0.666+j2 & 3.666-j11 & -2+j6\\0 & -1+j3 & -2+j6 & 3-j9\end{bmatrix}\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE5.The particular integral of the differential equation \((D^3+D)y=e^x+e^{-x}\) is_________.

1. \(\frac{1}{2}(e^x+e^{-x})\)
2. \(\frac{1}{2}(e^x-e^{-x})\)
3. \(\frac{1}{2}(e^x+xe^{-x})\)
4. \(\frac{1}{2}(e^x-xe^{-x})\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE7.The synchronous reactance of the synchronous machine ‘\(X_s\)’ is given as ________ where \(X_a\) and \(X_l\) are the armature reactance and leakage reactance of the synchronous machine.

1. \(X_s=X_a+X_l\)
2. \(X_s=\frac{X_a-X_l}{2}\)
3. \(X_s=\frac{X_a+X_l}{2}\)
4. \(X_s=X_a-X_l\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE8.If the severity of single line-to-ground fault at the terminals of an unloaded synchronous generator is lesser than that of 3-phase faults, then __________ where, \(X_1\) is the positive sequence reactance of the generator,\(X_{g0}\) is the zero sequence reactance of the generator and\(X_n\) is the neutral reactance.

1. \(X_n=3(X_1-X_{g0})\)
2. \(X_n<\frac{1}{3}(X_1-X_{g0})\)
3. \(X_n=\frac{1}{3}(X_1-X_{g0})\)
4. \(X_n>\frac{1}{3}(X_1-X_{g0})\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE9.A transformer has 3% resistance and 6% reactance drop. The voltage regulation at full-load, 0.8 power factor lagging is _______.

1. 6%
2. -1.20%
3. -6%
4. 1.20%

Correct Ans: A

QEE11.A 25 MVA, 4-pole, 50 Hz turbo-alternator has an inertia constant H = 5 kW sec/kVA. The stored kinetic energy in the rotor at synchronous speed is __________.

1. 100 MJ
2. 62.5 MJ
3. 125 MJ
4. 50 MJ

Correct Ans: C

QEE12.What is the magnitude of the uniform magnetic field that contains as much energy per unit volume as a uniform 6000 V/m electric field?

1. \(1\times10^{-5}\: T\)
2. \(4\times10^{-5}\: T\)
3. \(3\times10^{-5}\: T\)
4. \(2\times10^{-5}\: T\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE14.The value of \(\int^a_0\: \int^b_0\: \int^c_0\: xyz\:dxdydz\) is equal to

1. \(\frac{a^2c^2c^2}{2}\)
2. \(\frac{a^2c^2c^2}{2^2}\)
3. \(\frac{a^2c^2c^2}{8}\)
4. \(\frac{abc}{2}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE15.The value of \(\oint_c\frac{sin^2z}{(z-2)^2}dz\), where C is the circle \(|z|=1\) is equal to __________

1. 1/2
2. 1
3. 0
4. Z/2

Correct Ans: C

QEE16.Synchronous generator voltage obtained by the synchronous impedance method is ________.

1. nearly accurate as the generator is normally operated in the unsaturated region of magnetization
2. higher than actual as it does not account for magnetic saturation
3. lower than actual as it does not account for magnetic saturation
4. nearly accurate as it accounts for magnetic saturation

Correct Ans: B

QEE18.Consider two DC machines A and B having identical armature and four numbers of poles. If the machine A is wave wound and the machine B is lap wound, then ______.

1. Machine B will have more rated current and more voltage
2. Machine B will have less rated current and less voltage
3. Machine A will have more rated current and less voltage
4. Machine A will have less rated current and more voltage

Correct Ans: D

QEE19.The electromagnetic torque developed in a motor is 200 Nm. If the field flux is decreased by 20 % and armature current is increased by 20 %, find the new electromagnetic torque developed.

1. 128 Nm
2. 240 Nm
3. 288 Nm
4. 192 Nm

Correct Ans: D

QEE20.The singular Solution of \(z=px+qy+p^2-q^2\) is _____________

1. \(2z=y^2+x^2\)
2. \(4z=y^2+x^2\)
3. \(4z=y^2-x^2\)
4. \(2z=y^2-x^2\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE21.A three phase, 10 kW, 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor has full load speed of 1440 rpm. The friction and windage loss of the motor at this speed is 500 W. Calculate the rotor copper loss.

1. 295 W
2. 395 W
3. 327.5 W
4. 437.5 W

Correct Ans: D

QEE22.The coefficient of \(a_0\) in the Fourier series expansion of the function \(f(x)=x\) in \(-\pi < x <\pi\) is __________

1. \(\frac{\pi^2}{4}\)
2. \(\frac{\pi^2}{2}\)
3. \(0\)
4. \(\pi^2\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE23.In an RS-flip flop, if R and S are set to logic-1 and logic-0 respectively, then the flip flop gives _____.

1. Set state
2. Indeterminate state
3. Hold state
4. Reset state

Correct Ans: D

QEE24.If the flux density is \(\overrightarrow D=(x+3)\hat a_x\), find the total change inside a cubical volume of 1 m on a side situated in the positive octant with three edges coincident with the X, Y and Z axis and one corner at the origin.

1. 3 Coulombs
2. Zero
3. 4 Coulombs
4. 1 Coulomb

Correct Ans: D

QEE26.The radius of curvature of the curve \(y=2x+3\) at \(x=0\) is equal to ______.

1. \(\infty\)
2. 1
3. \(x\)
4. 0

Correct Ans: A

QEE34.Consider the following two statements and identify the correct option.
Statement 1: Piezoelectric transducer requires external power supply for their operation and is not self generating.
Statement 2 : Thermistor do not require any external source of supply for their operation and is self generating.

1. Statement - 1 is FALSE and Statement – 2 is TRUE
2. Both Statement -1 and Statement – 2 are TRUE
3. Both Statement -1 and Statement – 2 are FALSE
4. Statement - 1 is TRUE and Statement – 2 is FALSE

Correct Ans: C

QEE35.A single phase current source inverter (CSI) has a capacitor 'C' as the load. For the constant source current , the voltage across the capacitor is ______.

1. square wave
2. pulsed wave
3. step function
4. triangular wave

Correct Ans: D

QEE36.An AC voltage controller has a pure resistive load of \(10\:\Omega\) and input voltage is 150 V(RMS), 50 Hz. The thyristor switch is ON for 25 cycles and OFF for 75 cycles. Determine the RMS output voltage and input power factor.

1. 75 V and 0.5
2. 150 V and 0.5
3. 150 V and 0.866
4. 75 V and 0.866

Correct Ans: A

QEE37.In DC chopper, the load voltage is controlled by _____.

1. number of thyristors used in the circuit
2. DC voltage applied to the circuit
3. duty cycle of the circuit
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

QEE39.If \(F(f(x))=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2 \pi}}\int^{\infty}_{-\infty}f(x)e^{isx}\: dx=F(s),\) then \(F[f(x-a)]=\)

1. \(e^{-isa}F(s)\)
2. \(e^{isa}F(s)\)
3. \(F(s+a)\)
4. \(F(s-a)\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE40.Find the incident average power of an electric field wave travelling in air and incident normally on a boundary between air and a dielectric having permeability \(\mu_0\) and permittivity \(\varepsilon_r=4\).

1. \(P_i=\frac{E^2_i}{2\sqrt{\frac{\varepsilon_0}{\mu_0}}}\)
2. \(P_i=\frac{E^2_i}{\sqrt{\frac{\mu_0}{\varepsilon_0}}}\)
3. \(P_i=\frac{E^2_i}{2\sqrt{\frac{\mu_0}{\varepsilon_0}}}\)
4. \(P_i=\frac{E^2_i}{\sqrt {\mu_0\varepsilon_0}}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE43.Consider the following two statements and identify the correct option.
Statement 1: Both MOSFET and BJT have positive temperature coefficient.
Statement 2: MOSFET can be used as a voltage controlled capacitor.

1. Statement – 1 is FALSE and Statement – 2 is TRUE
2. Statement – 1 is TRUE and Statement – 2 is FALSE
3. Both Statement – 1 and Statement – 2 are FALSE
4. Both Statement – 1 and Statement – 2 are TRUE

Correct Ans: A

QEE45.The rotor of a four-pole, 50 Hz slip-ring induction motor has a resistance of \(0.2\:\Omega\) per phase and runs at 1425 rpm at full-load. Determine the external resistance per phase which must be added to reduce the speed to 1200 rpm, the torque remaining same in both the cases.

