Previous Years Papers

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Deputy Ex. Engg. Electrical - R&B 2025

Subject wise analysis

Subject Number of questions
POWER ELECTRONICS & DRIVES 14
CONTROL SYSTEM ENGINEERING 27
ELECTRICAL MACHINES 22
POWER SYSTEM 53
SIGNALS & SYSTEMS 16
DIGITAL ELECTRONICS 18
MICROPROCESSOR AND MICROCONTROLLER INTERFACING 4
ELECTRICAL WIRING 3
UTILIZATION OF ELECTRICAL ENERGY 5
ELECTROMAGNETICS 13
ELECTRICAL ENERGY CONSERVATION AND AUDITING 1
ELECTRICAL CIRCUIT ANALYSIS 20
BASIC ELECTRONICS 2
MEASUREMENT & INSTRUMENTATION 2
Total 200

Q1.Choose the correct option.

Assertion: Power MOSFET has bidirectional current handling capability.

Reason: Power MOSFET Reason: Power MOSFET has an anti-parallel body diode.

  1. Assertion is TRUE but Reason is FALSE
  2. Assertion is FALSE but Reason is TRUE
  3. Both Assertion and Reason are FALSE
  4. Both Assertion and Reason are TRUE

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Power MOSFETs indeed have bidirectional current capability mainly because of the presence of the anti-parallel body diode inside them.

Q2.Choose the minority charge carrier semiconductor device.

  1. Schottky power diode
  2. Power MOSFET
  3. Gate Turn-OFF thyristor
  4. All of the above

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Schottky power diode \(\rightarrow\) Majority carrier device (conduction mainly due to electrons, no significant minority carrier storage).
\(\Rightarrow\) Power MOSFET \(\rightarrow\) Majority carrier device (electrons in n-channel or holes in p-channel dominate).
\(\Rightarrow\) Gate Turn-OFF thyristor (GTO) \(\rightarrow\) Minority carrier device (both electrons and holes participate in conduction — bipolar conduction)

Q3.Which of the following is a semi-controlled semiconductor device?

  1. Gate turn-OFF thyristor
  2. Silicon-controlled rectifier
  3. Metal-oxide FET
  4. Insulated-gate bipolar transistor

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Silicon controlled rectifier is a semi controlled device as it can be turned on by gate pulse, but cannot be turned off by removing the gate pulse.

Q4.AC source of \(110\:V_{rms}, 60\: Hz\) supplies an ideal single-phase phase-controlled half-wave rms rectifier that charges a battery. Assume the battery is modelled using a voltage source of 100 V with a series resistance of \(2\Omega\)

Choose the correct option.

Statement-1: Minimum value of control firing angle is \(\alpha = 40^\circ \)(approx.)

Statement-2: For firing angle, \(\alpha = 60^\circ \), the battery current start falling from its peak value after \(30^\circ \) which is measured from the angle at which current starts rising.

  1. Both statements are TRUE
  2. Both statements are FALSE
  3. Statement-1 is TRUE but Statement-2 is FALSE
  4. Statement-1 is FALSE but Statement-2 is TRUE

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The minimum firing anlge required for single phase half bridge rectifier with E load is given by :

\(\quad \quad \alpha = \sin^{-1} \frac{E}{V_m} = \sin^{-1} \frac{100}{\sqrt 2 \times110 } \approx 40^{\circ} \).

\(\Rightarrow\) Hence Statement 1 is correct.

\(\Rightarrow\) The converter will conduct for for \(40^{\circ}\) to \(140^{\circ} (180^{\circ} - 40^{\circ})\)

\(\Rightarrow\) For firing angle \(60^{\circ}\), the converter will conduct for \(60^{\circ}\) to \(140^{\circ}\).
\(\Rightarrow\) The current will raise from zero at \(60^{\circ}\), will be maximum at \(90^{\circ}\) and start falling after it.
\(\Rightarrow\) Hence, statement 2 is also correct.

Q5.In power electronics circuit, commutation is the process of

  1. Turning off an electronic switch, which usually involves transferring the load current from one switch to another.
  2. Reversal of current in commutator of dc motor.
  3. Increasing the switching frequency of a power electronic device.
  4. Amplification of gate signals in a thyristor circuit.

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Commutation in power electronics refers to turning off a conducting switch by transferring its load current to another path (another switch or a commutation network).

Q6.An ideal dc-dc buck converter has the following parameters: dc source voltage 50 V, load voltage 20 V, load current 1 A, switching frequency 20 kHz, L and C filter values \(400 \:\muΗ\) and \(100 \:\muΗ\) respectively. The correct option is

Statement-1: Peak to peak ripple in inductor current is 1.5 A.

Statement-2: Converter operates in discontinuous conduction mode (DCM).

  1. Statement-1 is FALSE, but Statement-2 is TRUE
  2. Statement-1 is TRUE, but Statement-2 is FALSE
  3. Both statements are FALSE
  4. Both statements are TRUE

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Duty cycle: \(D = V_{\text{out}}/V_{\text{in}} = 20/50 = 0.4\).
\(\Rightarrow\) On-time: \(t_{\text{on}} = DT_s = 0.4\times50,\mu\text{s} = 20,\mu s\).
\(\Rightarrow\) Off-time: \(t_{\text{off}} = (1-D)T_s = 0.6\times50,\mu\text{s} = 30,\mu s\).

\(\Rightarrow\) Now, \(\:\:\Delta i_L = \dfrac{(V_{\text{in}} - V_{\text{out}})}{L}DT_s\)
\(\Rightarrow\) \(\:\: \Delta i_L = \frac{30\text{V}}{400\times10^{-6} \text{H}}\times20\times10^{-6} \text{s} = 1.5\text{ A}\)

\(\Rightarrow\) In steady state for a buck in continuous mode, the average inductor current \(I_{L,\text{avg}}\) equals the load current, so \(I_{L,\text{avg}} = I_{\text{load}} = 1A.\) With a triangular ripple of \(1.5, A\) p–p, the peak and valley inductor currents are:
\(\rightarrow\)
\(I_{L\max} = I_{L,\text{avg}} + \frac{\Delta i_L}{2} = 1 + 0.75 = 1.75 A\)
\(\rightarrow\) \(I_{L\min} = I_{L,\text{avg}} - \frac{\Delta i_L}{2} = 1 - 0.75 = 0.25 A.\)
\(\Rightarrow\) Since \(I_{L,\min} = 0.25 A\) remains positive (i.e. the inductor current never falls to zero during any cycle), the converter is operating in continuous conduction mode (CCM).

Q7.In a discontinuous current conduction (DCM) operation of dc-dc converter,

Statement-1: The conversion-ratio does not depend on load resistance.

Statement-2: The peak ripple in inductor current is more than average inductor current.

  1. Both statements are True
  2. Statement-1 is True, but Statement-2 is False
  3. Statement-1 is False, but Statement-2 is True
  4. Both statements are False

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The output voltage and conversion ratio are affected by the load resistance because the time it takes for the inductor current to reach zero depends on the load.
\(\quad \rightarrow\) Hence statement 1 is false.
\(\Rightarrow\) In DCM, the inductor current starts from zero, rises to a peak value, and then falls back to zero within a switching cycle. Since the current reaches zero, the peak ripple current must be greater than the average inductor current.
\(\quad \rightarrow\) Hence statement 2 is True.

Q8.An ideal boost converter provides an average output voltage of 30 V to a load resistance of \(50\Omega\) from a 12 V dc source. For a peak-to-peak ripple less than one percent in capacitor voltage at switching frequency of 25 kHz, the minimum value of capacitance is

  1. \(48\: \mu F\)
  2. \(24\: \mu F\)
  3. \(96\: \mu F\)
  4. \(12\: \mu F\)

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

The equation of ripple voltage is given by, \(\quad\Delta V_{C(pp)} \;=\; \frac{I_{\mathrm{out}}\;D}{C\,f_s}\;\le\; 0.01V_o\)
where
\(\rightarrow\) \(D = 1 - \frac{V_{\mathrm{in}}}{V_o} = 1 - \frac{12}{30} = 0.6\)
\(\rightarrow\) \(I_{\mathrm{out}} = \frac{V_o}{R} = \frac{30}{50} = 0.6\;\mathrm{A}\)
\(\rightarrow\) \(f_s = 25\;\mathrm{kHz}\),
\(\rightarrow\) \(\Delta V_{C(pp)} \le 0.01\times 30\;\mathrm{V} = 0.3\;\mathrm{V}\)

\(\Rightarrow\) Solving for \(C\):
\(\implies\)\(C \;\ge\; \frac{I_{\mathrm{out}}\;D}{f_s\;\Delta V_{C(pp)}} = \frac{0.6 \times 0.6}{25\,000 \times 0.3}\)
\(\implies\)\(C = 4.8\times 10^{-5}\;\mathrm{F} = 48\;\mu\mathrm{F}.\)

Q9.For the fast switching operation of a semiconductor device, which of the following is the most important?

  1. High forward voltage rating
  2. Low reverse recovery time
  3. High ON-state resistance
  4. Large junction capacitance

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The low reverse recovery time allows the fast switching of semiconductor device.

Q10.A 50 Hz single-phase voltage source inverter operates with frequency modulation ratio of 38 using unipolar sinusoidal pulse width modulation scheme. The first dominant harmonic in output voltage is

  1. 38th
  2. 75th
  3. 76th
  4. 39th

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) In Unipolar PWM, the dominant harmonic will be seen at : \(2M_f\pm 1 = 2\times 38 \pm 1 = 75, 76\)

(\Rightarrow\) Hence the first dominant harmonic will be \( 75^{th}\).

Q11.A quasi-square wave operation of single-phase PWM inverter is obtained using voltage cancellation method by combining

  1. Square wave and unipolar sinusoidal PWM switching schemes
  2. Square wave and bipolar sinusoidal PWM switching schemes
  3. Unipolar and bipolar sinusoidal PWM switching schemes
  4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) A quasi‐square–wave output by voltage‐cancellation in a single‐phase H-bridge is realized by driving one leg with a low-frequency square‐wave and the other with a high-frequency unipolar SPWM (sinusoidal PWM) signal.
\(\Rightarrow\) This “hybrid” scheme causes the rapid SPWM pulses to cancel during alternate half-cycles, leaving a three‐level, quasi-square waveform at the output.

Q12.A three-phase voltage source PWM inverter operates under linear modulation and is supplied using 100 V dc source. The maximum possible value of fundamental rms voltage (line-line) is

  1. 100 V
  2. 61.2 V
  3. 98.3 V
  4. 75.5 V

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

Under linear sinusoidal PWM:
\(\Rightarrow v_{ph,\text{peak}} = \frac{m_a\,V_{dc}}{2} = 50 \:V\)

\(\Rightarrow V_{LL,\text{rms}} = \frac{v_{LL,\text{peak}}}{\sqrt{2}}
= \frac{50\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{2}} = 61.2 \;\mathrm V\)

Q13.The output voltage of a three-phase voltage source PWM inverter operating in square wave mode contains

  1. Odd harmonics including triplen harmonics
  2. Odd harmonics excluding triplen harmonics
  3. Even harmonics including triplen harmonics
  4. Even harmonics excluding triplen harmonics

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) In a 3-phase square wave inverter, the harmonics are generally odd-order harmonics (3rd, 5th, 7th, etc.)
\(\Rightarrow\) Also, triplen harmonics (3rd, 9th, 15th, etc.) are absent in square wave operation.

Q14.Given the following statements

Statement 1: In the 8051, the machine cycle lasts 12 clock cycles of the crystal frequency.

Statement 2: The minimum number of machine cycles needed to execute an 8051 instruction is 1.

Choose the correct option for the above statements

  1. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
  2. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
  3. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are true

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) For 8051:
\(\textbf{Machine cycle} = 12\: \text{ clock cycles (Statement 1 true)}\).

\(\textbf{Minimum instruction cycles} = \text{1 (e.g., NOP) (Statement 2 true).}\)

Q15.If two different sizes of wire are joined together, then the ampere rating of the overcurrent device should be no greater than that permitted for

  1. smaller size wire
  2. larger size wire
  3. does not depend of size of wire
  4. none of the above

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The ampacity (current-carrying capacity) of a wire depends mainly on its cross-sectional area, and Ohm's Law plus Joule's Law :


1. Resistance of a wire:
\[
R = \rho \frac{L}{A}
\]
where:

\( R \) = resistance,

\( \rho \) = resistivity of material,

\( L \) = length,

\( A \) = cross-sectional area.



\(\therefore\) Smaller \( A \) (thinner wire) \(\rightarrow\) Higher \( R \).



2. Power loss (heating) in the wire:
\[
P = I^2 R
\]
where:

\( P \) = heat produced,

\( I \) = current,



\(\therefore\) Higher \( R \) and large \( I \) \(\rightarrow\) more heat generated.



\(\implies\) The smaller wire heats up faster for the same current because of higher resistance, and can burn if the current exceeds its ampacity.



\(\therefore\) The overcurrent device must protect the smaller wire by being rated no more than its safe current limit.

Q16.Twenty-five-foot tap rule generally referred to as the "25-ft tap rule" allows to omit overcurrent protection at the point of supply. Which of the following condition must be met under this rule?

  1. The smaller wire is not over 25 feet long and protected against physical damage.
  2. The smaller wire has an ampacity at least one-third that of the rating of the overcurrent device protecting the larger wire.
  3. The smaller wire ends in a single overcurrent device having an ampere rating not greater than the ampacity of the smaller wire.
  4. All of the above.

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) \(\text{25-ft Tap Rule =}\) No fuse/breaker needed at the supply point if below these 3 conditions are met:


1. Length limit:
\[
\text{Length} \leq 25 \, \text{feet}
\]
(Smaller wire must be 25 ft or less and protected from physical damage.)



2. Ampacity rule:
Ampacity of tap wire \(\geq \frac{1}{3} \times\) current rating of the main breaker or fuse protecting the bigger wire.



3. End protection: Tap wire must end in one overcurrent device rated \(\leq\) tap wire’s ampacity.

Q17.Building automation system (BAS) is

Statement-1: An example of a distributed control system.

Statement-2: BAS covers computer networking of electronic devices designed to monitor and control the fire and flood safety, lighting, HVAC and humidity control and ventilation systems.

  1. Statement-1 is TRUE, but Statement-2 is FALSE
  2. Statement-1 is FALSE, but Statement-2 is TRUE
  3. Both statements are FALSE
  4. Both statements are TRUE

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

Statement-1:

\(\Rightarrow\) Building Automation System (BAS) is a type of Distributed Control System (DCS) because it uses multiple controllers distributed across the building to monitor and control systems.



Statement-2:

\(\Rightarrow\) BAS manages important building operations like:

\(\rightarrow\) Fire and flood safety

\(\rightarrow\) Lighting control

\(\rightarrow\) HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning)

\(\rightarrow\) Humidity and ventilation systems

\(\therefore\) Statement-2 is also true.

Q18.Choose the correct option.

Statement-1: Demand Side Management (DSM) is a particular form of the Demand Response (DR) focusing on load shifting features and moreover it aims to make customers efficient energy users in the long term.

Statement-2: DSM architecture is designed to influence the period of use of electricity, so that the end users can optimally manage electricity usage.

  1. Statement-1 is TRUE, but Statement-2 is FALSE
  2. Statement-1 is FALSE, but Statement-2 is TRUE
  3. Both statements are FALSE
  4. Both statements are TRUE

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

Statement-1:

\(\Rightarrow\) Demand Side Management (DSM) is a special form of Demand Response (DR) that mainly focuses on load shifting (moving electricity use from peak to off-peak times) and aims for long-term energy efficiency among consumers.



Statement-2:

DSM architecture is specifically designed to influence the timing of electricity use, helping users optimize when and how much electricity they consume.

\(\therefore\) Both statements are true.

Q19.Smart meter (SM) plays a key role in DSM and DR programs. Choose the INCORRECT option.

  1. SM allows two-way communication but does not allow bidirectional power flow.
  2. Installation of smart meters is accelerated in order to accelerate the renewable energy and electrical vehicle integration to grid.
  3. SM offers the user interface notification unlike the traditional one.
  4. Detect customers who have installed distributed generation.

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\rightarrow\) Option A is Incorrect:


\(\Rightarrow\) Smart meters do allow bidirectional power flow.

\(\implies\) Ex. Homes with solar panels — during the day, they can send extra electricity back to the grid.



\(\Rightarrow\) Smart meter measures =
\[
\text{Power In (Grid} \to \text{Home)} \quad \text{and} \quad \text{Power Out (Home} \to \text{Grid)}
\]

\(\therefore\) Saying "no bidirectional flow" is incorrect.




\(\Rightarrow\) Other Options are Correct:



\(\implies\) Accelerating Renewables and EVs:

Smart meters provide detailed, real-time data to manage solar/wind power and EV charging.
\[
\text{Smart Meter} \Rightarrow \text{Better Traffic Control for Modern Grid}
\]


\(\implies\) User Interface Notification:

Unlike old meters, smart meters offer real-time energy usage data via display or app, helping users become energy-saving users.



\(\implies\) Detecting Distributed Generation:

Smart meters can identify homes generating their own power (like solar rooftops), which is crucial for grid management.



\(\implies\) Smart Meters = Two-way Communication + Two-way Power Flow + Smarter & Greener Grid

Q20.Choose correct option about the Smart Building Energy Automation (SBEA).

Statement-1: It is based on development of complete building energy management system excluding battery management system.

Statement-2: It manages and controls multiple-connected battery packs. It monitors the battery quantities SOC-SOH-DOD.

  1. Statement-1 is False, but Statement-2 is True
  2. Statement-1 is True, but Statement-2 is False
  3. Both statements are True
  4. Both statements are False

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

Statement-1:

\(\rightarrow\) Smart Building Energy Automation (SBEA) includes the Battery Management System (BMS) — it does not exclude it.

\(\therefore\) Statement-1 is False.



Statement-2:

\(\rightarrow\) SBEA monitors and controls multiple battery packs by tracking important battery health indicators like: SOC (State of Charge), SOH (State of Health), DOD (Depth of Discharge).

\(\therefore\) Statement-2 is True.

Q21.A room is 120 feet by 60 feet with 16 feet ceiling. A luminaire is suspended 4 feet below the ceiling and the work plane is 4 feet above the floor. The value of room cavity ratio (RCR) is

  1. 5
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 4

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Room Cavity Ratio (RCR):

\[
\text{RCR} = \frac{L \times W \times H}{(L + W)^2 \times (H + L)}
\]

Where:

\(L\) = Room Length = 120 feet

\(W\) = Room Width = 60 feet

\(H\) = Ceiling Height = 16 feet \(\quad\because\) (The luminaire is suspended 4 feet below the ceiling, and the work plane is 4 feet above the floor.)



\[
\text{RCR} = \frac{120 \times 60 \times 16}{(120 + 60)^2 \times (16 + 4)} = 4
\]

Q22.Color Rendering Index associated with luminaire refers to

  1. the appearance of light generated by the lamp compared to that produced by the black body radiator at a particular temperature.
  2. the ability of the lamp to clearly distinguish the different colors and are measured in terms of percentages.
  3. the energy efficiency of the luminaire in converting electricity to visible light.
  4. retaining the impression of an image by human eye and brain for a fraction of second.

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Color Rendering Index (CRI) measures how well a light source shows colors compared to natural light or a black body radiator (like the sun).

\(\rightarrow\) CRI is expressed in percentages, with \(100 \%\) being the best (perfect color rendering).

Q23.A rectangular room has a length of 10 meters and a width of 6 meters. The room is illuminated by a lighting system with a utilization factor (UF) of 0.6 and maintenance factor of 0.9. If the total luminous flux of the installed lamps is 10,000 lumens, then the Illuminance (E) on the working plane is

  1. 300 Lux
  2. 100 Lux
  3. 90 Lux
  4. 80 Lux

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Illuminance (E):

\[
E = \frac{UF \times MF \times \Phi}{A}
\]

Where:

\(UF = 0.6\) (Utilization Factor)

\(MF = 0.9\) (Maintenance Factor)

\(\Phi = 10,000\ \text{lumens}\) (Total luminous flux)

\(A = L \times W = 10 \times 6 = 60\ \text{m}^2\) (Area of the room)



\[
E = \frac{0.6 \times 0.9 \times 10,000}{60} = 100\ \text{Lux}
\]

Q24.Room index is used for obtaining the utilization factor of light in a particular room. A rectangular room has a length of 12 meters, a width of 8 meters and a mounting height of 4 meters from the working plane. The Room Index (RI) is

  1. 1.5
  2. 1.6
  3. 1.7
  4. 1.2

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Room Index (RI):

\[
\text{RI} = \frac{L \times W}{H^2}
\]

Where:

\(L = 12\ \text{m}\) (Room Length)

\(W = 8\ \text{m}\) (Room Width)

\(H = 4\ \text{m}\) (Mounting Height)


\[
\text{RI} = \frac{12 \times 8}{4^2} = \frac{96}{16} = 1.6
\]

Q25.As per National Electrical Code for a grounding electrode conductor, the maximum resistance of grounding electrode (single rod, pipe or plate) to earth must not exceed

  1. 100 ohms
  2. 50 ohms
  3. 25 ohms
  4. 60 ohms

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) As per the National Electrical Code (NEC), the maximum resistance for a grounding electrode (such as a single rod, pipe, or plate) to earth should not exceed \(25 \Omega\) to ensure safe grounding and effective fault clearing.

\(\rightarrow\) This is critical to avoid dangerous voltage differences that could harm people or equipment.

Q26.The transfer function of a phase lead controller is \((1+3\:Ts)/(1+\:Ts)\). What will be the maximum phase provided by this controller?

  1. \(90^\circ\)
  2. \(60^\circ\)
  3. \(45^\circ\)
  4. \(30^\circ\)

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

Phase lead controller max phase: \(\phi_{\text{max}} = \sin^{-1}\left(\frac{1 - \alpha}{1 + \alpha}\right)\), where \(\alpha = \frac{1}{3}\). Thus, \(\phi_{\text{max}} = 30^\circ\).

Q27.Consider the following statements in the context of state space model of a system.

Statement 1: State space model is always unique for a given system.

Statement 2: State space model can be derived from the transfer function.

Choose the correct options from the following:

  1. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
  2. Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
  3. Statement 2 is correct, but statement 1 is incorrect.
  4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow \textbf{State space models}\) are \(\textbf{not unique}\) (Statement 1 false) but can be derived from transfer functions (Statement 2 true).

Q28.The transfer function of a closed loop unity feedback system is given by

\(\frac{2s ^ 2 + 6s + 5}{((s + 1) ^ 2 (s + 2)}\)

What will be the characteristic equation of the closed loop system?

  1. \(2s ^ 2 + 6s + 5\)
  2. \((s + 1) ^ 2(s + 2)\)
  3. \((2s ^ 2 + 6s + 5) + (s + 1) ^ 2 (s + 2)\)
  4. \((2s ^ 2 + 6s + 5) - (s + 1) ^ 2 (s + 2)\)

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Characteristic equation: Denominator of closed-loop TF = \((s + 1)^2(s + 2)\).

Q29.A synchro-transmitter receiver pair can be used as a

  1. Angular displacement sensor
  2. Linear displacement sensor
  3. Temperature sensor
  4. Humidity sensor

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Synchro-transmitter/receiver pair measures \(\textbf{angular displacement}\), not linear/temperature/humidity.

Q30.Read the following statement in the context of a DC motor position control system.

Statement 1: Rate feedback is often provided to improve the damping of control system.

Statement 2: The rate feedback is provided by a tachogenerator.

Choose the correct option from the following:

  1. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
  2. Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
  3. Statement 2 is correct, but statement 1 is incorrect.
  4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow \textbf{Rate feedback}\) improves damping (Statement 1 true) and is implemented via \(\textbf{tachogenerator}\) (Statement 2 true).

Q31.Which of the following transfer functions represents a zero-order hold system?

  1. \((1+\frac{e^{-st}}{s})\)
  2. \((1-e^{-st})s\)
  3. \((1-\frac{e^{-st}}{s})\)
  4. \(\frac{(1-e^{-st})}{s}\)

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) A zero-order hold system holds the input constant over a sampling interval.
Its standard transfer function is:

\(H(s) = \frac{1 - e^{-st}}{s}\)

Q32.A system with characteristic equation \((s^2 + 4)^2 = 0\) is

  1. Unstable
  2. Marginally stable
  3. Stable and underdamped
  4. Stable and critically-damped

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

Given characteristic equation:
\[
(s^2 + 4)^2 = 0
\]



First, take the square root on both sides:
\[
s^2 + 4 = 0
\]
\[
s^2 = -4
\]
\[
s = \pm j2
\]
(where \( j \) is the imaginary unit.)



\(\textbf{Now notice:}\)
- The system has *purely imaginary* poles at \( s = +j2 \) and \( s = -j2 \).
- Also, because of the square, the multiplicity of each pole is 2 (i.e., double poles at \( \pm j2 \)).



\(\textbf{Interpretation:}\)
- If poles are simple (order 1) and lie on the imaginary axis, the system is \(\text{marginally stable}\).
- But if there are *repeated* poles (order \(>1\)) on the imaginary axis, the system becomes \(\text{unstable}\).



\(\textbf{Conclusion:}\)
The system is \(\text{unstable}\).

Q33.In the context of a passive low pass filters, read the following statements.

Statement 1: The highest magnitude response can be unity as input frequency reaches to infinity.

Statement 2: Second order systems have steeper roll-off rate in magnitude response after cut-off frequency.

Choose the correct option from the following:

  1. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
  2. Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
  3. Statement 2 is correct, but statement 1 is incorrect.
  4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

Correct Ans: C

Solution:


\(\Rightarrow\) In a passive low-pass filter, at low frequencies (near DC), the magnitude response is close to unity.

As the input frequency approaches infinity, the magnitude response tends to zero, not unity.

\(\implies\) Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.





\(\Rightarrow\) A first-order low-pass filter has a roll-off rate of \(-20\, \text{dB/decade}\) after the cutoff frequency.

A second-order low-pass filter has a steeper roll-off rate of \(-40\, \text{dB/decade}\) after the cutoff frequency.

\(\implies\)Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.




Hence, Statement 2 is correct, but Statement 1 is incorrect.

Q34.Read the following statements in the context of a series R-L-C network with ideal components resistor 'R', Inductance 'L' and Capacitance 'C'.

Statement 1: The RLC network will exhibit a resonance at \(\omega_r = 1/\sqrt RLC \) rad/sec.

Statement 2: The RLC network represents a nonlinear system as 'L' and 'C' are nonlinear elements.

Choose the correct options from the following:

  1. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
  2. Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
  3. Statement 2 is correct, but statement 1 is incorrect.
  4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

Correct Ans: D

Solution:


\(\Rightarrow\) In a series R-L-C network with ideal components, the resonance angular frequency \(\omega_r\) is given by:
\[
\omega_r = \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}
\]
Thus, the expression \(\omega_r = \frac{1}{\sqrt{RLC}}\) mentioned in Statement 1 is incorrect.




\(\Rightarrow\) In an ideal R-L-C circuit, the resistor \(R\), inductor \(L\), and capacitor \(C\) are considered linear elements.
Therefore, the system is linear, and Statement 2, which claims that \(L\) and \(C\) are nonlinear elements, is also incorrect.



Hence, both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.

Q35.A balance star connected load with impedance of \(20 \angle 45^\circ\Omega\) is supplied from a balanced 3-phase, 4-wire supply with a line voltage of \(173\: V_{(rms)} .\)What will be the current (rms) in a neutral wire?

  1. \(0 \:A\)
  2. \(8.85\: A\)
  3. \(50\: A\)
  4. \(5\: A\)

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) In a balanced star-connected load, the current in the neutral wire is zero because the sum of the phase currents is equal to zero in a balanced 3-phase system.

Q36.The resistance of a copper strip having rectangular cross-section of \(0.2 \:c m ^ 2\) is \(2 \:\Omega\). A metal of resistivity twice that of the copper is coated on top surface of this strip with the thickness as that of copper strip. What will be the resistance of composite strip?

  1. \(6 \:\Omega\)
  2. \(4/3 \:\Omega\)
  3. \(6/5 \:\Omega\)
  4. \(1 \:\Omega\)

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

Given Data:

\(\rightarrow\) Cross-sectional area \(A = 0.2\ \text{cm}^2\)

\(\rightarrow\) Resistivity of copper \(= \rho_{\text{Cu}} \)

\(\rightarrow\) Resistivity of coated metal \( \rho_{\text{metal}} = 2 \rho_{\text{Cu}} \)

\(\rightarrow\) Thickness of the coating is the same as the thickness of the copper strip.





1. Resistance of Copper Strip \(R_{cu}\):
\[
R_{\text{Cu}} = 2 \ \Omega
\]

2. Total Resistance of Composite Strip:

Two materials with resistivity \( \rho_1 \) and \( \rho_2 \) is:

\[
R_{\text{composite}} = \frac{R_{\text{Cu}} \times R_{\text{metal}}}{R_{\text{Cu}} + R_{\text{metal}}}
\]
\[
R_{\text{composite}} = \frac{2 \times 4}{2 + 4} = \frac{8}{6} = \frac{6}{5} \ \Omega
\]

Q37.For a two-port network to be reciprocal, which of the following condition should be satisfied?

  1. \(z_{11} = z_{22}\)
  2. \(y_{11} = y_{22}\)
  3. \(AD - BC = 0\)
  4. \(h_{12} = - h_{21}\)

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) For a two-port network to be reciprocal, the basic condition is that the transfer parameters between the ports must satisfy symmetry. The specific condition depends on the type of parameters being used.




- In terms of \(z\)-parameters (impedance parameters), reciprocity requires:
\[
z_{12} = z_{21}
\]
and not \(z_{11} = z_{22}\).




- In terms of \(y\)-parameters (admittance parameters), reciprocity requires:
\[
y_{12} = y_{21}
\]
and not \(y_{11} = y_{22}\).




- In terms of transmission (\(ABCD\)) parameters, the condition for reciprocity is:
\[
AD - BC = 1
\]
not \(AD - BC = 0\).




- In terms of \(h\)-parameters (hybrid parameters), reciprocity requires:
\[
h_{12} = -h_{21}
\]
which matches the given option.




Thus, for reciprocity, the condition \(h_{12} = -h_{21}\) must be satisfied.

Q38.Consider the following circuit shown in Fig. and read the following statements.

Statement 1: The current through the capacitor can be obtained by using only source transformation without the use of superposition theorem.

Statement 2: The current through the capacitor can be obtained by using superposition theorem.




Choose the correct option from the following:

  1. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
  2. Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
  3. Statement 2 is correct, but statement 1 is incorrect.
  4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Both \(\textbf{source transformation}\) and \(\textbf{superposition}\) can solve for capacitor current (Statements 1 & 2 true).

Q39.Calculate the value \(V_o\) of in the circuit shown in Fig.

  1. \(-24 \:V\)
  2. \(-8 \:V\)
  3. \(8 \:V\)
  4. \(24 \:V\)

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

Given:
Current source: \( 4\angle90^\circ \) A

Impedances: \( j6 , \Omega \) (inductor) and \( -j3 , \Omega \) (capacitor) in parallel




\(\Rightarrow\) First, calculate the total parallel impedance:


\[
Z_{\text{total}} = \frac{(j6)(-j3)}{j6 - j3} = \frac{18}{j3} = -j6 \, \Omega
\]
\(\Rightarrow\) Next, compute the output voltage using Ohm's Law:
\[
V_o = I \times Z_{\text{total}} = (4\angle90^\circ) \times (6\angle-90^\circ) = 24\angle0^\circ \, \text{V}
\]

Q40.For the circuit shown in Fig., what should be the value of load impedance to be connected across terminals 'a' and 'b', for the maximum power transfer from the circuit.

  1. \(-4j \:\Omega\)
  2. \(4j \:\Omega\)
  3. \(4 \:\Omega\)
  4. \(6j \:\Omega\)

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Step 1: Thevenin Impedance Calculation
\[
Z_{th} = -j2\,\Omega \parallel j4\,\Omega = \frac{(-j2)(j4)}{-j2 + j4} = \frac{8}{j2} = -j4\,\Omega
\]

\(\Rightarrow\) Step 2: Load Impedance for Maximum Power Transfer
\[
Z_L = Z_{th}^* = \overline{-j4\,\Omega} = j4\,\Omega
\]

Q41.Which of the following represents the imaginary part of an impedance?