1. \(0.8\:\Omega\)
2. \(0.2\:\Omega\)
3. \(0.4\:\Omega\)
4. \(0.6\:\Omega\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE46.The zero-sequence network equivalent for the transformer connected between buses 1 and 2 as shown in Fig. is

1. 
   
   
   
   
2. 
   
   
   
   
3. 
   
   
   
   
4. 
   
   
   
   

Correct Ans: A

QEE47.A three phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor has full load speed of 1455 rpm. What will be the frequency of the rotor-induced EMF?

1. 1.5 Hz
2. 2 Hz
3. 1 Hz
4. 3 Hz

Correct Ans: A

QEE50.If the sum of two eigen values of a 3X3 matrix is equal to the trace of the matrix, then the product of the eigen values is equal to ______.

1. 0
2. 1
3. 9
4. 3

Correct Ans: A

QEE51.In the bridge circuit shown in Fig. when \(X_c/R=1\), the voltmeter reads:

1. 10 V
2. 0 V
3. 2.5 V
4. 5 V

Correct Ans: B

QEE53.A 4-pole wave connected armature of a DC machine has 600 conductors and is driven at 650 rev/min. If the flux per pole is 25 mWb, determine the generated emf.

1. 500 V
2. 650 V
3. 162.5 V
4. 325 V

Correct Ans: D

QEE55.Consider a 3-phase half-wave rectifier circuit shown in the figure. The source is a symmetrical, 3-phase four wire system. The line-to-line voltage of the source is 150 V and the supply frequency is 300 Hz. The ripple frequency at the output is ______.

1. 1200 Hz
2. 900 Hz
3. 300 Hz
4. 150 Hz

Correct Ans: B

QEE57.if \(\ u=f(x-y,y-z,z-x)\), then\(\frac{\partial u}{\partial{x}}+\frac{\partial u}{\partial{y}}+\frac{\partial u}{\partial{z}}= \)

1. \(2 1/9\)
2. \(u\)
3. \(0\)
4. \(2 u\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE58.Which of the following gates is represented by the Boolean expression: \(F = A + B + C + D\)

1. 4-input NAND gate
2. 4-input OR gate
3. 4-input NOR gate
4. 4-input AND gate

Correct Ans: B

QEE59.The full-load copper loss of a transformer is twice its core loss. The efficiency will be maximum at _______.

1. 141 % of full load
2. 25 % of full load
3. 50 % of full load
4. 70.7 % of full load

Correct Ans: D

QEK1.Replace the underlined phrase grammatically and conceptually with the help of the given options. If the given sentence is correct then select the option 'The given sentence is correct'.


We would like for reiterate that a application remains safe to use, both for our citizens and for our esteemed officials.

1. would like in reiterate that an application remains
2. The given sentence is correct
3. will like to reiterate that the application remain
4. would like to reiterate that the application remains

Correct Ans: D

QEK2.In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the option corresponding to it. If the sentence does not have any error then select the option 'NO ERROR'.(Avoid punctuation errors)


(A) Engineering is the / (B) four-year / (C) degree course. / (D) NO ERROR.

1. C
2. A
3. D
4. B

Correct Ans: B

QEK3.Rearrange the following to form a meaningful sentence and find the most logical order from the given options.


P: has seen an increase amid the
Q: the demand for refurbished smartphones
R: COVID-19 pandemic with many
S: looking at affordable options

1. QRPS
2. QPRS
3. RSPQ
4. PQRS

Correct Ans: B

QEK4.Choose the word which best expresses the similar meaning of the given word.

"ACCLAIM".

1. Honor
2. Disapproval
3. Vituperation
4. Blame

Correct Ans: A

QEK5.Find the word which is correctly spelt from the given options.

1. Recuncile
2. Acknouledge
3. Apparently
4. Accountablity

Correct Ans: C

QEK6.Choose the best option from the given alternatives which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.


A word composed of the first letters of the words in a phrase.

1. Antonym
2. Synonym
3. Acronym
4. Phantonym

Correct Ans: C

QEK7.Choose the word which expresses nearly the opposite meaning of the given word.

"ACME".

1. Apogee
2. Peak
3. Culmination
4. Bottom

Correct Ans: D

QEK8.Fill in the blanks with suitable Preposition from the given alternatives.

The post was published ____________ Tuesday but was taken down later.

1. at
2. on
3. above
4. in

Correct Ans: B

QEK9.Find the word which is correctly spelt from the given options.

1. Syncronise
2. Cardiolgist
3. Tremendous
4. Brutel

Correct Ans: C

QEK10.Fill in the blanks with suitable Article from the given alternatives.

All _______ institutions are publishing their result by today.

1. a
2. No Article
3. an
4. the

Correct Ans: D

QGK 1.During the Covid-19 pandemic situation, which of the following operations was launched by Indian Navy to repatriate Indian citizens from Maldives in May 2020?

1. Operation Samudra Setu
2. Operation Raahat
3. Operation Sunshine
4. Operation Vijay

Correct Ans: A

QGK2.What is the full form of 'UIDAI', an authority associated with Aadhaar?

1. Unified Identification Authority of India
2. Universal Identification Authority of India
3. Unique Identification Authority of India
4. United Identification Authority of India

Correct Ans: C

QGK3.Which authority conducts repo and reverse repo economic operations in India?

1. Ministry of Finance
2. Ministry of Home Affairs
3. Reserve Bank of India
4. Central Statistical Organisation

Correct Ans: C

QGK4.Who was the last Mughal emperor of British India?

1. Muhammad Shah
2. Bahadur Shah Zafar
3. Akbar II
4. Aurangzeb

Correct Ans: B

QGK5.Durgapur iron and steel power plant is located in which state?

1. West Bengal
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Rajasthan

Correct Ans: A

QGK6.Sharad Arvind Bobde, who is often seen in news, is currently serving as ___________.

1. Governor of RBI
2. Chairman of ISRO
3. Chief Justice of India
4. Chairman of NITI Aayog

Correct Ans: C

QGK7.In 2022, which city will host the \(19^{th}\) Asian Games?

1. Delhi
2. Hangzhou
3. Kigali
4. Montreal

Correct Ans: B

QGK8.Which of the following is an example of block mountain?

1. Alps
2. Vosges
3. Himalayas
4. Ural

Correct Ans: B

QGK9.What is the full form of 'CAT', a test conducted by Indian Institute of Management?

1. Common Attitude Test
2. Common Attrition Test
3. Common Application Test
4. Common Admission Test

Correct Ans: D

QGK10.How many countries share land border with India?

1. 9
2. 7
3. 8
4. 6

Correct Ans: B

QGL1.રૂપિયા :: ભારત :: યેન

1. દુબઈ
2. જાપાન
3. ચાયના
4. સિંગાપુર

Correct Ans: B

QGL2. કરદાન' , 'ગુલાબદાન' આ બન્નેમાં કઈ ભાષામાંથી ગુજરાતીમાં સ્વીકારવામાં આવેલ પર પ્રત્યેય છે.

1. મરાઠી - તામિલ
2. અરબી-ફારસી
3. તુર્કી-કન્નડ
4. ગુજરાતી-મરાઠી

Correct Ans: B

QGL3. જ્યાં ઉજ્જડ ગામમાં એરંડો પ્રધાન હોય ત્યાં લોકો પાણી પહેલાં પાળ બાંધે નહિ પણ આભ ફાટે પછી થીગડું મારવા માટે આકાશ પાતાળ એક કરે પછી ખબર પડે કે ઊલમાંથી ચૂલમાં પડ્યા'
ઉક્ત વાક્યમાં કેટલી કહેવતો/રૂઢિપ્રયોગોનો ઉપયોગ કરાયો છે.

1. કુલ 5
2. કુલ 4
3. કુલ 3
4. કુલ 6

Correct Ans: A

QGL4.એકાંગી' નો વિરુદ્ધાર્થી વિકલ્પ ક્યો છે?

1. અનેક અંગી
2. સર્વાંગી
3. એક અંગી
4. દ્વિ અંગી

Correct Ans: B

QGL5.નીચેમાંથી શેમાં સંજ્ઞાવાચક નામનો ઉપયોગ જાતિવાચક તરીકે કરવામાં આવ્યો છે?

1. શેક્સપિયર એટલે શેક્સપીયર, એની તોલે કોઇ ન આવે
2. એ ગોઠવણનું કોઇ પણ વાક્ય આપેલ વિકલ્પમાં નથી.
3. એ કવિ તો જાણે શેક્સપપિયર
4. તમારો પ્રેમ જોઈ હું બહુ ખુશ થયો.

Correct Ans: C

QGL6.ત્રીજી વિભક્તિનાં પ્રત્યયથી બનેલ અધિકરણનો અર્થ દર્શાવતું વાક્ય નીચેના વિકલ્પોમાંથી કયું છે ?

1. સાંજે અમે તમારે ત્યાં આવીશું
2. રામે રાવણને માર્યો
3. ડાંગે માર્યા પાણી જુદા ન થાય
4. એ ચોધાર આંસુએ રડ્યો

Correct Ans: A

QGL7.અજપાળ'નો સમાનર્થી વિકલ્પ ક્યો છે?

1. ઉત્પલ
2. હજામ
3. ગોવાળ
4. ભરવાડ

Correct Ans: D

QGL8.ગ્લુકોમીટર : બ્લડસુગર :: થર્મોમીટર : ???

1. થર્મોકોલની જાડાઈ
2. વ્યક્તિની ઊંચાઈ
3. ઊંડાઈ
4. ઉષ્ણતામાન

Correct Ans: D

QGL9. કુંભકરણ બનીને સુવું એ સારું નથી'

વાક્યમાં અધોરેખિત શું છે ?

1. ભાવ
2. આજ્ઞા
3. ઉદેશ્ય
4. વિધેય

Correct Ans: D

QGL10.આવનારા બધા આવી ગયા'

વાક્યમાં ક્યા કૃદંતનો ઉપયોગ કરાયો છે ?

1. ભવિષ્ય
2. વર્તમાન
3. ભૂત
4. સામાન્ય

Correct Ans: A

QEE2.The radius of curvature for pedal curve \(\rho=f(r)\) is _____.

The radius of curvature for pedal curve \(\rho = f(x)\) is

1. \(\rho=\frac{dr}{dp}\)
2. \(\rho=r^2\frac{dr}{dp}\)
3. \(\rho=\frac{1}{r}\frac{dr}{dp}\)
4. \(\rho=r\frac{dr}{dp}\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE4.Two turbo-alternators with ratings given below are interconnected via a short transmission line. Machine 1: 500 MVA, 0.8 power factor, 2000 rpm, \(H_1\) = 5 MJ/MVA; Machine 2: 200 MVA, 0.85 power factor, 1500 rpm, \(H_2\) = 6 MJ/MVA. Calculate the inertia constant of the single equivalent machine on a base of 100 MVA.

1. 43 MJ/MVA
2. 37 MJ/MVA
3. 25 MJ/MVA
4. 34 MJ/MVA

Correct Ans: B

QEE 5.The ………… gate produces logic high output for similar types of inputs only.

1. NAND
2. EX-OR
3. EX-NOR
4. NOR

Correct Ans: C

QEE 6.Input to a step up chopper is 250 V. The output required is 450 V. If the conducting time of thyristor is 200 μsec, the chopping frequency is

1. 4.44 kHz
2. 1.11 kHz
3. 3.33 kHz
4. 2.22 kHz

Correct Ans: D

QEE 9.An ideal 230 V, 50 Hz single-phase AC source supplies power to a load resistor \(100\:\Omega\) through a single ideal diode. Calculate the average value of the current.

1. 1.03 A
2. 1.75 A
3. 2.06 A
4. 2.35 A

Correct Ans: A

QEE 12.The radius of convergence of sin z in a Taylor’s series about z=0 is equal to _______.

1. 0
2. ∞
3. <1
4. 1

Correct Ans: B

QEE 15.The zero-sequence network equivalent for the transformer connected between buses 1 and 2 as shown in Fig. is

1. 
   
   
   
   
2. 
   
   
   
   
3. 
   
   
   
   
4. 
   
   
   
   

Correct Ans: A

QEE 23.Consider that the light goes from medium A to medium B at angle of incidence of \(40^\circ\) and the angle of refraction is \(30^\circ\). Then,

1. speed of light in B is the same as that in A
2. speed of light in B is less than that in A
3. speed of light in B is greater than that in A
4. speed of light does not depend on the specific medium

Correct Ans: B

QEE24.The severity of line-to-ground and 3-phase faults at the terminals of an unloaded synchronous generator is to be same. If the terminal voltage is 1 p.ᴜ. and \(X_1 = X_2 = j0.35 p.ᴜ., X_{g0} = j0.05 p.u.\), for the alternator, then the required inductive reactance for neutral grounding is ........

1. \(X_n\) = j 0.2 p.ᴜ
2. \(X_n\) = j 0.25 p.ᴜ
3. \(X_n\) = j 0.015 p.ᴜ
4. \(X_n\) = j 0.1 p.ᴜ

Correct Ans: D

QEE 27.The Singular solution of \(p=2qx\) is ________.

1. Not exists
2. \(z=0\)
3. \(z=k(x^2+y)+c\)
4. \(z=k(x^2-y)+c\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE 29.The master–slave JK flip-flop is an example of

1. negative edge-triggered device
2. pulse-triggered device
3. level-triggered device
4. positive edge-triggered device

Correct Ans: B

QEE 34.Which of the following expression is true for thyristors?

1. Latching current \(=\) Holding current
2. Latching current \(>\) Holding current
3. Latching current \(<\) Holding current
4. Latching current \(=\) (Holding current ) /2

Correct Ans: B

QEE 36.The output expression ‘F’ for the combinational logic circuit shown in Fig. is given by

1. \(F=\overline{A}\)
2. \(F=B\)
3. \(F=\overline{B}\)
4. \(F=A\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE 39.The Root Mean square value of \(f(x)=x^2\) in (0,l) is _______.

1. \(\frac{l^2}{5}\)
2. \(\frac{l^2}{\sqrt5}\)
3. \(\frac{l^4}{\sqrt5}\)
4. \(\frac{l}{\sqrt5}\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE42.The base impedance of a three phase, 10 kV, 5 MVA system is

1. \(5\:\Omega\)
2. \(15\:\Omega\)
3. \(20\:\Omega\)
4. \(10\:\Omega\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE 51.if \(u=\frac{yz}{x},\:v=\frac{xz}{y},\:w=\frac{xy}{z},\) then \(\frac{\partial(u,v,z)}{\partial(x,y,z)}=\)

1. 3
2. 1
3. 4
4. 2

Correct Ans: C

QEE 52.The solution of \((D^2+1)y=0\), given that \(y(0)=0,y' (0)=1\) is ______.

1. \(\sin x\)
2. \(\cos x\)
3. \(-\sin x\)
4. \(-\cos x\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE 54.In current source inverters,

1. L filter is used after the CSI (load side)
2. C filter is used after the CSI (load side)
3. L filter is used before the CSI (input side)
4. C filter is used before the CSI (input side)

Correct Ans: C

QEE55.Consider two buses connected by an impedance of \(j2\Omega\).

The bus-1 voltage is \(50\angle30^\circ\:V\) and bus-2 voltage is \(50\angle0^\circ\:V\).

The real and reactive power supplied by bus-1, respectively, are

1. 625 W, 167.5 VAR
2. 457.5 W, 457.5 VAR
3. 625 W, -167.5 VAR
4. −457.5 W, 457.5 VAR

Correct Ans: A

QEE 56.The volume of the solid formed by the revolutions of the area A in xy plane about x axis is _______.

1. \(\int \int_{A}^{B} \:\pi x \:dx dy\)
2. \(\int \int_{A}^{B} \: 2 \pi y \:dx dy\)
3. \(\int \int_{A}^{B} \: 2 \pi x \:dx dy\)
4. \(\int \int_{A}^{B} \: \pi y \:dx dy\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE 59.The eigen values of the matrix \(\begin{bmatrix}4&1 \\3&2\end{bmatrix}\) are ____.

1. 1, 5
2. -1, -5
3. -1, 5
4. 1, -5

Correct Ans: A

QCK1.Which of the following statements is FALSE about the OSI Layers?

1. When data arrives at the Network layer, the source and destination addresses contained inside each frame are examined to determine if the data has reached its final destination.
2. The Data Link layer of the OSI model is responsible for the ultimate transmission of digital data bits from the Physical layer of the sending (source) device over network communications media to the Physical layer of the receiving (destination) device.
3. The Application layer supplies network services to end-user applications.
4. The Session Layer manages the sequence and flow of events that initiate and tear down network connections.

Correct Ans: B

QCK2.Which of the following memory management methods divides primary memory into various memory partitions, which are mostly contiguous areas of memory?

1. Single Contiguous Allocation
2. Partitioned Allocation
3. Segmented Memory Management
4. Paged Memory Management

Correct Ans: B

QCK3.You are working in MS Word document and want to zoom the document without using a mouse. Which of the following shortcuts will help you?