  1. Admittance
  2. Susceptance
  3. Conductance
  4. Reactance

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

Imaginary part of impedance: \(\textbf{Reactance}\). Conductance/Admittance are real parts.

Q42.In the power triangle shown in Fig. Q42, what is the value of reactive power?

  1. 1000 VAR leading
  2. 1000 VAR lagging
  3. 866 VAR leading
  4. 866 VAR lagging

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\text{Given:}\)

\(P = 500\, \text{W}\)

\(\theta = 60^\circ\)



\(\text{In a power triangle, } \tan(\theta) = \frac{BC}{AB}\)



\(\text{Substituting the values:}\)

\(\tan(60^\circ) = \frac{BC}{500}\)



\(\text{We know that } \tan(60^\circ) = \sqrt{3} \approx 1.732\)



\(\text{Thus,}\)

\(1.732 = \frac{BC}{500}\)



\(\text{Multiplying both sides by 500:}\)

\(BC= 1.732 \times 500\)

\(BC= 866\, \text{VAR}\)



\(\text{Since the angle is positive, it indicates a lagging reactive power.}\)



\(BC= 866\, \text{VAR lagging}\)

Q43.For the op-amp circuit shown in Fig., find the value of current gain \(i_{o} /i _s.\)

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 30
  4. 0.167

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Voltage at the non-inverting input
\(\quad \quad V^+ = V_{out} \times\frac{2\:k\Omega}{2\:k\Omega + 4 \:k\Omega} = \frac{1}{3} V_{out}\)

\(\Rightarrow\) For ideal op-amp \(V^+ = V^- = \frac{1}{3} V_{out}\)
\(\Rightarrow\) KCL at the inverting node
\(\quad \quad I_o = \frac{V^- - 0}{2\:k\Omega}=\frac{V^-}{2\:k\Omega}\)

\(\Rightarrow\) As per Kirchhoff’s current law at the inverting node, the current injected by the source \(I_s\) must be balanced by the feedback current through the 20 kΩ resistor.
\(\quad \quad I_s +\frac{V_{out} - V^-}{20\:k\Omega} = 0\)
\(\implies I_s = -\frac{3V^- - V^-}{20\:k\Omega} = - \frac{V^-}{10\:k\Omega} \)

\(\Rightarrow\) Combining the above results to find the current gain

\(\quad \:\: \frac{I_o}{I_s} = \frac{\frac{V_s}{2\:k\Omega}}{-\frac{V_s}{10\:k\Omega}} = -5\)

Q44.In the context of Gujarat Small Hydel policy 2016, which of the following correctly shows the station capacity defined for Micro Hydel projects?

  1. 10 KW
  2. 100 KW
  3. 500 KW
  4. 1 MW

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) According to the Gujarat Small Hydel Policy, 2016: Micro Hydel projects are defined as projects with a capacity up to 100 kW.

\[
\therefore { \text{Micro Hydel Capacity} \leq 100\ \text{kW} }
\]

Q45.Calculate the power absorbed by \(4\: k\Omega \) resistor for the circuit shown in Fig.

  1. 9 mW
  2. 2 mW
  3. 4 mW
  4. 1 mW

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Since the op-amp is wired as a voltage follower, \(V_{out} = V^+ = 6\:V\)
\(\Rightarrow\) The \(4 k\Omega\) and \(2 k\Omega\) form a simple divider from \(V_{out}\) to ground.
\(\implies V_o = V_{out} \: \frac{2 k\Omega}{4 k\Omega+2 k\Omega} = 2V\)
\(\Rightarrow\) Therefore power absorbed by \(4 k\Omega\) resistor\( = \frac{V^2}{R} = \frac{(6-2)^2}{4000} = 4\:mW\)

Q46.Consider the circuit shown in Fig. The switch is initially closed for a long time and opens at \(t = 0s\) What is the value of \(R_1\) and \(R_2\), if current \(i(t) = 2.5 + 1.5e^{-4t} \) A for \(t> 0s\) ?

  1. \(R_{1} = 3\Omega \:and \:R_{2} = 5\Omega\)
  2. \(R_{1} = 5\Omega \:and \:R_{2} = 3\Omega\)
  3. \(R_{1} = R_{2} = 4\Omega\)
  4. \(R_{1} = 2\Omega \:and \: R_{2} = 5\Omega\)

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Initial Condition (\(t < 0>
\( I(0^-) = \frac{V}{R_1} = \frac{20}{R_1} \)

\( I(0^+) = I(0^-) = \frac{20}{R_1} \)



\(\Rightarrow\) Current [removed]\(t > 0\)):

\( i(t) = 2.5 + 1.5e^{-4t} \)

At \( t = 0^+ \):

\( i(0^+) = 2.5 + 1.5 = 4 \) A

Solving for \( R_1 \):

\( \frac{20}{R_1} = 4 \) \(\implies\) \( R_1 = 5\,\Omega \)



\(\Rightarrow\) Steady-State Solution (\(t \to \infty\)):

\( i(\infty) = 2.5 = \frac{20}{R_1 + R_2} \)

\( 2.5 = \frac{20}{5 + R_2} \) \(\implies\) \( R_2 = 3\,\Omega \)

Q47.A parallel RLC circuit has L= 2 H and C= 250 mF. What should be the value of R such that the damping factor of the circuit becomes unity?

  1. \(0.5 \:\Omega\)
  2. \(1 \:\Omega\)
  3. \(2 \:\Omega\)
  4. \(4 \:\Omega\)

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

Damping factor \(\zeta = 1 = \frac{R}{2}\sqrt{\frac{C}{L}} \Rightarrow R = 2\ \Omega\).

Q48.For the circuit shown in Fig., what will be the capacitor voltage at \(t= 0^{-} s\) (just before the switch is closed).

  1. \(0 \:V\)
  2. \(4 \:V\)
  3. \(8 \:V\)
  4. \(12 \:V\)

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

For the circuit at \( t = 0^- \):

1. Capacitor \(\rightarrow\) open circuit

2. Inductor \(\rightarrow\) short circuit



Equivalent circuit:

\( 12V \) in series with \( 2\Omega \) and \( 4\Omega \)

Inductor shorts across \( 4\Omega \) resistor



Voltage divider:

\( V_C(0^-) = 12 \times \frac{4}{2+4} \)

\( V_C(0^-) = 12 \times \frac{2}{3} \)

\( V_C(0^-) = 8V \)

Q49.The ideal transformer in Fig. has \(N_{2} / N_{1} =10\). What will be the ratio \(V_{2} / V_{1}\) ?

  1. 10
  2. 0.1
  3. -0.1
  4. -10

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

For an ideal transformer:

The voltage ratio equals the turns ratio:

\( \frac{V_2}{V_1} = \frac{N_2}{N_1} \)



Given turns ratio:

\( \frac{N_2}{N_1} = 10 \)



Thus:

\( \frac{V_2}{V_1} = 10 \)

Q50.A battery has a short-circuit current of 30 A and an open-circuit voltage of 12 V. If the battery is connected to a load resistance of \(2\Omega\), then what will be the power delivered by the battery?

  1. 30 W
  2. 40 W
  3. 50 W
  4. 60 W

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

Given parameters:

- Short-circuit current (\(I_{sc}\)) = 30 A

- Open-circuit voltage (\(V_{oc}\)) = 12 V

- Load resistance (\(R_L\)) = \(2\Omega\)



\(\Rightarrow\) Find internal resistance (\(R_{int}\)):

\( R_{int} = \frac{V_{oc}}{I_{sc}} = \frac{12}{30} = 0.4\,\Omega \)



\(\Rightarrow\) Total circuit resistance:

\( R_{total} = R_{int} + R_L = 0.4 + 2 = 2.4\,\Omega \)



\(\Rightarrow\) Current through circuit:

\( I = \frac{V_{oc}}{R_{total}} = \frac{12}{2.4} = 5\,A \)



\(\Rightarrow\) Power delivered to load:

\( P = I^2 R_L = (5)^2 \times 2 = 50\,W \)

Q51.Choose the correct option

Statement-1: LED lights remove the need of applying relatively large amount of heat as in incandescent or fluorescent lamp to glow.

Statement-2: LED lights need electronic driver. However, driver generates heat in LED lights.

  1. Statement-1 is True, but Statement-2 is False.
  2. Statement-1 is False, but Statement-2 is True.
  3. Both statements are True.
  4. Both statements are False.

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 1: True. LED efficiency is higher than incandescent lamps because less energy is wasted as heat. The efficiency can be represented as \(\eta_{LED} = \frac{P_{light}}{P_{total}} \approx 90\%\) compared to \(\eta_{incandescent} \approx 10\%\).
\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 2: True. LED drivers convert AC to DC and regulate current, generating heat \(P_{loss} = I^2R_{driver}\).

Q52.In which of the multi-terminal direct current (MTDC) systems, the reversal of power without using mechanical switch is possible?

  1. Series MTDC system
  2. Parallel MTDC system
  3. Radial MTDC system
  4. Mesh MTDC system

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) In Parallel MTDC systems, power flow reversal is achieved electronically by changing current direction through converters. The power equation is \(P = V_{dc} \times I_{dc}\). Unlike Series MTDC, no mechanical switches are needed.

Q53.Choose the correct option.

Statement-1: In parallel MTDC system, the valve-voltage rating is related to the power rating.

Statement-2: In series MTDC system, the valve-current rating is related to the power rating.

  1. Statement-1 is True, but Statement-2 is False.
  2. Statement-1 is False, but Statement-2 is True.
  3. Both Statements are True.
  4. Both Statements are False.

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 1: True. In parallel MTDC, valve voltage rating scales with power: \(V_{valve} \propto P\) because converters share current.
\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 2: True. In series MTDC, valve current rating scales with power: \(I_{valve} \propto P\) because converters share voltage.

Q54.The power flow control strategy that is typically used in Series MTDC systems is

  1. to control a constant voltage at all converter stations.
  2. to set current by one of the converter stations and is kept common for all the converter stations.
  3. to control power flow depending on load.
  4. to control power flow depending on frequency.

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Series MTDC uses current control where one converter acts as the current regulator (\(I_{ref}\)). Other converters adjust their voltages to maintain this current, following \(P = I_{ref} \times V_{dc}\).

Q55.In DC transmission line, the power carrying capability is mainly limited by

  1. an angle difference between the voltage phasors of sending and receiving ends
  2. the distance of line
  3. the thermal limit of current carrying conductor
  4. none of the above

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) DC lines are limited by the conductor's thermal capacity. The maximum power is given by \(P_{max} = I_{thermal}^2 \times R_{conductor}\), where \(I_{thermal}\) is the maximum allowable current before overheating.

Q56.Choose the correct option.

Statement-1: Ground impedance is negligible in DC transmission system.

Statement-2: In DC transmission systems, mono-polar transmission is not possible.

  1. Statement-1 is True, but Statement-2 is False.
  2. Statement-1 is False, but Statement-2 is True.
  3. Both Statements are True.
  4. Both Statements are False.

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 1: False. Ground impedance exists in DC systems and is non-zero: \(Z_{ground} = R_{ground} + j\omega L_{ground}\) (though \(\omega = 0\) for DC, resistance remains).
\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 2: False. Mono-polar HVDC systems are common, using one conductor with ground return: \(P = V_{-} \times I_{ground}\).

Q57.Homopolar link in HVDC systems has

  1. One conductor usually of negative polarity with ground or sea return.
  2. Two conductors, one of positive and another one of negative polarity.
  3. Two or more conductors, all having same polarity and generally ground or metallic return is not required.
  4. Two or more conductors, all having same polarity and always operates with ground.or metallic return.

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Homopolar HVDC uses multiple conductors at the same polarity (typically negative \(V_{-}\)) and always requires a ground/metallic return path for current \(I_{return}\).

Q58.The firing angle \((\alpha)\) of a 6-pulse three-phase line commutated converter (Graetz bridge) is \(45^\circ\). The approx. value of average DC output voltage for AC line voltage of \(400\: kV_{rms}\) is

  1. 382 kV
  2. 420 kV
  3. 310 kV
  4. 520 Kv

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) For a 6-pulse, three-phase Graetz bridge the average DC voltage is : \(V_{dc} = \frac{3\sqrt{2}}{\pi}\;V_{LL}\;\cos(\alpha)\)
\(\implies V_{dc} = 1.35 \times 400\:kV\times\cos(45)\)
\(\implies V_{dc} = 382 \:kV\)

Q59.In a 12-pulse line commutated converter, the first dominant ac (pair) harmonic at ac-side and dc harmonic at dc-side are respectively

  1. \((5^{th}, 7^{th})\) and \(12^{th}\)
  2. \((9^{th}, 11^{th})\) and \(11^{th}\)
  3. \((11^{th}, 13^{th})\) and \(12^{th}\)
  4. \((13^{th}, 15^{th})\) and \(13^{th}\)

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow \:h_{\mathrm{ac, dominant}} = 12k \pm 1 \quad\Longrightarrow\quad 11^\mathrm{th}\text{ and }13^\mathrm{th}\)
\(\Rightarrow h_{\mathrm{dc, dominant}} = 12k
\quad\Longrightarrow\quad12^\mathrm{th}\)

Q60.In three-level voltage source converter, also termed as NPC converter, is a special case of multilevel diode-clamped converter that has

  1. three clamping diodes in each phase
  2. two clamping diodes in each phase
  3. four clamping diodes in each phase
  4. five clamping diodes in each phase

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) For three level NPC, \( m = 3 \)
\(\quad \rightarrow \text{DC‐link capacitors} = m-1 = 2 \)
\(\quad \rightarrow \text{Switching devices per phase} = 2 (m-1) = 4\)
\(\quad \rightarrow \text{Clamping diodes per phase} = (m-1)(m-2) = 2\)

Q61.Choose the correct option about dc-link control in HVDC system

Statement-1: Current control by controlling delay angle at inverter-end while keeping minimum extinction angle at rectifier-end results in the better voltage regulation.

Statement-2: Currents during line faults are automatically limited with rectifier station in current control.

  1. Both statements are True
  2. Statement-1 is True, but Statement-2 is False
  3. Statement-1 is False, but Statement-2 is True
  4. Both statements are False

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Under normal HVDC operation the rectifier is operated in constant‐current (CC) mode and the inverter in constant‐extinction‐angle (CEA) mode to achieve good voltage regulation. Swapping these (i.e. doing CC at the inverter while holding minimum γ at the rectifier) is not the standard practice for voltage control.
\(\Rightarrow\) So statement 1 is false.

\(\Rightarrow\) One of the primary roles of constant‐current control at the rectifier is to limit the maximum DC current (e.g. during AC or DC faults) to protect valves and limit fault currents.
\(\Rightarrow\) So statement 2 is true.

Q62.Choose the correct option.

Statement 1: A minimum Extinction Angle (CEA) of inverter in HVDC systems is maintained to avoid commutation failures.

Statement 2: CEA control exhibits negative-resistance characteristics, making it unstable when connected to weak AC systems.

  1. Both statements are True
  2. Statement-1 is True, but Statement-2 is False
  3. Statement-1 is False, but Statement-2 is True
  4. Both statements are False

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The inverter’s extinction angle must never fall below a minimum value to ensure that each valve has fully commutated before the next firing — this avoids commutation failures.
\(\Rightarrow\) So statement 1 is true.

\(\Rightarrow\) Constant-extinction-angle (CEA) control indeed shows a negative-resistance characteristic: as DC voltage demand rises, the AC system voltage falls, which can make the control loop unstable if the AC network is weak.
\(\Rightarrow\) So statement 2 is true.

Q63.In HVDC systems, the smoothing reactors are used to

  1. Reduce the incidence of commutation failure in inverters caused by dips in the AC voltage at the converter bus.
  2. Avoid discontinuous current at light loads.
  3. Reduce DC harmonics in line.
  4. All of the above.

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow \bf {\text{Reduce commutation failures:}}\) The smoothing reactor’s inductance helps sustain DC current during brief AC‐voltage dips at the inverter bus, ensuring valves have sufficient overlap voltage to complete commutation.

\(\Rightarrow \bf {\text{Avoid discontinuous current at light loads:}}\) By providing stored energy (inductance), the reactor keeps the DC current from dropping to zero when the load is light.