1. Alt + W
2. Ctrl + Q
3. Ctrl + W
4. Alt + Z

Correct Ans: A

QCK4.Which of the following is false about MS Outlook recall message feature?

1. You cannot recall a message in Outlook on the web.
2. You can recall an email message in Outlook Exchange if the recipient has yet to open it.
3. You cannot replace the message while recalling it, you have only option to delete it.
4. Only certain microsoft Outlook accounts have the ability to recall a message after it has been sent.

Correct Ans: C

QCK5.Which of the following is false about thrashing?

1. High paging activity is called thrashing.
2. Thrashing occurs when a computer's virtual memory resources are overused.
3. Thrashing is a condition in which congestion prevents or limits useful communication.
4. A process is thrashing if it is spending more time paging than executing.

Correct Ans: C

QCK6.An Ethernet repeater with multiple ports is known as an ____________.

1. Bridge
2. Switch
3. Router
4. Ethernet hub

Correct Ans: D

QCK7._______ brought the fourth generation of computers, as thousands of integrated circuits were built onto a single silicon chip.

1. Artificial Intelligence
2. Vacuum tubes
3. Microprocessors
4. Transistors

Correct Ans: C

QCK8.Which of the following is false about Equidistant locality?

1. In Equidistant locality, a simple linear function can predict which location will be accessed in the near future.
2. Equidistant locality is halfway between the spatial locality and the branch locality.
3. Equidistant locality is typically not a spatial locality since the few possibles can be located far away from each other.
4. Consider a loop accessing locations in an equidistant pattern, i.e., the path in the spatial-temporal coordinate space is a dotted line.

Correct Ans: C

QCK9.Which of the following defines the Denial of Service attack?

1. is a technique by which an attacker sends Address Resolution Protocol messages onto a local area network.
   
2. is a cyber-attack in which the perpetrator seeks to make a machine or network resource unavailable to its intended users by temporarily or indefinitely disrupting services of a host connected to the Internet.
3. is an attack where the attacker secretly relays and possibly alters the communications between two parties who believe that they are directly communicating with each other.
4. is a form of computer security hacking in which corrupt Domain Name System data is introduced into the DNS resolver's cache, causing the name server to return an incorrect result record.

Correct Ans: B

QCK10.Which of the following is true about Phishing?

1. Phishing is performed by one machine and its internet connection, by flooding a website with packets and making it impossible for legitimate users to access the content of flooded website.
2. Phishing refers to tricking someone into inviting an attacker into a securely protected area.
3. Phishing is a method of a social engineering with the goal of obtaining sensitive data such as passwords, usernames, and credit card numbers.
4. Phishing is malicious software that mislead users to believe there is a computer virus installed on their computer or that their security measures are not up to date.

Correct Ans: C

QEE1.The number of roots of \(s^4 + 6s^3 + 21s^2 + 36s + 20 = 0\) in the left half of the s – plane is _______.

1. Two
2. Three
3. One
4. Four

Correct Ans: D

QEE7.If the current in the faulted phase for a single line to ground fault is 300 A, the its zero sequence current is ____.

1. 300 A
2. Zero
3. 100 A
4. 900 A

Correct Ans: C

QEE9.For 'n' on cycles and 'm' off cycles, the duty cycle of AC voltage controller 'k' is given by ______.

1. \(k=\frac{n}{n+m}\)
2. \(k=\sqrt\frac{m}{n+m}\)
3. \(k=\sqrt\frac{n}{n+m}\)
4. \(k=\frac{m}{n+m}\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE11.If all the inputs of a NAND gate are connected together, then the resulting circuit is ______.

1. EX-OR gate
2. NOT gate
3. AND gate
4. OR gate

Correct Ans: B

QEE12.The value of leakage co-efficient (λ) is usually about ______.

1. 1.12 to 1.25
2. less than 1
3. above 10
4. 5 to 10

Correct Ans: A

QEE13.Choose the integration represents the area of the ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1\)

1. \(4\int_0^a\int_0^\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}{a^2}} dydx\)
2. \(4\int_0^a\int_0^{1-\frac{x^2}{a^2}} dydx\)
3. \(4\int_0^a\int_a^{b\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}{a^2}}} dydx\)
4. \(4\int_0^a\int_0^{b\sqrt{1-\frac{x^2}{a^2}}} dydx\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE14.In a balanced star connected network, the line voltages are ______ ahead of their respective phase voltages.

1. \(120^\circ\)
2. \(60^\circ\)
3. \(30^\circ\)
4. \(90^\circ\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE15.The complete integral of \(z=px+qy+\sqrt{pq}\) is _________.

1. \(z=ax^2-by^2+\sqrt{a^2b^2}\)
2. \(z=ax+by+\sqrt{ab}\)
3. \(z=ax-by+\sqrt{ab}\)
4. \(z=ax^2+by^2+\sqrt{a^2b^2}\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE17.A 12-bus power system has a slack bus and 4 - voltage controlled buses. For the load flow analysis using Newton-Raphson method in polar coordinates, the size of the Jacobian matrix is _______.

1. 22 x 22
2. 16 x 16
3. 18 x 18
4. 20 x 20

Correct Ans: C

QEE18.The system model described by the state equations


\(\begin{bmatrix}\dot {x_1} \\ \dot {x_2} \end{bmatrix} =\begin{bmatrix}0 & 1 \\ 2 & -3 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} {x_1} \\ {x_2} \end{bmatrix} + \begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix} u \quad and\)


\(y=\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} {x_1} \\ {x_2} \end{bmatrix} \) is

1. controllable and observable
2. controllable but not observable
3. neither controllable nor observable
4. observable but not controllable

Correct Ans: A

QEE19.The velocity of wave propagation in a conductor with frequency \(6\times10^8\) rad/sec and phase constant of \(2\times10^8\) units is ______.

1. 8
2. 2
3. 4
4. 3

Correct Ans: D

QEE21.A balanced three phase power system consists of _________.

1. Negative sequence currents only
2. Positive, negative and zero sequence currents
3. Zero sequence currents only
4. Positive sequence currents only

Correct Ans: D

QEE22.A series RLC circuit has \(R = 2\:\Omega\), \(L=1\:H\) and \(C =1\:F\) respectively. If \(V_m = 230\:V\), the current \(I_m\) at resonance is______.

1. 100 A
2. 90 A
3. 115 A
4. 110 A

Correct Ans: C

QEE24.In a JK flip flop as shown in Figure, J = Q' and K=1. If the flip flop was initially cleared and then clocked for 6 pulses, then the sequence at the Q output will be _______.

1. 010011
2. 011010
3. 010101
4. 010010

Correct Ans: C

QEE28.The Fourier sine transfrm of \(e^{-ax}\) is ________.

1. \(\sqrt\frac{2}{\pi}\frac{s}{(s^2+a^2)}\)
2. \(\frac{a}{(s^2+a^2)}\)
3. \(\frac{s}{(s^2+a^2)}\)
4. \(\sqrt\frac{\pi}{2}\frac{s}{(s^2+a^2)}\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE29.If the Fourier series of an odd function \(f(x)\) in the interval \((-\pi,\:\pi)\) is \(f(x)=\frac{a_0}{2}+\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty a_n\cos nx+\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty b_n\sin nx\), then ______.

1. \(a_0=a_n=0\)
2. \(a_0=b_n=0\)
3. \(a_n=b_n=0\)
4. \(a_0=\frac{1}{2},\:a_n=b_n=0\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE30.The critical clearing time of a fault in power system is related to

1. reactive power limit.
2. short-circuit limit.
3. steady-state stability limit.
4. transient stability limit.

Correct Ans: D

QEE31.If the transfer function of a phase lead compensator is \(\frac{(s + a)}{(s + b)}\) and that of a lag compensator is \(\frac{(s + c)}{(s + d)}\), then which of the following sets of conditions must be satisfied?

1. a > b and c
2. a
3. ad
4. a > b and c > d

Correct Ans: C

QEE33.MOSFET can be used as a _______.

1. Current controlled capacitor
2. Voltage controlled inductor
3. Voltage controlled capacitor
4. Current controlled inductor

Correct Ans: C

QEE36.A parallel form realization of an IIR filter is shown in Fig. Which one of the following would be its correct input-output relation? <br><br>

1. \(y(n) = x(n) + x(n-1) + x(n-2) + y(n-1) \)
2. \(y(n) = x(n) - x(n-1) - x(n-2) + y(n-1)\)
3. \(y(n) = x(n) + x(n-1) - x(n-2) + y(n-1)\)
4. \(y(n) = x(n) - x(n-1) - x(n-2) - y(n-1)\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE37.\(L(\frac{1-e^{-t}}{t})=\)

1. \(log\frac{s-1}{s}\)
2. \(log\frac{s}{s-1}\)
3. \(log\frac{s}{s+1}\)
4. \(log\frac{s+1}{s}\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE38.If \(y^2=f(x)\), a polynomial of degree three, then \(\frac{d}{dx}(y^3\frac{d^2y}{dx^2})=\)

1. \(\frac{1}{2}f(x)f^{''}(x)\)
2. \(\frac{1}{2}f(x)f^{'''}(x)\)
3. \(f(x)f^{'''}(x)\)
4. \(\frac{1}{2}f^{'}(x)f^{'''}(x)\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE39.For the circuit in Fig., the output expression 'Y' is given by_______.

1. \(\overline A\: \overline B\)
2. A+B
3. AB
4. \(\overline A+ \overline B\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE40.Maximum rank of a matrix of order 4 X 3 is ________.

1. 3
2. 0
3. 4
4. 1

Correct Ans: A

QEE41.Three delta connected resistors absorb 60 kW when connected to a three phase line. If the resistors are connected in star, then the power absorbed is _____.

1. 180 kW
2. 20 kW
3. 60 kW
4. 40 kW

Correct Ans: B

QEE43.Which of the following functions satisfies C-R equations but not analytic at origin?

1. \(\sqrt{xy}\)
2. \(\sqrt{x}\)
3. \(\sqrt{y}\)
4. \(\overline{z}\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE44.The maximum power developed in a synchronous motor occurs at a coupling angle of _______.

1. 180 degree
2. 30 degree
3. 45 degree
4. 90 degree

Correct Ans: D

QEE46.What is the Nyquist rate for a signal \(x(t)=3\cos(1000 \pi t)+43\sin(2000\pi t)\)?

1. 3000 HZ
2. 1000 Hz
3. 2000 Hz
4. 1500 Hz

Correct Ans: C

QEE47.The base impedance and base voltage for a given single phase power system are 25Ω and 500 V respectively. The base kVA and base current is ________.

1. 20 kVA and 5 A
2. 5 kVA and 10 A
3. 10 kVA and 20 A
4. 10 kVA and 15 A

Correct Ans: C

QEE51.The polar plot of \(G(s) = 1+sT\) is ______.

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Correct Ans: C

QEE52.What is the particular integral of \((D^2-4)y=\sin3x ?\)

1. \(\frac{1}{4}\sin3x\)
2. \(\frac{-1}{13}\sin3x\)
3. \(\frac{1}{5}\sin3x\)
4. None of these

Correct Ans: B

QEE54.If a signal f(t) has energy ‘E’, then the energy of the signal f(2t) is equal to ______.

1. 2E
2. E
3. 4E
4. \(\frac{E}{2}\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE55.What is the overall transfer function \(\frac{C(s)}{R(s)}\) for the block diagram shown in figure:

1. \(G_1G_2+G_2G_3\)
2. \(\frac{G_1+G_2}{1+G_3H_1}\)
3. \(\frac{G_1G_2+G_2G_3}{1+G_2H_1}\)
4. \(\frac{G_1G_2+G_2G_3}{1+G_1G_2G_3H_1}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE56.The equivalent circuit representation of off-nominal transformer with turns ratio \(a\) and series admittance of the transformer \(Y_t\) connected to the unity side as shown in the Figure is:

1. 
   
   
   
   
2. 
   
   
   
   
3. 
   
   
   
   
4. 
   
   
   
   

Correct Ans: C

QEE60.The value of \(\lim_{x \rightarrow 1} \lim_{y \rightarrow 2} \)\(\frac{2x^2y}{x^2+y^2+1}\) is _________.

1. 1/3
2. 1/5
3. 2/3
4. 1/2

Correct Ans: C

QEK1.Replace the underlined phrase grammatically and conceptually with the help of the given options. If the given sentence is correct then select the option 'The given sentence is correct'.

Before sending the e-mail, the shopkeeper add a word file as a attachment

1. add a word file as an
2. The given sentence is correct
3. added a word file as a
4. added a word file as an

Correct Ans: D

QEK2.In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the option corresponding to it. If the sentence contains no error, Select "No error'' option. (Avoid punctuation errors)

(A) A number of / (B) girls have passed / (C) on the interview / (D) NO ERROR

1. A
2. B
3. D
4. C

Correct Ans: D

QEK3.Rearrange the following to form a meaningful sentence and find the most logical order from the given options.

P: Australia’s catastrophic fire season that began in

Q: August last year is unprecedented, and has

R: New South Wales and Queensland

S: caused large scale destruction, mainly in

1. PQSR
2. RQSP
3. PQRS
4. RQPS

Correct Ans: A

QEK4.Find the word which is correctly spelt from the given options.

1. Encomium
2. Concentratad
3. Fasionable
4. Zealosness

Correct Ans: A

QEK5.Find the word which is correctly spelt from the given options.

1. Confidance
2. Encountered
3. Tyranical
4. Gratitous

Correct Ans: B

QEK6.Choose the best option from the given alternatives which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

One who offers one’s services

1. Volunteer
2. Pauper
3. Alien
4. Pedestrian

Correct Ans: A

QEK7.Choose the word which best expresses the similar meaning of the given word " EFFICACY "

1. Capacity
2. Failure
3. Lethargy
4. Enervation

Correct Ans: A

QEK8.Fill in the blanks with suitable Preposition from the given alternatives.

I've been married ________ my wife for 15 years.

1. beside
2. since
3. to
4. for

Correct Ans: C

QEK9.Fill in the blanks with suitable Article from the given alternatives.

_________ fruits are good for our health.

1. No article
2. the
3. an
4. a

Correct Ans: A

QEK10.Choose the word which expresses nearly the opposite meaning of the given word " INTIMIDATE "

1. Bluster
2. Alarm
3. Assure
4. Force

Correct Ans: C

QGK1.As per ‘India State of Forest Report 2019’ which state ranked as first in terms of highest growth in forest cover?

1. Karnataka
2. Manipur
3. Punjab
4. Arunachal Pradesh

Correct Ans: A

QGK2.The computer related term 'UPS' stands for _____________.

1. Undulated Power Source
2. Uninterruptible Power Supply
3. Unregulated Power Source
4. Universal Power Supply

Correct Ans: B

QGK3.The district Yanam belongs to which union territory?

1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Ladakh
3. Lakshadweep
4. Puducherry

Correct Ans: D

QGK4.Recently the second edition of joint tri-services exercise 'Indra' was done between India and ____________.

1. Sri Lanka
2. United States of America
3. Nepal
4. Russia

Correct Ans: D

QGK5.Who is the second woman to hold the chair as 'Finance minister in India'?

1. Sheila Dixit
2. Nirmala Sitharaman
3. Indira Gandhi
4. Sushma Swaraj

Correct Ans: B

QGK6.Who among the following chaired the first Round Table Conference held at London in 1930-31?

1. Ramsay MacDonald
2. Winston Churchill
3. Clement Attlee
4. Neville Chamberlain

Correct Ans: A

QGK7.Under the cheap money policy, the inflation rate in the economy will _________.

1. Remains constant
2. Increases
3. Decreases slowly
4. Decreases rapidly

Correct Ans: B

QGK8.What is the full form of ISRO?

1. Indian Scientific Research Organisation
2. Indian Space Research Organisation
3. Indian Satellite Research Organisation
4. Indian Solar-system Research Organisation

Correct Ans: B

QGK9.Sandstone is an example of which type of rock?

1. Plutonic Rock
2. Volcanic Rock
3. Sedimentary Rock
4. Metamorphic Rock

Correct Ans: C

QGK10.Which of the following institutes is known as 'Mecca of Indian Sports'?

1. Lakshmibai National College of Physical Education, Thiruvananthapuram
2. Institute of Sports Science & Technology, Pune
3. Inspire Institute of Sport, Vijayanagar
4. Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports, Patiala

Correct Ans: D

QGL1.પળવારમાં નાશ પામે એવું' - આ શબ્દસમૂહ માટે એક શબ્દ જણાવો.

1. અવિનાશી
2. તકલાદી
3. વિનાશી
4. ક્ષણભંગુર

Correct Ans: D

QGL2.અહી આપેલા વિરુદ્ધાર્થી જોડીઓમાં કઈ જોડી યોગ્ય નથી ?