\(\Rightarrow \bf {\text{Reduce DC harmonics:}}\) The high‐value inductance filters out the 300 Hz (6-pulse) or 600 Hz (12-pulse) ripple components, lowering DC‐side harmonic content.

Q64.Choose the correct option.

Statement-1: Voltage instability is more severe at the voltage setting terminal (VST) compared to other terminals irrespective of whether it is rectifier or inverter in HVDC system.

Statement-2: Constant AC voltage control at VST improves voltage stability at all terminal including VST without any coordination.

  1. Both statements are True
  2. Statement-1 is True, but Statement-2 is False
  3. Statement-1 is False, but Statement-2 is True
  4. Both statements are False

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow \bf {\text{Statement 1 is True:}}\)
\(\quad\rightarrow\)
The voltage‐setting terminal (VST) in an HVDC link must actively regulate its AC bus voltage.
\(\quad\rightarrow\) If that bus voltage dips, the converter at the VST is the one that directly fights the dip to maintain its setpoint.
\(\quad\rightarrow\) Consequently, voltage instability on the AC side manifests most severely at the VST, since all voltage‐regulation action is centered there and commutation can fail if the voltage falls too low.

\(\Rightarrow \bf {\text{Statement 2 is false:}}\)
\(\quad\rightarrow\) Simply applying constant AC‐voltage control at the VST does not automatically stabilize the entire link.
\(\quad\rightarrow\) In multi‐terminal or two‐terminal HVDC systems, the controls at both ends interact, and without coordination improper or conflicting setpoints can actually degrade stability elsewhere in the network.

Q65.As per National Building Code (NBC 2016) the Refuge Area is defined as an area within the building for

  1. a temporary use during egress and generally serves a staging area which is protected from the effect of fire and smoke.
  2. a storage space for firefighting equipment located on every floor.
  3. an open terrace used for emergency helicopter rescues.
  4. a basement area designated for evacuation during earthquakes.

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

Q66.The extra low voltage (ELV) is generally used in commercial systems. The typical range of ELV is

  1. AC voltage \(< 50\: V_{rms}\) and DC voltage \(< 50\: V\)
  2. AC voltage \(< 120\: V_{rms}\) and DC voltage \(< 120\: V\)
  3. AC voltage \(< 120\: V_{rms}\) and DC voltage \(< 50\: V\)
  4. AC voltage \(< 50\: V_{rms}\) and DC voltage \(< 120\: V\)

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\)The typical ELV range is up to 50 V AC and up to 120 V DC

Q67.In HVAC systems, the conditioned-space is generally classified as negative room and positive room based on the room-air pressure. The example of positive room is

  1. Commercial kitchen.
  2. Intensive care unit (ICU)
  3. Fume hood laboratory
  4. Clean room

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) A classic example of a positive-pressure room is the \(\bf\text{Intensive Care Unit (ICU). }\)
\(\Rightarrow\) It’s kept at slightly higher pressure than adjacent spaces so that any leakage is outwards, helping to keep contaminants from entering the patient area.

Q68.Choose the correct option about Pitot tube employed in fire-fighting system.

Statement-1: This is an instrument for the measurement of water velocity pressure.

Statement-2: This can be used to determine approximate amount of water flowing with the help of size of opening (orifice/nozzle) and water velocity pressure.

  1. Both statements are True
  2. Statement-1 is True, but Statement-2 is False
  3. Statement-1 is False, but Statement-2 is True
  4. Both statements are False

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) A Pitot tube is a simple but very important instrument widely used in fire-fighting systems.



Statement-1: This is an instrument for the measurement of water velocity pressure.


\(\rightarrow\) A Pitot tube measures the velocity pressure of the water flow.

\(\rightarrow\) It works by capturing the flowing water directly into a tube, which causes the water to slow down (almost to zero velocity at the tip) and build up a pressure known as stagnation pressure.

\(\rightarrow\) This stagnation pressure is related to the flow velocity using Bernoulli’s principle:


\[
v = \sqrt{2 \times \dfrac{P}{\rho}}
\]

Where:

\( v \) = velocity of water (m/s),

\( P \) = velocity pressure (N/m²),

\( \rho \) = density of water (approximately \( 1000 \, \text{kg/m}^3 \)).


\(\therefore\) The Pitot tube directly measures the pressure due to water velocity.



Statement-2: This can be used to determine approximate amount of water flowing with the help of size of opening (orifice/nozzle) and water velocity pressure.



\(\rightarrow\) Once the velocity is known using the Pitot tube, and the area (\( A \)) of the nozzle or opening is known, the flow rate \( Q \) can be calculated using the formula:


\[
Q = A \times v
\]

Where:

\( Q \) = flow rate (m³/s),

\( A \) = cross-sectional area of nozzle/orifice (m²),

\( v \) = velocity of water (m/s).


\(\therefore\) By knowing water velocity and opening size, easily estimate the quantity of water flowing.

Q69.In firefighting vertical water pump, an hydraulic turbulence can exert alternating dynamic forces on the vertical structure.

Statement-1: The frequencies of these dynamic forces are independent on the speed of the pump.

Statement-2: When the frequency of dynamic forces matches the natural frequency of a pump component, the resonant vibration will occur.

  1. Both statements are True
  2. Statement-1 is True, but Statement-2 is False
  3. Statement-1 is False, but Statement-2 is True
  4. Both statements are False

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

Statement-1: The frequencies of these dynamic forces are independent on the speed of the pump.


\(\rightarrow\) In a vertical firefighting water pump, hydraulic turbulence and dynamic forces are highly dependent on the speed of the pump.

\(\rightarrow\) When the pump rotates faster, the water flow patterns and turbulence inside the pump also change their behavior.

\(\rightarrow\) Turbulence-induced forces and their frequencies vary with RPM (revolutions per minute) of the pump shaft.


\(\rightarrow\) The forcing frequency is often proportional to the rotational speed.

\(\implies\) Ex.: If the pump runs at a speed \( N \) (in rpm), then forcing frequency \( f \) can be:


\[
f = \dfrac{N}{60}
\]

\(\therefore\) Statement-1 is False.




Statement-2: When the frequency of dynamic forces matches the natural frequency of a pump component, the resonant vibration will occur.



\(\rightarrow\) Resonance occurs when the forcing frequency matches the natural frequency (\( f_n \)) of the system or component.


\(\rightarrow\) At resonance, even a small periodic force can produce large amplitude vibrations, which can severely damage the pump.


\(\rightarrow\) Resonance condition is:


\[
f_{\text{forcing}} = f_{\text{natural}}
\]

where:

\( f_{\text{forcing}} \) = Frequency of external dynamic force

\( f_{\text{natural}} \) = Natural frequency of the structure


\(\therefore\) Statement-2 is True.

Q70.The main function of an NVR in a CCTV system is

  1. Storing video footage from IP cameras
  2. Converting analog video signals
  3. Controlling motorized gates
  4. Providing internet access

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) In a CCTV system, especially with IP (Internet Protocol) cameras, the cameras capture video footage and send it digitally (through a network — LAN or Wi-Fi) to the NVR (Network Video Recorder).


\(\Rightarrow\) Main Role of NVR:

\(\rightarrow\) It receives, processes, and most importantly, stores video footage from IP cameras.

\(\rightarrow\) It allows playback, live view, and recording management of multiple cameras simultaneously.



\(\implies\) The primary function of an NVR is Storing video footage from IP cameras.

Q71.A long-life of pump is ensured by

  1. pumping 'neutral liquids' at high temperatures.
  2. adding abrasive particles in the pumped fluid.
  3. continuous operation at or near the maximum efficiency capacity of the pump.
  4. keeping the Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH) lower than required NPSH.

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Every pump has a Best Efficiency Point (BEP) — the flow rate at which it operates most efficiently.

\(\Rightarrow\) Running the pump at or near its BEP ensures:

\(\rightarrow\) Less vibration

\(\rightarrow\) Minimum wear on components

\(\rightarrow\) Lower energy consumption

\(\rightarrow\) Reduced chances of cavitation



\(\implies\) When operating at BEP, the pump runs with minimum hydraulic losses, maintaining smooth flow:

\[
\eta_{\text{pump}} = \dfrac{P_{\text{output}}}{P_{\text{input}}}
\]

where:

\( \eta_{\text{pump}} \) = Pump efficiency

\( P_{\text{output}} \) = Hydraulic power delivered

\( P_{\text{input}} \) = Power supplied to pump



\(\therefore\) Continuous operation near maximum efficiency capacity = longer pump life.

Q72.The onsite fuel supply at the diesel engine should consider which of the following requirements?

  1. Maximum duration of the largest fire risk plus a safety factor.
  2. The time required for the fire pump to completely draw down stored firewater supplies that cannot be immediately replenished.
  3. A minimum of at least 5.07 liters/kilowatt (one gal. per horsepower) rating of the firewater pump driver
  4. All of the above.

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

Option (A):


\(\rightarrow\) In case of a major fire, the diesel engine running the fire pump must work without interruption.

\(\rightarrow\) The fuel storage must be enough to cover the entire firefighting operation duration plus some extra (safety factor) for uncertainties.





Option (B):


\(\rightarrow\) Suppose the firewater storage tank cannot be refilled quickly; the diesel engine must keep running until all the available firewater is used up.

\(\rightarrow\) So, the fuel quantity must match the maximum expected pump operation time.





Option (C):



\(\rightarrow\) According to fire protection standards (like NFPA 20), the minimum onsite diesel fuel storage should be:


\[
\text{Fuel Storage} \geq 5.07\ \text{liters per kilowatt (or 1 gal per horsepower)}
\]

\(\rightarrow\) This ensures the pump can run for a long minimum duration even without refueling.


\(\implies\) Relation:

If the pump motor has:

\(\rightarrow\) Power rating = \( P_{\text{kW}} \) kilowatts,
then minimum fuel required:

\[
\text{Minimum Fuel Volume} = 5.07 \times P_{\text{kW}}\ (\text{liters})
\]
\(\therefore\) All above options are True.

Q73.Choose correct option about the building management system &#40;BMS&#41;:

Statement-1: BMS is a computer-based control system that controls and monitors the mechanical and electrical equipment in buildings.

Statement-2: BMS connects the building services plant back to a central computer to enable the control of on/off times of lighting systems excluding HVAC system.

  1. Both statements are True
  2. Statement-1 is True, but Statement-2 is False
  3. Statement-1 is False, but Statement-2 is True
  4. Both statements are False

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

Statement-1: BMS is a computer-based control system that controls and monitors the mechanical and electrical equipment in buildings.


\(\Rightarrow\) A Building Management System (BMS) monitors and controls important services like:

\(\rightarrow\) HVAC (Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning),

\(\rightarrow\) Lighting,

\(\rightarrow\) Power Systems,

\(\rightarrow\) Fire Systems,

\(\rightarrow\) Security Systems.

\(\Rightarrow\) BMS helps optimize energy usage, improve occupant comfort, and ensure building safety.


\(\therefore\) Statement-1 is correct.





Statement-2: BMS connects the building services plant back to a central computer to enable the control of on/off times of lighting systems excluding HVAC system.


\(\rightarrow\) BMS does not exclude HVAC systems.

\(\rightarrow\) Controlling HVAC is one of the main roles of BMS because HVAC systems are major energy consumers in a building.

\(\Rightarrow\) BMS controls both:

\(\rightarrow\) Lighting (on/off schedules, dimming)

\(\rightarrow\) HVAC (temperature, humidity, air flow, energy optimization)


\(\therefore\) Statement-2 is incorrect.

Q74.Hydraulic lifts operation is based on

  1. Pascal's pressure Principle
  2. Bernoulli's Principle
  3. Archimedes' Principle
  4. Boyle's Law

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Pascal's Pressure Principle:

\(\rightarrow\) States that when pressure is applied at any point in a confined fluid, it is transmitted equally in all directions throughout the fluid (like car brakes, lifts, etc.)


\(\implies Ex.\)

If force \( F_1 \) is applied on a small piston of area \( A_1 \), then pressure \( P \) generated is:

\[
P = \frac{F_1}{A_1}
\]

Since pressure is transmitted equally:

\[
P = \frac{F_2}{A_2}
\]



\[\therefore
F_2 = F_1 \times \frac{A_2}{A_1}
\]

\(\rightarrow\) Where \( F_2 \) is the output lifting force generated on a larger piston (area \( A_2 \)).

\(\rightarrow\) This allows a small force to lift a large weight — the working principle of a hydraulic lift.

Q75.National Fire Protection Association, 780 Standard Code refers to

  1. A guideline for fire extinguisher placement in buildings.
  2. A standard för safeguarding structures and occupants from lightning-related hazards.
  3. A regulation for electrical wiring in residential homes.
  4. A code for earthquake-resistant construction.

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) NFPA 780 is specifically focused on protection against lightning hazards.


\(\rightarrow\) It provides guidelines on:

- Designing Lightning Protection Systems (LPS),

- Protecting structures (buildings, towers, tanks) from lightning strikes,

- Reducing risk of fire, explosions, and electrical surges caused by lightning.


\(\rightarrow\) It covers parts like:

- Air terminals (lightning rods),

- Conductors (metallic paths for lightning current),

- Grounding systems (to safely dissipate energy into the earth).

Q76.The current through an element is shown in Fig. 076. Determine the total charge that passed through the element from \(t=0s\) to \(t=3s\).

  1. 17.5 C
  2. 15 C
  3. 22.5 C
  4. 27.5 C

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) 1. From \( t = 0 \, \text{s} \) to \( t = 1 \, \text{s} \):
The current is constant at \( I = 10 \, \text{A} \).
\[
Q_1 = I \times \Delta t = 10 \, \text{A} \times 1 \, \text{s} = 10 \, \text{C}
\]

2. From \( t = 1 \, \text{s} \) to \( t = 2 \, \text{s} \):
The current linearly decreases from \( 10 \, \text{A} \) to \( 5 \, \text{A} \). The average current during this time is:
\[
\text{Average current} = \frac{10 + 5}{2} = 7.5 \, \text{A}
\]
\[
Q_2 = \text{Average current} \times \Delta t = 7.5 \, \text{A} \times 1 \, \text{s} = 7.5 \, \text{C}
\]

3. From \( t = 2 \, \text{s} \) to \( t = 3 \, \text{s} \):
The current is constant at \( 5 \, \text{A} \).
\[
Q_3 = I \times \Delta t = 5 \, \text{A} \times 1 \, \text{s} = 5 \, \text{C}
\]

Total charge:
\[
Q_{\text{total}} = Q_1 + Q_2 + Q_3 = 10 \, \text{C} + 7.5 \, \text{C} + 5 \, \text{C} = 22.5 \, \text{C}
\]

Q77.The dynamic behaviour of a series RLC circuit is described by a differential equation \(\frac{d ^ 2v_{c}}{dt ^ 2} + \frac{dv_{c}}{dt} + v_{c} = V_{s}u(t)\) , where \(v_{c}\) is the voltage across capacitor and \(V_{s}\) is the DC supply voltage. Find the nature of the damping in the circuit.

  1. Undamped
  2. Underdamped
  3. Critically-damped
  4. Overdamped

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The given differential equation is:
\[
\frac{d^2 v_c}{dt^2} + \frac{dv_c}{dt} + v_c = V_s u(t)
\]

This is a second-order linear differential equation of the form:
\[
\frac{d^2 y}{dt^2} + 2 \zeta \omega_n \frac{dy}{dt} + \omega_n^2 y
\]

By comparing the coefficients, we get:
\[
\omega_n = 1, \quad \zeta = \frac{1}{2}
\]

Since \( \zeta = \frac{1}{2} \) (which is less than 1), the system is underdamped.

Q78.The voltage and current through a circuit element are \(v =628sin (314t+45^\circ)\)and \({i} =10sin (314t - 45^\circ)\) Identify the circuit element and its value.

  1. Inductor, 20 mH
  2. Capacitor, 20 mF
  3. Inductor, 200 mH
  4. Capacitor, 200 mF

Correct Ans: c

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Given:
- Voltage: \( v = 628 \sin(314t + 45^\circ) \)

- Current: \( i = 10 \sin(314t - 45^\circ) \)



\(\Rightarrow\) Convert to Phasors (RMS):
\[
V = \frac{628}{\sqrt{2}} \angle 45^\circ = 444.1 \angle 45^\circ \, \text{V}
\]
\[
I = \frac{10}{\sqrt{2}} \angle -45^\circ = 7.07 \angle -45^\circ \, \text{A}
\]

\(\Rightarrow\) Calculate Impedance (\( Z \)):
\[
Z = \frac{V}{I} = \frac{444.1 \angle 45^\circ}{7.07 \angle -45^\circ} = 62.8 \angle 90^\circ \, \Omega
\]

\(\Rightarrow\) Identify Element:
- \( \angle 90^\circ \implies \) \textbf{Inductor} (\( X_L = 62.8 \, \Omega \)).

\(\Rightarrow\) Find Inductance (\( L \)):
\[
X_L = \omega L \implies 62.8 = 314 \, L \implies L = 0.2 \, \text{H} = 200 \, \text{mH}
\]

\(\implies\) Inductor, 200 mH

Q79.Calculate the power dissipated in \(8\:\Omega \)in the circuit shown in Fig. Q79.

  1. 8 W
  2. 16 W
  3. 32 W
  4. 64 W

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Using nodal analysis:

current \(i_o=1\: A\)

\(\implies\) Power = 8 W

Q80.Three lightbulbs are connected to a 9-V battery as shown in Fig. Find the magnitude of current passing through 10 W bulb.

  1. 2.22 A
  2. 0.9 A
  3. 2.78 A
  4. 1.67 A

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) - Total power: \(P_{total} = 10 + 15 + 20 = 45\:W\)
- Battery current: \(I = \frac{P_{total}}{V} = \frac{45}{9} = 5\:A\)
- Current through \(10\:W\) bulb: \(I_{10} = \frac{25}{9} = 2.78\:A\)

Q81.Obtain the voltage 'v' in the branch shown in Fig. Q81 for \(i_{2} = - 2A\)

  1. \(20 V\)
  2. \(-20 V\)
  3. \(30 V\)
  4. \(-10 V\)

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Applying KVL to the branch:
\(v = 15 \times (- 2) + 10 = -30+10 = -20\:V\)

Q82.An LTI system has a unit step response \(y(t) = (2 - e ^{- t})u(t)\) What is the transfer function of this system?

  1. \(2 / (s + 1)\)
  2. \(1 / (s + 1)\)
  3. \((s + 2) / (s + 1)\)
  4. \((s + 1) / (s + 2)\)

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) - Step response: \(Y(s) = \frac{2}{s} - \frac{1}{s+1}\)
- Transfer function: \(H(s) = \frac{Y(s)}{U(s)} = \frac{s+2}{s+1}\)

Q83.Which of the following condition should be satisfied for ensuring stability of an LTI system?

  1. Both phase margin and gain margin should be negative.
  2. Phase margin should be positive and gain margin should be negative.
  3. Phase margin should be negative and gain margin should be positive.
  4. Both phase margin and gain margin should be positive.

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) For stability, both margins must be positive:
- Gain Margin (GM): \(\text{GM} > 0\:dB\)
- Phase Margin (PM): \(\text{PM} > 0^\circ\)

Q84.Read the following statements in the context of negative feedback system.

Statement 1: Negative feedback always makes the overall system response stable.

Statement 2: Negative feedback system may improve the system's robustness towards parametric uncertainties.

Choose the correct option from the following:

  1. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
  2. Statement 1 is correct and statement 2-is incorrect.
  3. Statement 2 is correct and statement 1 is incorrect.
  4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) \(\Rightarrow\) Statement 1: False. Negative feedback improves stability but doesn't guarantee it (e.g., high gain can cause oscillations).
\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 2: True. Negative feedback reduces sensitivity to parameter variations (\(\Delta T/T \approx 0\) for large loop gain).

Q85.Read the following statements in the context of a PI controller used to control a first order LTI system.

Statement 1: The order of overall closed loop system becomes higher than the open loop system.

Statement 2: Increasing integral gain makes the overall system to have higher damping.

Choose the correct options from the following:

  1. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
  2. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
  3. Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is incorrect.
  4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) \(\Rightarrow\) Statement 1: True. A PI controller adds an integrator, increasing system order (e.g., from 1st to 2nd order).
\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 2: False. Increasing integral gain \(K_i\) reduces damping, causing higher overshoot (\(\zeta \propto \frac{1}{K_i}\)).

Q86.Read the following statements:

Statement 1: A system is said to be completely controllable if it is possible to transfer the system state from an initial state \(X(t_0)\) to any desired state \(X(t)\) in a specified finite time by a control vector \(u(t)\).

Statement 2: A system is said to be completely observable, if every state \(X(t_0)\) can be completely identified by measurement of the outputs \(y(t)\) over the time interval \((0\leqslant t\leqslant \infty)\).

Choose the correct options from the following:

  1. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
  2. Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect..
  3. Statement 2 is correct but statement 1 is incorrect.
  4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Standard definitions:
- Controllability: State \(X(t)\) can be driven to any desired value using input \(u(t)\).
- Observability: State \(X(t_0)\) can be determined from output \(y(t)\).

Q87.A certain system has a state space model as
\(\begin{bmatrix}X_1 \\X_2 \end{bmatrix}=\begin{bmatrix}-2 & -3 \\4 & 2 \end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}X_1 \\X_2 \end{bmatrix}+\begin{bmatrix}3 \\5 \end{bmatrix}\) U and \(Y=\begin{bmatrix}1 & 1 \\\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}X_1 \\X_2 \end{bmatrix}\) with \(D=0\).
What will be the transfer function of this system?

  1. \(\frac{8s + 1}{s ^ 2 + 8}\)
  2. \(\frac{8+s}{s ^ 2 + 8}\)
  3. \(\frac{2s+1}{s ^ 2 + 8}\)
  4. \(\frac{s+2}{s ^ 2 + 8}\)

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Transfer function derived from state-space matrices:
\(T(s) = C(sI - A)^{-1}B + D = \frac{8s + 1}{s^2 + 8}\)

Q88.In a bode magnitude plot, which one of the following slopes would be exhibited at high frequencies by a 4th order system having two zeros in left half of s-plane?

  1. \(-80 dB/decade\)
  2. \(-40 dB/decade\)
  3. \(80 dB/decade\)
  4. \(40 dB/decade\)

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) For a 4th-order system with 2 zeros:
High-frequency slope = \(-20 \times (\text{poles} - \text{zeros}) = -20 \times (4 - 2) = -40\:dB/decade\)

Q89.If the gain of an open-loop system is doubled, then the gain margin

  1. Increases by factor of 2
  2. Decreases by factor of 2
  3. Decreases by factor of 4
  4. Increases by factor of 4

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Gain Margin is inversely proportional to gain:


\(\text{GM} = \frac{1}{ G(j\omega_c) })\)


\(\therefore\) Doubling K halves GM

Q90.Given the Laplace transform of a signal as \(y(t)\), \(y(s) = 6e ^{-2s} / (s + 4)\) what will be the initial value in time domain \(y(0)\)?

  1. 6
  2. 1.5
  3. 0
  4. 4

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Initial Value Theorem:
\(y(0) = \lim_{s \to \infty} sY(s) = \lim_{s \to \infty} \frac{6se^{-2s}}{s+4} = 0\) (since \(e^{-2s}\) dominates).

Q91.Consider the following statements about error-based performance criterion.

Statement 1: Minimization of integral of squared error should be considered as design criteria when error magnitude is very small (typically lesser than 0.1).

Statement 2: Minimization of integral of time-weighted absolute error should be considered as design criteria when error persists for longer time.

Choose the correct options from the following:

  1. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
  2. Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
  3. Statement 2 is correct, but statement 1 is incorrect.
  4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

Statement 1: Minimization of integral of squared error should be considered as design criteria when error magnitude is very small (typically lesser than 0.1).



\(\Rightarrow\) The Integral of Squared Error (ISE):
\[
\text{ISE} = \int_0^\infty e^2(t)\,dt
\]
\(\rightarrow\) Squaring small errors makes them even smaller, reducing their impact.

\(\rightarrow\) ISE is better at penalizing large errors (due to squaring), not suitable when errors are already very small.

\(\implies\) False



Statement 2:

Minimization of integral of time-weighted absolute error should be considered as design criteria when error persists for longer time.


\(\rightarrow\) The Integral of Time-weighted Absolute Error (ITAE):
\[
\text{ITAE} = \int_0^\infty t\,|e(t)|\,dt
\]
\(\rightarrow\) The time multiplier gives more weight to errors that occur later (i.e., persistent errors).

\(\therefore\) ITAE is ideal for reducing long-lasting or slow-decaying errors.

\(\therefore\) True

Q92.The loop transfer function \(G(s)H(s)\) of a unity feedback system is given by \(G(s)H(s) = (s + 2) / ((s + 4)(s + 5)(s + 6))\) How many branches of root locus will tend towards infinity?

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Branches to infinity = Number of poles (\(3\)) - Number of zeros (\(1\)) = \(2\).

Q93.An LTI system having transfer function \(G(s) = 10 / (s + 5)\) is controlled by a proportional controller with a gain of \(K_{p} = 2\) Consider the unity feedback system. Find the steady state error of the closed system, if the reference signal is a step input with a magnitude of 5.

  1. 1
  2. 0.8
  3. 0.2
  4. 0

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

Given:
- Transfer function of the system:
\( G(s) = \frac{10}{s + 5} \)
- Proportional controller gain:
\( K_p = 2 \)
- Reference input:
\( R(s) = \frac{5}{s} \)

Closed-loop transfer function:
\[
T(s) = \frac{G(s) \cdot K_p}{1 + G(s) \cdot K_p} = \frac{\frac{20}{s + 5}}{1 + \frac{20}{s + 5}} = \frac{20}{s + 25}
\]

Error transfer function:
\[
E(s) = R(s) \left( 1 - T(s) \right) = \frac{5}{s} \left( 1 - \frac{20}{s + 25} \right) = \frac{5(s + 5)}{s(s + 25)}
\]

Steady-state error (using Final Value Theorem):
\[
\text{Steady-state error} = \lim_{s \to 0} s \cdot E(s) = \lim_{s \to 0} \frac{5(s + 5)}{s + 25} = 1
\]

Thus, the steady-state error is \( 1 \).

Q94.Consider the following statements regarding time-domain analysis of a control system:

Statement 1: Derivative control improves the system's transient performance.

Statement 2: Integral control does not improve system's steady state performance.

Choose the correct options from the following:

  1. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.
  2. Statement 1 is correct, but statement 2 is incorrect.
  3. Statement 2 is correct, but statement 1 is incorrect.
  4. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) \(\Rightarrow\) Statement 1: True. Derivative control (\(K_d s\)) improves transient response by damping oscillations.
\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 2: False. Integral control (\(K_i/s\)) eliminates steady-state error (\(e_{ss} \to 0\)).

Q95.The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback control system is given by

\(G(s) = \frac{K}{s(s + 1)}\)

If the gain 'K' is increased to infinity, then the damping ratio of the closed loop system will tend to become

  1. \(1/\sqrt 2\)
  2. \(1\)
  3. \(0\)
  4. \(\infty\)

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Damping ratio for \(G(s) = \frac{K}{s(s+1)}\):
\(\zeta = \frac{1}{2\sqrt{K}}\) → As \(K \to \infty\), \(\zeta \to 0\) (undamped oscillations).

Q96.A unity feedback system with open loop transfer function \(G(s) H(s) = 16 / (s ^ 2 + 4s)\) The steady state response \(c(t)\) will exhibit a resonance peak at a frequency of

  1. \(4 rad/sec\)
  2. \(2\sqrt2 \:rad/sec\)
  3. \(2 rad/sec\)
  4. \(\sqrt2 \:rad/sec\)

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Resonance frequency for \(G(s)H(s) = \frac{16}{s^2 + 4s}\):
\(\omega_r = \omega_n \sqrt{1 - 2\zeta^2} = 2\sqrt{2} \times \sqrt{1 - 2(0.5)^2} = 2\:rad/sec\)

Q97.If the unit step response of a system is a unit impulse function, then what will be the transfer function of the system?

  1. \(1\)
  2. \(1/s\)
  3. \(s\)
  4. \(1/s^2\)

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Transfer function is the ratio of output to input Laplace transforms:
\(T(s) = \frac{\mathcal{L}\{\delta(t)\}}{\mathcal{L}\{u(t)\}} = \frac{1}{1/s} = s\)

Q98.The open loop transfer function of a unity feedback system is given by

\(G(s) =\frac{K(s + 2)}{s(s ^ 2 + 2s + 2)} \)

What is the value of centroid in root-locus for this system?

  1. \(Zero\)
  2. \(-2/3\)
  3. \(-1\)
  4. \(-3/2\)

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Centroid for root locus:
\(\sigma = \frac{\sum \text{poles} - \sum \text{zeros}}{\text{poles} - \text{zeros}} = \frac{(0 - 2 - 2) - (-2)}{3 - 1} = -\frac{2}{3}\)

Q99.A linear discrete time system has characteristic equation as \(z ^ 3 - 0.81z = 0\) This system

  1. is stable
  2. is marginally stable
  3. is unstable
  4. stability cannot be assessed from the given information

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Characteristic equation: \(z^3 - 0.81z = 0 \implies \) Roots at \(z = 0, \pm 0.9\).

\(\therefore\) Poles on unit circle \(( z = 0.9)\) imply marginal stability.

Q100.A unity-feedback second order control system is characterised by

\(G(s)=K/(Js^2 + Bs)\)

Which of the following transient response specification will be unaffected by the variation in parameter K?

  1. Damped natural frequency
  2. Maximum overshoot
  3. Rise time
  4. Settling time

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Maximum overshoot depends only on damping ratio (\(\zeta\)), which is independent of \(K\) for \(G(s) = \frac{K}{Js^2 + Bs}\). Other specs (rise time \(t_r\), settling time \(t_s\)) vary with \(K\).

Q101.The speed of a separately excited DC motor can be controlled by changing

1. Field current

2. Supply voltage

3. Armature resistance

Select the correct option:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 2 and 3

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) For separately excited DC motor:
\[
N \propto \frac{V - I_a R_a}{ \phi}
\]

Where:

\(\rightarrow\) \( N \) = Speed of motor (rpm)

\(\rightarrow\) \( V \) = Supply voltage (V)

\(\rightarrow\) \( I_a \) = Armature current (A)

\(\rightarrow\) \( R_a \) = Armature resistance (Ω)

\(\rightarrow\) \( \phi \) = Flux per pole (Wb)



1. Changing Field Current \(\implies \) changing Flux \( \phi \)):


\(\rightarrow\) \( N \propto \frac{1}{\phi} \), decreasing the flux (reducing field current) increases speed, and increasing flux reduces speed.



2. Changing Supply Voltage \( V \):

\(\rightarrow\) Speed \( N \) is directly proportional to the supply voltage \( V \) (neglecting \( I_a R_a \) for small \( R_a \)).

\(\rightarrow\) Increasing \( V \) increases the numerator, increasing speed; decreasing \( V \) decreases speed.



3. Changing Armature Resistance \( R_a \):

\(\rightarrow\) Increasing \( R_a \) increases the voltage drop \( I_a R_a \), thus reducing the effective voltage across the armature and decreasing speed.

\(\rightarrow\) This method is mainly used to control speed under loaded conditions (called armature resistance control method), but it causes power loss due to heating (not efficient).

Q102.Consider following statements:

Assertion: DC series motors are suitable for electric locomotives.

Reason: DC series motors provide high starting torque.

Of these statements:

  1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
  2. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
  3. Assertion is true but Reason is false.
  4. Assertion is false but Reason is true.

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Assertion: DC series motors are suitable for electric locomotives.

True — Their high torque characteristic makes them ideal for traction applications like electric trains.


\(\Rightarrow\) Reason: DC series motors provide high starting torque.

True — Due to \(T \propto I_{a}^{2}\), they deliver high torque at low speed.

\(\therefore\) Reason is the correct explanation for Assertion — The high starting torque is the main reason why DC series motors are used in electric locomotives.

Q103.A separately excited DC generator achieves maximum efficiency when terminal voltage is 220 V and induced EMF is 240 V. If the armature resistance is \(0.25\Omega\), then what will be, stray losses in the generator?