1. આદ્ય × અંત
2. પ્રાચીન × પૌરાણિક
3. યાચક × દાતા
4. નિર્ગુણ × સગુણ

Correct Ans: B

QGL3.સંચય' શબ્દનો વિપરીત અર્થ આપતો શબ્દ શોધો.

1. સાચવણી
2. વિનય
3. વિધેય
4. વ્યય

Correct Ans: D

QGL4.નીચેના શબ્દોને શબ્દકોશ પ્રમાણે ગોઠવીએ તો સાચો વિકલ્પ શોધો.કાદવ,કંચન,કંકુ,કમળ,ક્રમ

1. કમળ, કંકુ, કંચન, કાદવ, ક્રમ
2. કંચન, કંકુ, કમળ, કાદવ, ક્રમ
3. ક્રમ, કમળ, કાદવ, કંકુ ,કંચન
4. કમળ, કાદવ, કંચન, કંકુ, ક્રમ

Correct Ans: A

QGL5.આમનેસામને : સામસામે :: _______ : આજુબાજુ. બીજો શબ્દ સાર્થક હોય તે શોધો.

1. મારોકાપો
2. ખભેખભા
3. કામબામ
4. આસપાસ

Correct Ans: D

QGL6.ભારોભાર : બારોબાર : : ઊપરાઊપરી : ______ . યોગ્ય દ્વિરુક્તિ આપો.

1. માંડમાંડ
2. ઝપાઝપી
3. તાતાથૈયા
4. તમતમારે

Correct Ans: B

QGL7.પ્રદિપથી બાળાને ઊંચકી લેવાઈ.' 'આ વાક્યનું યોગ્ય કર્તરિ વાક્ય જણાવો.

1. પ્રદીપ બાળાને ઊંચકે છે.
2. તેને પ્રદીપ પાસે બાળાને ઊંચકાવડાવી.
3. પ્રદીપ બાળાને ઊંચકી લેશે.
4. પ્રદીપે બાળાને ઊંચકી લીધી.

Correct Ans: D

QGL8.અહી આપેલી શબ્દોની જોડમાં એક ચોક્કસ સંબંધ છે. કઈ જોડ અયોગ્ય છે તે શોધો.

1. વાદળ-વરસાદ
2. ખેતર-ખેડૂત
3. ગુરૂ-શિષ્ય
4. સોય-ટાંકણી

Correct Ans: D

QGL9.દિનેશે તેની ભૂલ કબૂલ કરી. આ વાક્યનું પુનઃપ્રેરક વાક્ય જણાવો.

1. દિનેશને તેની ભૂલ કબૂલ કરાવી.
2. શિક્ષકે દિનેશ પાસે તેની ભૂલ કાબૂલ કરાવડાવી.
3. દિનેશ વડે તેની ભૂલ કબૂલ કરાવડાવાઈ.
4. દિનેશથી તેની ભૂલ કબૂલ કરાઈ.

Correct Ans: B

QGL10.જયારે આગ લાગે છે ત્યારે ધુમાડો નીકળે છે. નીચે લીટી દોરેલા પદો શું છે.(Missing Data)

1. વિશેષણ
2. નિપાત
3. સર્વનામ
4. સંયોજકો

Correct Ans:

QGL1.અહીં આપેલી એકસમાન અર્થની કઇ જોડી અયોગ્ય છે તે જણાવો.

1. ચૂવું- ટપકવું
2. વાસ-સહવાસ
3. સમાનાર્થી-પર્યાય
4. લાડલી-વહાલી

Correct Ans: B

QGL2.નીચેના બે વાકયોમાંથી સાચું અને યોગ્ય વાકય જણાવો. (1) શેઠ અને શેઠાણી બંને મજામાં છે. (2) શેઠ શેઠાણી બધા મજામાં છે.

1. 2 સાચું છે.
2. 1 સાચું છે.
3. 1 અને 2 બંને સાચાં છે.
4. 1 અને 2 બંને ખોટાં છે.

Correct Ans: B

QGL3.આપેલા શબ્દ-ઘટકો પૈકી કયું અયોગ્ય રીતે લખ્યું છે?

1. ભાઇબહેન
2. પ્રાતઃકાળ
3. રાતદિવસ
4. ઘર જમાઈ

Correct Ans: D

QGL4.શબ્દકોશના ક્રમમાં ગોઠવીએ તો કયો શબ્દ પહેલો આવે?

1. લાલિમા
2. જ્ઞાતિ
3. ભયાનક
4. તણખલું

Correct Ans: B

QGL5.નીચેનામાંથી 'સબરસ'નો સમાનાર્થી શબ્દ આપો.

1. સમરસ
2. મધુરસ
3. લવણ
4. સ્વાદિષ્ટ

Correct Ans: C

QGL6.સરિતા પાણી રેડે છે.- કર્મણી વાક્ય રચના જણાવો.

1. સરિતાથી પાણી રેડાય છે.
2. સરિતા પાણી રેડાવે છે.
3. સરિતાને પાણી રેડાવું છે.
4. સરિતાથી પાણી રેડાયું.

Correct Ans: A

QGL7.નાડ પકડવી' રૂઢિપ્રયોગનો અર્થ કહો.

1. મદદ કરવી
2. આરોગ્યની તપાસ કરવી
3. નાડી પકડવી
4. ખરું કારણ જાણવું

Correct Ans: D

QGL8.આ વાક્યોમાંથી પ્રેરક વાક્ય જણાવો.

1. વિરાટ ક્રિકેટ રમાડે છે.
2. તે રોજ ખજૂર ખાય છે.
3. મહારાજ હસે છે.
4. કુમુદથી કવિતા ગવડાવાય છે.

Correct Ans: A

QGL9.પડોશનું મકાન એક મા-દીકરી રહેતા હતા. આ વાક્યને સુધારીને સાચું વાક્ય લખો.

1. પડોશના મકાનમાં એક મા-દીકરી સાથે રહેતા હતા.
2. પડોશના મકાનમાં એક મા-દીકરી સાથે રહેતાં હતા.
3. પડોશનું મકાનમાં એક મા-દીકરી સાથે રહેતા હતા.
4. પડોશના મકાનમાં મા-દીકરી સાથે રહેતાં હતાં.

Correct Ans: D

QGL10.આ વાકયોના પ્રકાર જણાવો.
(1) તુ કનુને ચોપડી લેવડાવ.
(2) તેણે કનુ પાસે ચોપડી લેવડાવી.

1. વાકય 1 પ્રેરક અને વાકય 2 આાજ્ઞાર્થ છે.
2. વાકય 1 અને વાકય 2 આાજ્ઞાર્થ છે.
3. વાકય 1 અને વાકય 2 પ્રેરક છે.
4. વાક્ય 1 આજ્ઞાર્થ અને વાક્ય 2 પુન:પ્રેરક છે

Correct Ans: D

QEE1.The minimum number of flip-flops required in order to build a MOD-12 counter is equal to ________.

1. 2
2. 5
3. 12
4. 4

Correct Ans: D

QEE3.Two alternators rated 200 MVA and 150 MVA are having inertia constants 5 MJ/MVA and 4 MJ/MVA respectively. If both the generators are operating in parallel within the same power plant, then the equivalent inertia constant for the two machines on a base of 100 MVA is ________.

1. 9 MJ/MVA
2. 16 MJ/MVA
3. 12 MJ/MVA
4. 18 MJ/MVA

Correct Ans: B

QEE4.The Partial differential equation by eliminating the arbitrary function 'f' from \(z =f(xy)\) is____________ .

1. \(\frac{p}{x}=\frac{q}{y}\)
2. \(pq = 0\)
3. \(pq = xy\)
4. \(px = qy\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE7.A 200 MVA, 11 kV synchronous generator has 0.2 p.u. synchronous reactance. The p.u. synchronous reactance on the base value of 100 MVA and 22 kV is _______.

1. 0.4 p.u.
2. 0.025 p.u.
3. 0.1 p.u.
4. 1.6 p.u.

Correct Ans: B

QEE8.The sequence components of the fault current are as follows: \(I_{positive} = j\:2\) p.u., \(I_{negative} = -j \:0.5\) p.u. and \(I_{zero} = -j \:1.5\) p.u. The type of fault in the system is ______.

1. Double line fault
2. Single line - to- ground fault
3. Three phase fault
4. Double line to ground fault

Correct Ans: D

QEE9.The minimum number of 2-input NOR gates required to implement the Boolean function \(Y = AB+C\) is __________.