  1. 1000 W
  2. 1600 W
  3. 3200 W
  4. 2000 W

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) For DC generator :
\[
E = V + I_a R_a
\Rightarrow I_a = \frac{E - V}{R_a}
\]

\[\implies
I_a = \frac{240 - 220}{0.25} = \frac{20}{0.25} = 80\ \text{A}
\]

\(\rightarrow\) Variable Losses which equal stray losses at maximum efficiency:

\[
\therefore Stray \: losses = I_a^2 R_a = (80)^2 \times 0.25 = 1600\ \text{W}
\]

Q104.Which three-phase connection in a transformer will produce a phase-difference of \(30^\circ\) between its input and corresponding output line voltages?

  1. Star-star
  2. Delta-delta
  3. Delta-zigzag
  4. Star-delta

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\[
\begin{array}{|c|c|}
\hline
\textbf{Transformer Connection} & \textbf{Phase Shift (Primary to Secondary)} \\
\hline
\text{Star--Star (Y--Y)} & 0^\circ\ (\text{No phase shift}) \\
\hline
\text{Delta--Delta (\(\Delta--\Delta\))} & 0^\circ\ (\text{No phase shift}) \\
\hline
\text{Star--Delta (Y--\(\Delta)\)} & +30^\circ\ (\text{Secondary leads Primary}) \\
\hline
\text{Delta--Star (\(\Delta\)--Y)} & -30^\circ\ (\text{Secondary lags Primary}) \\
\hline
\text{Delta--Zigzag} & \text{Depends on winding configuration} \\
\hline
\end{array}
\]

Q105.A two-winding 200V/100V, 1.0 kVA transformer is reconnected as an auto-transformer of 100V/300V. What will be the rating of auto-transformer?

  1. 1.5 kVA
  2. 3.0 kVA
  3. 2.0 kVA
  4. 1.0 kVA

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(Given\): Two winding transformer: 200 V/100 V, 1000 VA.


\(\therefore\) Rated current in 200 V winding \(I_{ab}= \frac{1000}{200} = 5 A\)


\(\therefore\) Rated current in 100 V winding \(I_{bc}= \frac{1000}{100} = 10 A\)


\(\implies\) Auto-transformer : 100 V/300 V. Consider given figure.




\(\therefore V_h=100+200=300 V, \quad V_l=100 V\)

\(\implies I_{load} = I_{ab}+ I_{bc}=5+10=15 A\)


\(\therefore\) Rating of Auto transformer \(=\frac{V_l \times I_{load}}{1000} = \frac{100 \times 15}{1000}=1.5 kVA\)

Q106.At full load, a transformer can have zero voltage regulation

  1. at lagging power factor load
  2. at unity power factor load
  3. at leading power factor load
  4. in no condition

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Voltage regulation is approximately given by:

\[
\text{Regulation} = I_2 \left( R_{eq} \cos\theta + X_{eq} \sin\theta \right)
\]

\(\implies\) For zero voltage regulation:

\[
R_{eq} \cos\theta + X_{eq} \sin\theta = 0
\]


\[
\cos\theta + \left( \frac{X_{eq}}{R_{eq}} \right) \sin\theta = 0
\]

\[
\Rightarrow \tan\theta = -\frac{R_{eq}}{X_{eq}}
\]

\(\therefore\) This condition is only possible when \( \theta < 0 \) ⇒ leading power factor.

Q107.A small air-gap in a three-phase induction motor helps in

  1. reducing the chances of crawling
  2. increasing the starting torque
  3. reducing the chances of cogging
  4. reducing the magnetizing current

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The magnetizing current \( I_m \) in an induction motor is given by:

\[
I_m \propto \frac{g}{\mu_0 A}
\]

Where:

\(\rightarrow\) \( g \) = air-gap length

\(\rightarrow\) \( \mu_0 \) = permeability of free space

\(\rightarrow\) \( A \) = cross-sectional area of the air-gap



\(\therefore\) If air-gap \( g \) is small, then magnetizing current \( I_m \) is reduced.

Q108.If applied voltage of a small 3-phase induction motor is reduced to half of its rated value, then the starting torque of the motor becomes

  1. half of the initial value
  2. \(1/4^{th}\) of the initial value
  3. 2 times the initial value
  4. 4 times the initial value

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The starting torque \( T_s \) of an induction motor is proportional to the square of the applied voltage:

\[
T_s \propto V^2
\]

\(\rightarrow\) \(T_{old} =V \), and the reduced voltage be \( T_{new}=\frac{V}{2} \).

\[
\frac{T_{\text{new}}}{T_{\text{original}}} = \left( \frac{V/2}{V} \right)^2 = \left( \frac{1}{2} \right)^2 = \frac{1}{4}
\]

Q109.The frequency of rotor EMF of a 3-phase, 60 Hz, 8 pole induction motor is 2 Hz. Its speed of rotation will be

  1. 900 rpm
  2. 870 rpm
  3. 850 rpm
  4. 1000 rpm

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\[
N_s = \frac{120 \times f}{P} = \frac{120 \times 60}{8} = 900 \text{ rpm}
\]

\[\rightarrow
f_r = s \cdot f_s \Rightarrow s = \frac{f_r}{f_s} = \frac{2}{60} = \frac{1}{30}
\]

\[\therefore
N_r = (1 - s) \cdot N_s = \left(1 - \frac{1}{30}\right) \cdot 900 = \frac{29}{30} \cdot 900 = 870 \text{ rpm}
\]

Q110.Which of the following is not a necessary condition for synchronizing an incoming alternator to an already operating alternator?

  1. Same voltage magnitude
  2. Same frequency
  3. Same phase sequence
  4. Same prime mover speed

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) To synchronize an incoming alternator, the three essential conditions are:


1. Same Voltage Magnitude:
\[
|V_{\text{incoming}}| = |V_{\text{bus}}|
\]

2. Same Frequency:
\[
f_{\text{incoming}} = f_{\text{bus}}
\]

3. Same Phase Sequence: R-Y-B with R-Y-B.



\(\therefore\) Above are mandatory for proper synchronization.



\(\Rightarrow\) Same Prime Mover Speed is not a necessary condition.

\(\rightarrow\) Speed affects frequency, but if the frequency is already matched, the exact speed match is not required.

\(\rightarrow\) The speed will adjust slightly based on load once synchronized.

Q111.Which of the following method can be used to control the reactive power output of a synchronous generator?

  1. Changing the prime mover input
  2. Changing the excitation
  3. Changing the direction of rotation
  4. Changing the rotor speed

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The reactive power (\(Q\)) output of a synchronous generator depends primarily on the excitation level, i.e., the DC field current.


\(\rightarrow\) For a synchronous generator connected to an infinite bus:


\[
Q \propto (E - V)
\]

Where:

\(\rightarrow\) \(E\) = Internal generated EMF (depends on excitation)

\(\rightarrow\) \(V\) = Terminal voltage (constant for infinite bus)


\(\implies\) If excitation increases, \(E > V\), generator supplies reactive power (over-excited).

\(\implies\) If excitation decreases, \(E < V\), generator absorbs reactive power (under-excited).

Q112.Consider the following statements:

EMF induced per phase in an alternator depends on

1. Frequency

2. Number of turns per phase

3. Pitch factor

4. Distribution factor

Select the correct option:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

The rms value of induced EMF per phase:

\[
E = 4.44 \, f \, N \, \Phi \, K_p \, K_d
\]

Where:

\(\rightarrow\) \(f\) = Frequency

\(\rightarrow\) \(N\) = Number of turns per phase

\(\rightarrow\) \(\Phi\) = Flux per pole

\(\rightarrow\) \(K_p\) = Pitch factor

\(\rightarrow\) \(K_d\) = Distribution factor

Q113.In a rotating electromechanical machine, the torque developed depends on

  1. Stator field strength and torque angle.
  2. Stator field, rotor field strengths and torque angle.
  3. Stator field and rotor field strengths.
  4. Rotor field strength and torque angle.

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) In rotating electromechanical machines (such as synchronous machines), the developed electromagnetic torque is given by:

\[
T \propto E_f \cdot V \cdot \sin \delta \propto |\mathbf{F}_{\text{stator}}| \cdot |\mathbf{F}_{\text{rotor}}| \cdot \sin(\delta)
\]

Where:

\(\rightarrow\) \( |\mathbf{F}_{\text{stator}}| \) = Strength of stator magnetic field

\(\rightarrow\) \( |\mathbf{F}_{\text{rotor}}| \) = Strength of rotor magnetic field

\(\rightarrow\) \( \delta \) = Torque angle (angle between stator and rotor fields)

Q114.Consider the following statements:

Assertion: Single-phase induction motor is not self-starting.

Reason: Net rotating magnetic field produced by single-phase winding at standstill is zero.

Of these statements:

  1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
  2. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  4. Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) At standstill, a single-phase induction motor produces a pulsating magnetic field, not a rotating one.

\(\rightarrow\) This pulsating field can be mathematically resolved into two equal and opposite rotating magnetic fields, but these do not produce net starting torque.


\(\therefore\) The motor does not start on its own — Assertion is true.

\(\therefore\) The net rotating magnetic field is not zero, rather it’s the torque that is zero due to equal and opposite effects — Reason is false.

Q115.A 220 V. 6-pole, 50 Hz. single-phase induction motor runs at 950 rpm. Its slip with respect. to backward rotating field will be

  1. 0.05
  2. 0.95
  3. 1.95
  4. 1.05

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\[
N_s = \frac{120 \times f}{P} = \frac{120 \times 50}{6} = 1000\ \text{rpm}
\]

\(\therefore\) Slip with respect to backward rotating field:
\[
s_b = \frac{N_s + N_r}{N_s} = \frac{1000 + 950}{1000} = \frac{1950}{1000} = 1.95
\]

Q116.A Coil having 1000 turns is wound on a core. The flow of 1 A current through the coil produces 1 m Wb flux in the core. What will be the energy stored in the magnetic field?

  1. 0.5 J
  2. 0.25 J
  3. 1.0 J
  4. 2.0 J

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Energy stored in magnetic field:
\[
W = \frac{1}{2} \cdot N \cdot I \cdot \Phi
\]
Where:

\(\rightarrow\) \( W \) = energy stored (Joules)

\(\rightarrow\) \( N \) = number of turns = 1000

\(\rightarrow\) \( I \) = current in amperes = 1 A

\(\rightarrow\) \( \Phi \) = magnetic flux in webers = 1 mWb = \( 1 \times 10^{-3} \) Wb

\[
W = \frac{1}{2} \cdot 1000 \cdot 1 \cdot (1 \times 10^{-3}) = \frac{1}{2} \cdot 1 = 0.5\ \text{J}
\]

Q117.The main advantage of distributing the winding of a synchronous generator in slots is to

  1. Reduce the size of the machine
  2. Add mechanical strength to the winding
  3. Reduce the amount of copper required
  4. Reduce the harmonics in the generated EMF

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Distributing the winding:



\(\rightarrow\) Reduces space harmonics in the generated EMF.


\(\rightarrow\) Makes the waveform more sinusoidal.


\(\rightarrow\) Reduces distortion and harmonics (like 3rd, 5th harmonics), thereby improving EMF quality.

Q118.In a synchronous machine, 'V' curves present the variation of

  1. Armafure current with excitation (field) current
  2. Armature current with maximum power developed
  3. Stalling torque with field current
  4. Field current with maximum torque

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) In synchronous machines (especially synchronous motors), V-curves are plots showing the variation of armature current \( I_a \) with respect to field (excitation) current \( I_f \) at a constant mechanical load.

Q119.In a split-phase motor, the running winding (in comparison to auxiliary winding) should have

  1. High resistance and low inductance
  2. High resistance and high inductance
  3. Low resistance and high inductance
  4. Low resistance and low inductance

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) In a split-phase induction motor, there are two windings:


- Main (Running) winding

- Auxiliary (Starting) winding


\(\rightarrow\) To create phase difference between currents in these windings (for starting torque), their electrical characteristics are designed differently:


\(\rightarrow\) The running winding is designed to be highly inductive with low resistance, so that current lags the voltage significantly.

\(\rightarrow\) The starting (auxiliary) winding is designed to have high resistance and low inductance, so that current is more in-phase with voltage.


\(\therefore\) This phase difference (\( \phi \)) between the two winding currents is necessary for producing a rotating magnetic field at startup.

Q120.Consider the following statements:

Assertion: The no-load current of an induction motor is usually more than that of a transformer of similar rating.

Reason: An induction motor can be considered as a generalized transformer.

Of these statements:

  1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
  2. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  4. Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\mathbf{Assertion}\): The no-load current of an induction motor is usually more than that of a transformer of similar rating.

\(\Rightarrow\) In transformers, the no-load current is very small (\(I_0= 1–3 \% \: \:of \: \:I_{fl}\)).

\(\Rightarrow\) In induction motors, the no-load current is relatively higher (\(I_0= 25–40 \% \: \:of \: \:I_{fl}\)).

This is because the induction motor:

\(\quad \rightarrow\) Has to produce a rotating magnetic field.

\(\quad \rightarrow\) Also has to overcome mechanical losses (like friction and windage) even under no-load conditions.

\(\quad \rightarrow\) Has an air-gap, which increases the magnetizing reactance ⇒ requires more current to magnetize.



\(\mathbf{Reason}\): An induction motor can be considered as a generalized transformer.


\(\rightarrow\) An induction motor can indeed be considered a generalized transformer with a rotating secondary (the rotor).

\(\rightarrow\) The stator acts like the primary, and the rotor acts like the secondary (with slip frequency).



\(\implies\) However, this does not explain the higher no-load current in the induction motor.

Q121.The speed control of a dc shunt motor in both directions can be obtained by

  1. Armature-resistance control method
  2. Ward-Leonard method
  3. Armature voltage control method
  4. Field diverter method

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The Ward-Leonard system is an effective method for precise bidirectional speed control of a DC motor.

\(\rightarrow\) The motor is supplied through a variable-voltage generator.

\(\rightarrow\) By changing the polarity of the armature voltage, we can reverse the direction of rotation.


\[
N \propto \frac{V_a - I_a R_a}{\Phi}
\]
where:

\(\rightarrow\) \( N \) = speed

\(\rightarrow\) \( V_a \) = armature voltage

\(\rightarrow\) \( I_a \) = armature current

\(\rightarrow\) \( R_a \) = armature resistance

\(\rightarrow\) \( \Phi \) = flux (almost constant in shunt motor)



\(\implies\) Advantages of Ward-Leonard Method:

\(\rightarrow\) Smooth speed control from zero to full speed in both directions

\(\rightarrow\) Regenerative braking possible

\(\rightarrow\) High torque at low speeds

Q122.A triangular mmf wave is produced in the air-gap by

  1. Stator of an induction machine
  2. Rotor of a dc machine
  3. Rotor of a synchronous machine
  4. Stator of a dc machine

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The shape of MMF wave in the air gap depends on how the windings are distributed and how the current flows through them.

\(\Rightarrow\) In case of DC Machine Rotor (also called the armature) has concentrated windings placed under poles.

\(\rightarrow\) It produce a non-sinusoidal, often triangular-shaped MMF wave in the air gap.

\(\rightarrow\) Due to uniform armature current and concentrated winding, MMF rises linearly over one pole face and falls linearly over the next.

\(\implies\) The MMF waveform has flat peaks or triangular profile for each pole.

Q123.The per-unit impedance of a power system component is 0.25. If the base kV and base MVA are halved, then the new value of the per-unit impedance will be

  1. 0.125
  2. 0.25
  3. 0.5
  4. 1

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\mathbf{Given}:\)

\(MVA_{base_{new}} = 0.5 \times MVA_{base_{old}}\)

\(kV_{base_{new}} = 0.5 \times kV_{base_{old}}\)


\(\implies X_{pu_{new}} = X_{pu} \times \frac{MVA_{base_{new}}}{MVA_{base_{old}}} \times (\frac{kV_{base_{old}}}{kV_{base_{new}}})^2\)


\(\implies X_{pu_{new}} = j0.25 \times 0.5 \times 4 = j0.5 \: pu \)

Q124.On which cycle does a steam power plant work?

  1. Rankine cycle
  2. Carnot cycle
  3. Otto cycle
  4. Bell-Coleman cycle

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) A steam power plant converts heat energy into mechanical work using steam as the working fluid.

\(\implies\) The most practical and widely used thermodynamic cycle for this process is the Rankine Cycle.