1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 5

Correct Ans: A

QEE10.A 3-phase inverter delivers power to a resistive load from a DC source '\(V_s\) '. For star connected load of 'R' \(\Omega\) per phase, the RMS value of load current (\(I_{or}\) ) for 180 degree conduction mode is _________.

1. \(I_{or}=\frac{1}{3\sqrt{2}}(\frac{V_s}{R})\)
2. \(I_{or}=\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3}(\frac{V_s}{R})\)
3. \(I_{or}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(\frac{V_s}{R})\)
4. \(I_{or}=\frac{1}{3}(\frac{V_s}{R})\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE11.For the simplified Boolean expression \(Y = AB + BC + CA\), the required inputs \(A\), \(B\) and \(C\) to make the output \(Y = 1\) are, respectively ________.

1. A = 0, B = 0 and C =1
2. A = 1, B = 0 and C =0
3. A = 0, B = 1 and C = 0
4. A = 1, B = 1 and C =0

Correct Ans: D

QEE12.The coefficient of x in the Maclaurin's series expansion of \(e^{sinx}\) is equal to__________ .

1. 0
2. 1
3. 3
4. 2

Correct Ans: B

QEE15.For a type-A chopper, '\(V_S\) ' is the source voltage, ' \(\alpha\) ' is the duty cycle and ' \(R_L\) ' is the load resistance. The average output voltage and current for this chopper are, respectively ______

1. \(\alpha{V}s,\frac{\alpha{Vs}}{R_L}\)
2. \((1-\alpha)Vs,\frac{(1-\alpha)Vs}{R_L}\)
3. \(\frac{Vs}{(1-\alpha)},\frac{Vs}{(1-\alpha)R_L}\)
4. \(\frac{Vs}{\alpha},\frac{Vs}{\alpha{R_L}}\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE18.If \(f(z)=u(x,y)+i \: v(x,y)\) is analytic then the family of curves \(u(x,y)=a\) and \(v(x,y)=b\) are _____.

1. Concurrent
2. parallel
3. equal
4. orthogonal

Correct Ans: D

QEE27.if \(u=x^y\) then \(\frac{\partial^2{u}}{\partial{x}\partial{y}}=\)

1. \(x^{y-1}(y\:log\:x+1)\)
2. \(x^{y-1}(y\:log\:x-1)\)
3. \(x^{y}(y\:log\:x-1)\)
4. \(x^{y}(y\:log\:x+1)\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE29.The per unit value of a \(1\:\Omega\) resistor at 100 MVA and 10 kV base voltage is _________.

1. 1 p.u.
2. 0.1 p.u.
3. 0.01 p.u.
4. 10 p.u.

Correct Ans: A

QEE30.Which of the following is a voltage controlled device with unidirectional current capability?

1. TRIAC
2. SCR
3. IGBT
4. BJT

Correct Ans: C

QEE31.The period \(T_0\) of a function \(\cos\begin{bmatrix}\frac{\pi}{4}(t-1)\end{bmatrix}\) is _________

1. \(T_0=8\: sec\)
2. \(T_0=\frac{1}{8}\: sec\)
3. \(T_0=4\: sec\)
4. \(T_0=6\: sec\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE36.Find the value of \(k\) for which the following system of equations has no solution \(kx+y+z=1;\: x+ky+z=1;\:x+y+kz=1\)

1. 0
2. 1
3. -2
4. -1

Correct Ans: B & C

QEE38.If \('k'\) is the duty cycle of single phase full wave AC voltage controller, then its input power factor is ________.

1. \(k\)
2. \(\sqrt k\)
3. \(k^2\)
4. \(\frac{1}{k}\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE47.The severity of line-to-ground and 3-phase faults at the terminals of an unloaded star connected synchronous generator is to be same. If the terminal voltage is 1 p.u. and \(X_1=X_2=j.035\) p.u., \(X_{g0}=j0.05\) p.u. for the alternator, then the required inductive reactance for neutral grounding is ________.

1. \(X_n = j\:0.2\) p.u.
2. \(X_n = j\:0.015\) p.u.
3. \(X_n = j\:0.1\) p.u.
4. \(X_n = j\:0.15\) p.u.

Correct Ans: C

QEE52.The complementary function of \(x^2\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}-x\frac{dy}{dx}+y=2xlogx\) is __________

1. \((A+Bx)logx\)
2. \((A+Blogx)e^x\)
3. \((A+Blogx)x\)
4. \((A+Bx)e^x\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE54.The area between \(y^2=4ax\) and \(x^2=4ay\) is represented as

1. \(\int_{-a}^a \int_\frac{x^2}{4a}^{2\sqrt{ax}} \:dydx\)
2. 
   \(\int_0^{4a} \int_0^{2\sqrt{ax}} \:dydx\)
3. \(\int_0^{4a} \int_\frac{x^2}{4a}^{2\sqrt{ax}} \:xdydx\)
4. \(\int_0^{4a} \int_\frac{x^2}{4a}^{2\sqrt{ax}} \:dydx\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE57.The network shown in Fig. has impedance in p.u. as indicated. The diagonal element \(Y_{22}\) of the bus admittance matrix \(Y_{bus}\) of the network is _______.

1. \(Y_{22} = + j19.90\)
2. \(X_{22} = - j10.00\)
3. \(Y_{22} = - j19.90\)
4. \(Y_{22} = + j10.0\)

Correct Ans: C

QGK1.BSNL is an abbreviation of _____________.

1. Broadcast Service Nigam Limited
2. Bharat Service Nigam Limited
3. Bharat Satellite Nigam Limited
4. Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited

Correct Ans: D

QGK2.As per ‘India State of Forest Report 2019’ which state ranked as first in terms of forest cover as percentage of total geographical area?

1. Punjab
2. Chhattisgarh
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Mizoram

Correct Ans: D

QGK3.Marble is an example of which type of rock?

1. Metamorphic Rock
2. Sedimentary Rock
3. Plutonic Rock
4. Volcanic Rock

Correct Ans: A

QGK4.Which among the following is the Asia's largest Sports Institutes?

1. Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports, Patiala
2. Institute of Sports Science & Technology, Pune
3. Inspire Institute of Sport, Vijayanagar
4. Lakshmibai National College of Physical Education, Thiruvananthapuram

Correct Ans: A

QGK5.Which among the following ministries unveiled the Foreign Trade Policy 2015-20 in India?

1. Ministry of External Affairs
2. Ministry of Home Affairs
3. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
4. Ministry of Finance

Correct Ans: C

QGK6.What is the full form of MBBS?

1. Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Surgery
2. Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Science
3. Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Stemcells
4. Bachelor of Medicine, Bachelor of Social-Science

Correct Ans: A

QGK7.Which among the following Indian states shares its border with Bhutan?

1. West Bengal
2. Tripura
3. Meghalaya
4. Nagaland

Correct Ans: A

QGK8.Dharma Guardian is the joint military exercise between India and ___________.

1. Pakistan
2. Kenya
3. Japan
4. Iran

Correct Ans: C

QGK9.Who among the following officially opened the first Round Table Conference held in London on 12th November 1930?

1. Queen Elizabeth I
2. Queen Elizabeth II
3. Queen Victoria
4. King George V

Correct Ans: D

QGK10.Manoj Mukund Naravane holds the position as the 28th Chief of the ________.

1. Navy Staff
2. Air Force Staff
3. Army Staff
4. Defence Staff

Correct Ans: C

Q1.The overall efficiency of thermal power plant is equal to

1. Rankine cycle efficiency
2. Carnot cycle efficiency
3. Regenerative cycle efficiency
4. Boiler efficiency * turbine efficiency * generator efficiency

Correct Ans: D

Q2.Economizer used to heat

1. Air
2. Feed water
3. Flue gases
4. All above

Correct Ans: B

Q7.In a power transformer, the breather is provided in order to,

1. Filter transformer oil
2. Prevent ingress of moisture with air
3. Provide oxygen to the oil
4. Provide fresh air to increase cooling effect

Correct Ans: B

Q8.Malfunctioning of the Buchholz relay may be caused due to

1. heavy external short circuit
2. improper breather action
3. dropping of oil level below the relay level during operation
4. excessive overheating

Correct Ans: C

Q10.Buchholz relay is

1. Oil actuated
2. Current actuated
3. Gas actuated
4. Oil temperature actuated

Correct Ans: C

Q13.In three unit insulator string, voltage across the lowest units is 17.5 kV and string efficiency is 84.28%. The total voltage across the string will be equal to

1. 8.285 kV
2. 44.25 kV
3. 88.25 kV
4. 442.5 kV

Correct Ans: B

Q14.Which type of insulators are used on 132 kV transmission lines?

1. Pin type
2. Shackle type
3. Suspension type
4. Pin and Shackle type

Correct Ans: C

Q15.A cable has inductance of 0.22 mH per km and capacitance of 0.202 \(\mu\)F per km. The surge impedance of the cable is

1. 28 ohm
2. 33 ohm
3. 42 ohm
4. 50 ohm

Correct Ans: B

Q16.The characteristic impedance of a 250 km long overhead line is 400 ohm. For a line of 200 km length of the same line, the characteristic impedance will be

1. 50 ohm
2. 800 ohm
3. 200 ohm
4. 400 ohm

Correct Ans: D

Q17.Why is a ring main distribution system preferred to a radial system?
(1)\(\:\)Voltage drop in the feeder is less\(\:\)
(2)\(\:\)Power factor is higher\(\:\)
(3)\(\:\)Supply is more reliable.
The correct answers are

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Correct Ans: D

Q18.The distributors in residential areas are

1. single phase, two wire
2. three phase, three wire
3. three phase, four wire
4. two phase, four wire

Correct Ans: C

Q20.As compared to AC transmission, DC transmission is free from

1. inductance
2. capacitance
3. phase displacement
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q21.If δ is the loss angle of the cable then its power factor is

1. sin δ
2. Power factor is independent of δ
3. cos δ
4. tan δ

Correct Ans: A

Q22.Domestic consumers are usually charged

1. flat rate tariff
2. block rate tariff
3. Two part tariff
4. three part tariff

Correct Ans: B

Q23.The voltages at two ends of line are 132 kV and its reactance is 40\(\Omega\).
The capacity of the line is

1. 435.6 MW
2. 217.8 MW
3. 251.5 MW
4. 500 MW

Correct Ans: A

Q24.Bundled conductors are employed to improve

1. corona performance of the line
2. mechanically stability of the line
3. appearance of the transmission line
4. current carrying capacity of the line

Correct Ans: A

Q25.A three phase overhead transmission line has its conductors horizontally spaced with spacing between adjacent conductors equal to 'd'. If now the conductors of the line are rearranged to form an equilateral triangle of side 'd', then

1. Average capacitance and inductance will increase
2. Average capacitance will decrease and inductance will increase
3. Average capacitance increase and inductance will decrease
4. Average capacitance and inductance will decrease

Correct Ans: C

Q26.For a 500 Hz frequency Excitation, a 50 km long power line will be modelled as

1. Short line
2. Medium line
3. Long line
4. Data insufficient for decision

Correct Ans: C

Q27.For long uncompensated line the limit to the line loading is governed by

1. Thermal limit
2. Voltage drop
3. Stability
4. Corona loss

Correct Ans: A

Q28.An industrial substation with a 4 MW load, a capacitor of 2 MVAR is installed to maintain load power factor at 0.97 lagging. If the capacitor goes out of service, the load power factor becomes

1. 0.85 lag
2. 1
3. 0.8 lag
4. 0.9 lag

Correct Ans: C

Q29.In economic operation of a power system, the effect of increased penalty factor between a generating plant and system load centre is:

1. To decrease the load on the generating plant
2. To increase the load on the the plant
3. To hold the plant load constant.
4. To increase the load on generating plant

Correct Ans: A

Q30.The insulation resistance of 1.6 km length of cable with conductor diameter 1.01 cm and internal sheath diameter 1.788 cm is 321 M\(\Omega\) The insulation resistance of 4.8 km leagth of cable will be

1. 963 M\(\Omega\)
2. 1070 M\(\Omega\)
3. 107 M\(\Omega\)
4. 96.3 M\(\Omega\)

Correct Ans: C

Q31.In a given transmission system operating at 33kV, if the base power selected is 100 MVA the base impedance is

1. 1.0 \(\Omega\)
2. 10.89 \(\Omega\)
3. 100.89 \(\Omega\)
4. 50.59 \(\Omega\).

Correct Ans: B

Q32.Ferranti effect on long overhead lines is experienced when it is :

1. lightly loaded
2. on full load at unity p.f.
3. on full load at 0.8 p.f. lag
4. on 75% of full load an unity p.f.

Correct Ans: A

Q33.In load flow studies of a power system, a voltage control bus is specified by

1. Real power and reactive power
2. Real power and voltage magnitude
3. Voltage and voltage phase angle
4. Reactive power and voltage magnitude

Correct Ans: B

Q34.The impedance value of a generator is 0.2 pu on a base value of 11 kV, 50 MVA. The impedance value for a base value of 22 kV, 150 MVA is

1. 0.15 pu
2. 0.2 pu
3. 0.3 pu
4. 0.4 pu

Correct Ans: A

Q35.Injection of VARs is required to

1. compensate for line losses
2. get a good voltage profile
3. increase the volage at the receiving end
4. improve power factor

Correct Ans: B

Q36.Load factor is defined as the ratio of

1. peak load to average load
2. peak load to minimum load
3. average load to peak load
4. average load to minimum load

Correct Ans: C

Q50.Zero sequence currents can flow from a line to a transformer bank If the windings are in

1. Grounded star/delta
2. Delta/star
3. Star/grounded star
4. Delta/delta

Correct Ans: A

Q51.Four identical alternators each rated for 20 MVA, 11 KV having a sub transient reactance of 16% are working in parallel. The shortcircuit level at the bus bars is

1. 500 MVA
2. 400 MVA
3. 125 MVA
4. 80 MVA

Correct Ans: A

Q52.For the transient stability of a power system

1. \(\frac{d \delta}{dt}>0, \frac{dP}{d \delta}>0\)
2. \(\frac{d \delta}{dt}=0, \frac{dP}{d \delta}>0\)
3. \(\frac{d \delta}{dt}<0, \frac{dP}{d \delta}<0\)
4. \(\frac{d \delta}{dt}<0, \frac{dP}{d \delta}=0\)

Correct Ans: B

Q53.A 50 Hz, four pole turbo alternator rated at 20 MVA, 13.2 KV an inertia constant H=4 KW-sec/KVA. The kinetic energy stored in the rotor at

1. 10 MJ
2. 80 MJ
3. 40 MJ
4. 20 MJ

Correct Ans: B

Q54.A 3-phase transmission line supplies delta connected load of impedance Z. The conductor 'c' of the line develops an open circuit fault as shown in figure. The positive sequence current component in line 'a' will be

1. \(5.78 \angle -30^\circ\)
2. \(5.78 \angle 90^\circ\)
3. \(6.33 \angle 90^\circ\)
4. \(10 \angle -30^\circ\)

Correct Ans: A

Q55.A star connected 3 phase 11 kV, 25 MVA alternator with its neutral grounded through a 0.033 pu reactance (based on the alternator rating) has positive, negative and zero sequence reactances of 0.2 pu, 0.1 pu and 0.1 pu respectively. A single line to ground fault on one of its terminals would result in a fault MVA of

1. 150 MVA
2. 125 MVA
3. 100 MVA
4. 50 MVA

Correct Ans: A

Q56.In a star connected system without neutral grounding, zero sequence currents are

1. zero
2. phasor sum of phase currents
3. three time the phasor of phase currents
4. three time the phasor sum of line currents

Correct Ans: A

Q57.\(X_d,\:X'_d\) and \(X^"_d\) are steady state d-axis synchronous reactance, transient d-axis reactance and sub transient d-axis reactance of a synchronous machine Which of the following is true?

1. \(X_d>X'_d>X^"_d\)
2. \(X^"_d>X'_d>X_d\)
3. \(X'_d>X^"_d>X_d\)
4. \(X_d>X^"_d >X'_d\)

Correct Ans: A

Q58.The sequence components of the fault current are as follows: \(i_+ = j1.5 \: p.u., i_- = – j0.5 \: p.u., i_0 = –j1 \: p.u.\). The type of fault in the system is:

1. LG
2. LL
3. LLG
4. LLLG

Correct Ans: C

Q59.If the positive, negative and zero sequence reactances of an element of a power system are 0.3, 0.3 and 0.8 pu respectively, then the element would be

1. Synchronous generator
2. Synchronous motor
3. Induction motor
4. Transmission line

Correct Ans: D

Q60.The parameters of a transposed overhead transmission line are given as: self reactance \(X_S=0.4\) ohm/km and mutual reactance \(X_m = 0.1\) ohm/km. The positive and zero sequence reactance respectively, in ohm/km are

1. 0.3, 0.2
2. 0.5, 0.2
3. 0.5, 0.6
4. 0.3, 0.6

Correct Ans: D

Q61.Steady state stability of power system is improved by