Q125.Match List-1 (Classification of head) with List-II (Type of turbine) in regards to hydropower plants and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists. List-1 List-11 a. Low head, 2-15 ur

  1. a-4,b-3,c-2,d-1
  2. a-1,b-2,c-3,d-4
  3. a-3,b-4,c-1,d-2
  4. a-2,b-1,c-4,d-3

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\quad 1.\) Low head (2-15 m): These low heads are best suited for Kaplan turbines or Propeller turbines. Kaplan turbines are a type of reaction turbine with adjustable runner blades, making them efficient over a range of flows at low heads. Propeller turbines are a fixed-blade version, simpler and often more economical for very low heads and high flows.



\(\quad 2.\) Medium head (15-70 m): Francis turbines are the most common type for medium head ranges. They are reaction turbines with a spiral casing and guide vanes that direct water onto the runner.



\(\quad 3.\) High head (70-500 m): Pelton turbines are impulse turbines ideal for high heads. A jet of water is directed at high speed onto the buckets of the runner.



\(\quad 4.\) Very high head (above 500 m): Similar to high head applications, Pelton turbines are also used for very high heads as they can efficiently extract energy from the high-velocity jet of water created by the large head.

Q126.The region of convergence (ROC) of the z-transform of the signal.

\(x[n]=(\frac{1}{5})^nu[n - 3]\) is

  1. \(|z| > \frac{1}{5}\)
  2. \(|z| < \frac{1}{5}\)
  3. \(|z| > \frac{1}{3}\)
  4. \(|z| < \frac{1}{3}\)

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The signal is right-sided, so the ROC is: \(|z| > \frac{1}{5}\)

Q127.The value of the expression \(\int_ \infty ^ \infty sinc ^ 2\) (mx) dx is

  1. \(m\)
  2. \(\frac{1}{m}\)
  3. \(1\)
  4. \(0\)

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(
\text{Given: } \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \text{sinc}^2(mx) \, dx
\)


\(
\text{Recall that } \text{sinc}(x) = \frac{\sin(\pi x)}{\pi x}
\Rightarrow \text{sinc}(mx) = \frac{\sin(\pi m x)}{\pi m x}
\)


\(
\text{So, } \text{sinc}^2(mx) = \left( \frac{\sin(\pi m x)}{\pi m x} \right)^2
\)


\(
\text{Use the identity: } \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \text{sinc}^2(ax) \, dx = \frac{1}{|a|}
\)


\(
\text{Thus, } \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \text{sinc}^2(mx) \, dx = \frac{1}{m}
\)

Q128.Out of the following systems with input \(x(t)\) and output \(y(t)\), identify the linear system.

  1. \(\frac{d}{dt}y(t) + 3y(t) = x^2(t)\)
  2. \(\frac{d}{dt}y(t) + 2ty(t) = t^2x(t)\)
  3. \(2y(t) + [\frac{d}{dt}y(t)]^2 = 4x(t)\)
  4. \(\frac{d}{dt}y(t) + y^2(t) = x(t)\)

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\textbf{We are given four systems and need to identify the linear one.}\)


\(\textbf{Definition of a linear system:} \text{ A system is linear if it satisfies:}\)

\(\text{- Additivity: } x_1(t) + x_2(t) \rightarrow y_1(t) + y_2(t)\)

\(\text{- Homogeneity: } a x(t) \rightarrow a y(t)\)

\(\text{That means: no powers or nonlinear functions of } y(t), \frac{d}{dt}y(t), \text{ etc.}\)



\(\textbf{Option 1: } \frac{d}{dt}y(t) + 3y(t) = x^2(t)\)

\(\text{Nonlinear in input: } x^2(t) \text{ is a nonlinear function of } x(t) \rightarrow \textcolor{red}{\text{Not linear}}\)



\(\textbf{Option 2: } \frac{d}{dt}y(t) + 2ty(t) = t^2x(t)\)

\(\text{- Coefficients depend on time, but the equation is linear in } y(t) \text{ and } x(t)\)

\(\text{- No powers or products of } y(t) \text{ or its derivatives } \rightarrow \textcolor{green}{\text{Linear}}\)



\(\textbf{Option 3: } 2y(t) + \left(\frac{d}{dt}y(t)\right)^2 = 4x(t)\)

\(\text{Squared derivative term: } \left(\frac{d}{dt}y(t)\right)^2 \rightarrow \textcolor{red}{\text{Nonlinear}}\)



\(\textbf{Option 4: } \frac{d}{dt}y(t) + y^2(t) = x(t)\)

\(\text{Squared output term: } y^2(t) \rightarrow \textcolor{red}{\text{Nonlinear}}\)


\( \textcolor{blue}{\text{The only linear system is:}} \frac{d}{dt}y(t) + 2ty(t) = t^2x(t)\)

Q129.Which of the given signals is periodic?

  1. \(-6 e^{j {\frac{\pi}{7}}n}\)
  2. \(cos(\sqrt2 \pi n + 1.2)\)
  3. \(e^{-(1 + j \frac{\pi}{3} )n}\)
  4. \(sin(0.5n +\frac{\pi}{3})\)

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\textbf{Periodic Signal Condition:}\)

\(\text{A discrete-time signal } x[n] \text{ is periodic if there exists a positive integer } N \text{ such that } x[n+N] = x[n] \text{ for all } n.\)



\(\textbf{Option 1: } x[n] = -6 e^{j \frac{\pi}{7}n} \)

\(\text{This is a complex exponential signal of the form } e^{j \omega n}. \)

\(\text{Such a signal is periodic if } \frac{\omega}{2\pi} \text{ is rational.} \)

\(\omega = \frac{\pi}{7} \Rightarrow \frac{\omega}{2\pi} = \frac{1}{14} \text{ (rational)} \)

\(\Rightarrow \text{Signal is periodic with period } N = 14.\)



\(\textbf{Option 2: } x[n] = \cos(\sqrt{2} \pi n + 1.2) \)

\(\omega = \sqrt{2} \pi \Rightarrow \frac{\omega}{2\pi} = \frac{\sqrt{2}}{2} \text{ (irrational)} \)

\(\Rightarrow \text{Signal is not periodic.}\)



\(\textbf{Option 3: } x[n] = e^{-(1 + j \frac{\pi}{3})n} = e^{-n} \cdot e^{-j \frac{\pi}{3}n} \)

\(\text{The magnitude } e^{-n} \text{ decays exponentially } \Rightarrow \text{Signal is not periodic.} \)



\(\textbf{Option 4: } x[n] = \sin\left(0.5n + \frac{\pi}{3}\right) \)

\(\omega = 0.5 \Rightarrow \frac{\omega}{2\pi} = \frac{1}{4\pi} \text{ (irrational)} \)

\(\Rightarrow \text{Signal is not periodic.} \)



\(\textbf{Final Answer:} \)

\(\text{Only } x[n] = -6 e^{j \frac{\pi}{7}n} \text{ is periodic with period } N = 14\)

Q130.The decimal equivalent of the number \((4310)_5\) with base five as indicated is

  1. 800
  2. 80
  3. 500
  4. 580

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\text{Convert the base-5 number } (4310)_5 \text{ to decimal:}\)


\((4310)_5 = 4 \cdot 5^3 + 3 \cdot 5^2 + 1 \cdot 5^1 + 0 \cdot 5^0\)


\(= 4 \cdot 125 + 3 \cdot 25 + 1 \cdot 5 + 0 \cdot 1\)


\(= 500 + 75 + 5 + 0\)


\(= 580\)

Q131.FPGA is

  1. field-programmable gate array
  2. fast programmable gate array
  3. field-programmable generic array
  4. flash process gate application

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) FPGA stands for Field-Programmable Gate Array, which can be configured after manufacturing. The other options are incorrect expansions of the acronym.

Q132.When the input to an inverter is LOW (0), the output is

  1. HIGH or 0
  2. LOW or 0
  3. HIGH or 1
  4. LOW or 1

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) An inverter's truth table shows output=1 when input=0. This is the fundamental NOT gate operation in digital logic.

Q133.Which one of the following is not a valid rule of Boolean algebra?

  1. \(X + 1 = 1\)
  2. \(X=\overline{X}\)
  3. \(X \cdot X = X\)
  4. \(X + 0 = X\)

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\text{Option} \: B :
X = \overline{X}
\)


\(\rightarrow\) Not valid in Boolean algebra.

\(\rightarrow\) \(X \ne \overline{X}\) for any \(X \in \{0, 1\}\).

\[
\begin{array}{|c|l|l|l|}
\hline
\textbf{Option} & \textbf{Law} & \textbf{Expression} & \textbf{Description} \\
\hline
\text{A} & \text{OR Identity} & X + 1 = 1 & \text{OR with 1 gives 1} \\
\text{C} & \text{Idempotent} & X \cdot X = X & \text{AND with itself gives } X \\
\text{D} & \text{OR Identity} & X + 0 = X & \text{OR with 0 gives } X \\
\hline
\end{array}
\]

Q134.VHDL is a type of

  1. programmable logic
  2. programmable array
  3. logical mathematics
  4. hardware description language

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) VHDL (VHSIC Hardware Description Language) is used to model digital systems, not a type of programmable logic or array.

Q135.Given the following statements

Statement 1: Addition in Boolean algebra is equivalent to the NOR function.

Statement 2: "The complement of a product of variables is equal to the sum of the complements of each variable" is a statement of DeMorgan's theorem.

Choose the correct option for the above statements"

  1. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
  2. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
  3. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are true

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Boolean addition represents OR (not NOR), making Statement 1 false. DeMorgan's theorem correctly states \(\overline{A \cdot B}=\overline{A}+\overline{B}\), so Statement 2 is true.

Q136.In general, a multiplexer has

  1. one data input, several data outputs and selection inputs
  2. one data input, one data output and one selection input
  3. several data inputs, several data outputs and selection inputs
  4. several data inputs, one data output and selection inputs

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) A multiplexer has N input lines, 1 output line, and \(\log_2 N\) select lines. It routes one input to the output based on the select lines.

Q137.Which of the following codes exhibit even parity?

  1. 10011000
  2. 11111111
  3. 11010101
  4. 11111101

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\textbf{Check each code for even parity:}\)


\(\text{1. } 10011000 \Rightarrow \text{Number of 1s} = 3 \Rightarrow \text{Odd parity}\)


\(\text{2. } 11111111 \Rightarrow \text{Number of 1s} = 8 \Rightarrow \text{Even parity ✅}\)


\(\text{3. } 11010101 \Rightarrow \text{Number of 1s} = 5 \Rightarrow \text{Odd parity}\)


\(\text{4. } 11111101 \Rightarrow \text{Number of 1s} = 7 \Rightarrow \text{Odd parity}\)

Q138.Given the following statements:

Statement 1: A latch has one stable state.

Statement 2: A latch is considered to be in the RESET state when the Q output is low.

Choose the correct option for the above statements

  1. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
  2. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
  3. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are true

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Latches are bistable (two stable states), so Statement 1 is false. When Q=0, it's indeed the RESET state, making Statement 2 true.

Q139.The purpose of the clock input to a flip-flop is to

  1. clear the device
  2. set the device
  3. always cause the output to change states
  4. cause the output to assume a state dependent on the controlling (J-K or D) inputs

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The clock synchronizes state changes. The output depends on control inputs (D or J-K) at the clock edge.

Q140.For an edge-triggered D flip-flop,

  1. a change in the state of the flip-flop can occur only at a clock pulse edge
  2. the state that the flip-flop goes to depend on the D input
  3. the output follows the input at each clock pulse
  4. all of the above

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Edge-triggered D flip-flops: 1) Change only at clock edges 2) Output equals D input 3) Follow input synchronously. All statements are correct.

Q141.The output pulse width of a nonretriggerable one-shot depends on

  1. the trigger intervals
  2. a resistor and capacitor
  3. the supply voltage
  4. the threshold voltage

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\textbf{One-Shot Multivibrator (Monostable Multivibrator):}\)


\(\text{A nonretriggerable one-shot generates a single output pulse of fixed duration in response to a trigger input.}\)



\(\textbf{Key Property:}\)

\(\text{In a nonretriggerable one-shot, once triggered, it ignores further inputs until the pulse ends.}\)



\(\textbf{Pulse Width Formula:}\)

\(\text{Pulse width } (T) \propto R \cdot C\)

\(\text{Where } R \text{ is resistance and } C \text{ is capacitance.}\)

Q142.Given the following statements:

Statement 1: The modulus of an 8-bit Johnson counter is eight.

Statement 2: A ring counter uses one flip-flop for each state in its sequence.

Choose the correct option for the above statements

  1. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
  2. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
  3. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are true

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) An 8-bit Johnson counter has 16 states (modulus 16), not 8. Ring counters do use one flip-flop per state in their sequence.

Q143.The group of bits 10110101 is serially shifted (right-most bit first) into an 8-bit parallel output shift register with an initial state of 11100100. After two clock pulses, the register contains

  1. \(\text{01011110}\)
  2. \(\text{10110101}\)
  3. \(\text{01111001}\)
  4. \(\text{00101101}\)

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\textbf{Initial state: } 11100100\)

\(\textbf{Incoming bits (LSB first from } 10110101): 1, 0, 1, 0, 1, 1, 0, 1\)



\(\textbf{After 1st clock: Insert 1 at MSB → Shift right}\)

\(1\ 1\ 1\ 1\ 0\ 0\ 1\ 0\)


\(\textbf{After 2nd clock: Insert 0 at MSB → Shift right}\)

\(0\ 1\ 1\ 1\ 1\ 0\ 0\ 1\)

Q144.The output of a Mealy machine depends on its

  1. inputs
  2. next state
  3. present state
  4. Both (A) and (C)

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Mealy machines differ from Moore machines by having outputs depend on both the current state AND inputs, making the system more responsive.

Q145.A decade counter with a count of zero (0000) through nine (1001) is known as

  1. an ASCII counter
  2. a binary counter
  3. a BCD counter
  4. a decimal counter.

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\textbf{A decade counter counts from } 0000 \text{ (0) to } 1001 \text{ (9) in binary.}\)

\(\text{This represents decimal digits 0 to 9 in 4-bit binary-coded form.}\)

Q146.A PAL is a logic device which is

  1. a one-time programmable
  2. an erasable programmable
  3. electronically-erasable and programmable
  4. Both (A) and (B)

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) A PAL (Programmable Array Logic) is a type of digital logic device used to implement combinational logic circuits.

\(\Rightarrow\) It is One-time programmable (OTP): Once programmed using a special device programmer, the internal fuse links are blown (or connections are permanently made), and the configuration cannot be changed.

\(\Rightarrow\) Unlike EEPROMs or Flash-based devices, PALs cannot be erased or reprogrammed after initial programming.


\(\Rightarrow\) Hence, the correct option is: a one-time programmable

Q147.A ROM is a

  1. nonvolatile memory
  2. volatile memory
  3. read/write memory
  4. byte-organized memory

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\textbf{ROM (Read-Only Memory):}\)

\(\text{Data is permanently written and not lost when power is turned off.}\)

\(\text{Hence, ROM is a type of } \text{nonvolatile memory}.\)



\(\text{It is not volatile, not meant for frequent writing, and may or may not be byte-organized.}\)

Q148.A microcontroller normally has which of the following devices on-chip?

  1. RAM
  2. ROM
  3. I/O
  4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\textbf{Microcontroller:}\)

\(\text{A microcontroller is a compact integrated circuit designed to govern a specific operation in an embedded system.}\)



\(\textbf{It typically includes on-chip:}\)

\(\quad \bullet \text{RAM (for temporary data storage)}\)

\(\quad \bullet \text{ROM (for storing firmware/program)}\)

\(\quad \bullet \text{I/O ports (for interacting with external devices)}\)

Q149.Given the following statements:

Statement 1: Assembly language is a high-level language.

Statement 2: Assembler directives are not used by the CPU itself. They are simply a guide to the assembler.

Choose the correct option for the above statements

  1. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
  2. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
  3. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are true

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\textbf{Statement 1: } \text{Assembly language is a high-level language} \Rightarrow \textbf{False}\)

\(\text{Assembly language is a low-level language, closely tied to machine code instructions.}\)



\(\textbf{Statement 2: } \text{Assembler directives are not used by the CPU itself} \Rightarrow \textbf{True}\)

\(\text{Directives like ORG, END, EQU guide the assembler and are not converted into machine code.}\)



\(\text{Thus, the correct option is } \text{Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true}.\)

Q150.For the given code

MOV A, #0C2H

ADD A, #3DH

The value of CY and AC flag bits is

  1. CY = 0 AC = 0
  2. CY = 0 AC = 1
  3. CY = 1 AC = 1
  4. CY = 1 AC = 0

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Adding C2H (194) + 3DH (61) = FFH (255) doesn't set carry (CY=0) as it doesn't exceed 8 bits. Also no auxiliary carry (AC=0) between nibbles (From third bit to forth bit).

Q151.The daily energy produced by a power generating station is 720 MWh at a load factor of 0.6. What is the maximum demand of the station?

  1. 50 MW
  2. 72 MW
  3. 30 MW
  4. 720 MW

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

Given:

\(\rightarrow\) Daily Energy Produced = 720 MWh

\(\rightarrow\) Load Factor = 0.6

\[
\text{Load Factor} = \frac{\text{Average Load}}{\text{Maximum Demand}}
\]

\[
\text{Average Load} = \frac{\text{Total Energy (in MWh)}}{\text{Total Time (in h)}}
\]

\[\implies
\text{Average Load} = \frac{720 \text{ MWh}}{24 \text{ h}} = 30 \text{ MW} \quad(\because Daily Energy)
\]
\[\therefore
\text{Load Factor} = \frac{30}{\text{Maximum Demand}} = 0.6
\]
\[\implies
\text{Maximum Demand} = \frac{30}{0.6} = 50 \text{ MW}
\]

Q152.In an interconnected power system, the most suitable power plant to use in the peak load conditions is

  1. Nuclear
  2. Steam
  3. Hydel
  4. Pumped storage

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The pumped storage power plant is most suitable during peak load conditions due to:


\(\rightarrow\) Fast ramp-up and ramp-down time


\(\rightarrow\) Ability to store off-peak energy


\(\rightarrow\) Quick response to sudden demand changes

Q153.If all the sequence voltages at the fault point in a power system are equal, then the type of fault is

  1. Three-phase fault
  2. Line-to-ground fault
  3. Double line-to-ground fault
  4. Line-to-line fault

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) When all three sequence voltages (positive \(V_1\), negative \(V_2\), and zero \(V_0\)) are equal at the fault point, it implies:
\[
V_1 = V_2 = V_0
\]
\(\implies\) This occurs only in a balanced three-phase fault, where all phases are equally affected, causing the three sequence voltages to be identical.

Q154.Consider following statements:

Assertion: When a line-to-line (L-L) fault takes place at the terminals of an open-circuited generator, the phase voltages are sometimes indeterminate though line voltages are always determinable.

Reason: During L-L fault, a zero-sequence voltage is always indeterminate.

Of these statements:

  1. Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
  2. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
  3. Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
  4. Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow Assertion:\) When a line-to-line (L–L) fault occurs at the terminals of an open-circuited generator, the phase voltages are sometimes indeterminate, though line voltages are always determinable.

\(\rightarrow\) In a line-to-line (L–L) fault, two phases (say Y and B) are short-circuited, while phase R remains open and unloaded.

\(\rightarrow\) For an open-circuited generator, there's no load on the terminals — meaning no current flows through the unfaulted phase.

\(\rightarrow\) In such a case:

\(\rightarrow\) The line-to-line voltages (e.g., \( V_{YB} \)) involved in the fault are governed by the fault condition and are determinable.

\(\rightarrow\) However, phase voltages (especially of the unfaulted phase, like \( V_R \)) may become indeterminate, because there's no current path and no reference for load — this leads to undefined or floating voltages.



\(\therefore\) Assertion is True.



\(\Rightarrow Reason:\) During an L–L fault, a zero-sequence voltage is always indeterminate.


\(\rightarrow\) During an L–L fault, only positive sequence \( V_1 \) and negative sequence \( V_2 \) components are involved.

\(\rightarrow\) Since the fault does not involve ground, no zero-sequence current flows, and zero-sequence voltage is not excited.



\(\therefore\) Reason is False.

Q155.How many relays are required to detect inter-phase fault of a three-line system?

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Six
  4. Three

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) There are 3 unique phase-to-phase fault combinations: R–Y, Y–B, B–R

\(\implies\) Each of these phase pairs requires a dedicated relay to detect faults between them. This is because each relay monitors the current or voltage between a specific pair of phases and operates when the threshold is exceeded due to a fault.

\(\therefore\) To detect all possible inter-phase faults, \(3\) relays are needed.

Q156.On what basis is the insulation level of a 400 kV EHV overhead transmission line is decided?

  1. Lightning overvoltage
  2. Corona inception voltage
  3. Maximum steady state voltage
  4. Switching overvoltage

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) For EHV systems, switching overvoltages become more dominant than lightning surges in deciding insulation levels because:


\(\quad 1.\) Switching surges have higher energy and longer duration than lightning surges.


\(\quad 2.\) Insulation must be able to withstand these long-duration high-voltage transients without failure.



\(\therefore\) 400 kV transmission line, the insulation level is selected based on switching overvoltages, not lightning or corona inception voltage.

Q157.An overhead transmission line has inductance of 0.9 mH/km and capacitance of 10 nF/km. The surge impedance of the line will be

  1. \(100\Omega\)
  2. \(300\Omega\)
  3. \(400\Omega\)
  4. \(200\Omega\)

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The surge impedance (characteristic impedance):

\[
Z_0 = \sqrt{\frac{L}{C}}
\]
\[
Z_0 = \sqrt{\frac{0.9 \times 10^{-3}}{10 \times 10^{-9}}}
= \sqrt{\frac{0.9}{10} \times 10^{6}}
= \sqrt{0.09 \times 10^6}
= 300 \, \Omega
\]

Q158.Why is a ring distribution system preferred to a radial system?

1. Voltage drop in the feeder is less in ring distribution system

2. Power factor is higher in ring distribution system

3. Supply is more reliable in ring distribution system

Select the correct option:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 2 and 3

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) In a radial distribution system, power flows in one direction only—from source to load. If a fault occurs on the feeder, all the downstream loads lose power. Also, voltage drop increases along the length of the feeder.


\(\Rightarrow\) In a ring distribution system, the feeder forms a closed loop. Power can reach a load from two directions. This has the following advantages:


\(\rightarrow\) Voltage drop is reduced since load current is shared between two paths.
This improves voltage regulation.


\(\rightarrow\) Supply is more reliable, because in case of a fault, power can still reach loads from the alternate path.


\(\Rightarrow\) The power factor mainly depends on the nature of the load, and not directly on the system configuration. Ring systems do not inherently improve power factor unless additional measures like capacitor banks are used.

Q159.The incremental costs of two generators supplying total load of 200 MW are \(\frac{dF_A}{ dF_A }=2.0+0.01 P_A\) and \(\frac{dF_B}{ dF_B }=1.6+0.02 P_B\)

For economical operation, the generator outputs \(P_A, P_B\) should be _____________ respectively.

  1. 100 MW and 100 MW
  2. 50 MW and 150 MW
  3. 80 MW and 120 MW
  4. 120 MW and 80 MW

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) For most economic operation, \(IC_1 = IC_2\)


\(\implies 2 + 0.01 P_1 = 1.6 + 0.02 P_2\)


\(\implies 0.01 P_1 - 0.02 P_2 = -0.4\)


\(\implies P_1 - 2P_2 = -40 \: MW \quad ..(i)\)


\(Given, P_1+P_2 = 200 \: MW \quad..(ii)\)


From equation (i) & (ii)


\(\therefore P_1 = 120 \: MW, P_2 = 80 \: MW\)

Q160.The main objective of load frequency control is to regulate

  1. Frequency alone
  2. Frequency and real power exchange
  3. Frequency and reactive power exchange
  4. Frequency and bus voltages

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Load Frequency Control (LFC), also called automatic generation control (AGC), is a key function in power systems to maintain the system frequency and balance real power generation with demand.

Q161.Match List-I (Equipment) with List-II (Application) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I

a. Metal oxide arrester


b. Isolator


c. Auto-recloser


d. Differential relay


List-II

1. Protects generator against short circuit faults


2. Improves transient stability


3. Allows circuit breaker maintenance


4. Provides protection against surges

  1. a-4,b-3,c-2,d-1
  2. a-3,b-4,c-1,d-2
  3. a-4,b-3,c-1,d-2
  4. a-2,b-1,c-4,d-3

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) a. Metal oxide arrester → 4. Provides protection against surges

\(\rightarrow\) Metal oxide arresters are used to protect power system equipment from overvoltages due to lightning or switching surges.

\(\rightarrow\) They are placed between the equipment and ground.

\(\implies\) Function: Surge protection.



\(\Rightarrow\) b. Isolator → 3. Allows circuit breaker maintenance

\(\rightarrow\) Isolators are mechanical switches used to ensure a circuit is completely de-energized for maintenance.

\(\rightarrow\) They are not designed to operate under load but used after circuit breakers are opened.

\(\implies\) Function: Safe disconnection.



\(\Rightarrow\) c. Auto-recloser → 2. Improves transient stability

\(\rightarrow\) An auto-recloser automatically closes a circuit after it has been opened due to a transient fault (like lightning).

\(\rightarrow\) This quick reclosing helps maintain system stability.

\(\implies\) Function: Temporary fault clearing & system stability.



\(\Rightarrow\) d. Differential relay → 1. Protects generator against short circuit faults

\(\rightarrow\) Differential protection compares current entering and leaving the protected zone.

\(\rightarrow\) If difference exceeds threshold, it indicates internal fault (e.g., short circuit).

\(\rightarrow\) Widely used for generators, transformers, and busbars.


\(\implies\) Function: Internal fault protection.

Q162.Which of the following circuit breakers has the lowest levels of operating voltage?

  1. \(SF_6\), circuit breaker
  2. Air-blast circuit breaker
  3. Tank type oil circuit breaker
  4. Air-break circuit breaker

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Among all options, the air-break circuit breaker is typically used for the lowest voltage levels in distribution networks and low-voltage industrial systems.

Q163.The line currents of a 3-phase power supply are

\(\overline{I_R}=3+j5 A, \overline{I_Y}=2+j2 A, \overline{I_B}=-2-j1 A\)

The zero sequence current will be:

  1. \(1+ j2 A\)
  2. \(3+j6 A\)
  3. \(1+ j4 A\)
  4. \(-1-j2 A\)

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\[
I_0 = \frac{1}{3}(I_R + I_Y + I_B)
\]

Where:

\(\rightarrow\) \(I_R = 3 + j5\) A

\(\rightarrow\) \(I_Y = 2 + j2\) A

\(\rightarrow\) \(I_B = -2 - j1\) A

\[\implies
I_0 = \frac{1}{3}[(3 + j5) + (2 + j2) + (-2 - j1)]
\]
\[\implies
I_0 = \frac{1}{3}(3 + j6) = 1 + j2 \text{ A}
\]

Q164.The use of high-speed circuit breakers is

  1. Reduces the short-circuit current
  2. Improves the system stability
  3. Deteriorates the system stability
  4. Increases the short-circuit current

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) High-speed circuit breakers quickly isolate faults in a power system, reducing disturbance and improving transient stability. They don’t change the short-circuit current level but help clear it faster to maintain system synchronization.

Q165.The rate of rise of restriking voltage (RRRV) is dependent on

  1. The resistance of the system only
  2. The inductance of the system only
  3. The capacitance of the system only
  4. The inductance and capacitance of the system

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

Rate of rise of restriking voltage:
\[
RRRV \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{LC}}
\]

Q166.Which of the following is not an advantage of HVDC transmission?

  1. No line charging current
  2. No skin effect
  3. No stability problem
  4. Cheap cost of equipment (converters)

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) HVDC transmission advantages:

\(\rightarrow\) No line charging current

\(\rightarrow\) No skin effect

\(\rightarrow\) No stability issues



\(\Rightarrow\) Converter stations, which are required for AC to DC and DC to AC conversion in HVDC systems, are expensive and involve complex control and filtering systems.


\(\therefore\) Cheap equipment cost is not an advantage.

Q167.In a power flow study of a big power system, the \(Y_{bus}\) matrix is

  1. Null matrix
  2. Sparse matrix
  3. Full matrix
  4. Unity matrix

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) In large power systems, each bus connects to only a few others, so most elements in the \(Y_{bus}\) matrix are zero. This makes it a sparse matrix, which simplifies power flow calculations.

Q168.Objective of energy management and audit in a business enterprise includes which of the following?

1. Minimizing cost of energy consumption

2. Minimizing the waste of energy

3. Scaling harmful impacts of pollution on health

4. Minimizing environmental degradation

Select the correct option:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Energy management and audit focus on optimizing energy use in a business, which includes:



\(\rightarrow\) Minimizing the cost of energy consumption: Energy audits help identify areas where energy consumption can be reduced, leading to cost savings.


\(\rightarrow\) Minimizing the waste of energy: Efficient use of energy reduces wastage and improves overall energy efficiency.


\(\rightarrow\) Scaling harmful impacts of pollution on health: By reducing energy waste, businesses can lower the environmental and health impacts associated with energy generation and consumption.


\(\rightarrow\) Minimizing environmental degradation: Energy management also focuses on reducing the carbon footprint and environmental degradation.



\(\therefore\) All four objectives are part of energy management and audit in a business enterprise.

Q169.As per CoP26 (26th United Nations Climate Change Conference) held in Gasglow, 2021, how much % of cumulative installed capacity from non-fossil energy sources, India has committed to achieve by 2030?

  1. 30%
  2. 40%
  3. 50%
  4. 60%

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) At the \(26^{th}\) United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP26) held in Glasgow in 2021, India committed to achieving \(50 \%\) of its cumulative electric power installed capacity from non-fossil fuel-based energy sources by 2030.

Q170.Currently (April 2025), how much % of total annual electricity generation in India is contributed by renewable sources (excluding hydropower)?

  1. 12-17%
  2. 32-40%
  3. 4-6%
  4. 54-60%

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) India’s Power Generation Capacity (as of March 31, 2025):

\(\rightarrow\) India's total installed power generation capacity has reached 475.21 GW.

\(\rightarrow\) Contribution from renewable energy : 209.45 GW as of December 2024 :


\(\quad \rightarrow\) Solar Power : 92.12 GW

\(\quad \rightarrow\) Wind Energy : 47.72 GW

\(\quad \rightarrow\) Large Hydro : 46.93 GW

\(\quad \rightarrow\) Small Hydro : 5.07 GW

\(\quad \rightarrow\) Biomass/Biogas : 11.32 GW

Q171.When the rate of electrical energy is charged on the basis of maximum demand of the consumer and the units consumed, it is called a

  1. Block-rate tariff
  2. Flat-rate tariff
  3. Simple tariff
  4. Two-part tariff

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) In a two-part tariff, the consumer is charged in two parts:

1. Fixed charge based on the maximum demand (the highest power requirement).

2. Variable charge based on the actual units of electricity consumed.


\(\implies\) This system helps in billing based on both the peak demand and the total consumption of electricity.

Q172.Minimum standard of efficiency of split air conditioner upto 10 kWr cooling capacity in a ECBC building is

  1. BEE 3 star
  2. BEE 4 star
  3. BEE 5 star
  4. BEE 2 star

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The Energy Conservation Building Code (ECBC) sets standards for energy efficiency in buildings.

\(\rightarrow\) For split air conditioners up to a cooling capacity of 10 kW, the minimum required efficiency standard is BEE 3 star.

\(\rightarrow\) The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) assigns star ratings to air conditioners based on their energy performance, with higher stars indicating better energy efficiency.

Q173.Which year's electricity Act aimed to bring revolution in India's power sector, ensuring efficient and environmentally benign policies?

  1. 2001
  2. 2003
  3. 2000
  4. 2002

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The Electricity Act, 2003 aimed to bring a revolution in India's power sector by promoting competition, improving efficiency, and ensuring environmentally friendly policies. It was a significant step towards restructuring the electricity sector, enhancing the role of renewable energy, and ensuring better distribution and supply of electricity.

Q174.Which of the following statement is correct?

  1. Efficiency of LED bulb is greater than efficiency of CFL bulb
  2. Efficiency of CFL bulb is greater than efficiency of LED bulb
  3. Efficiency of incandescent bulb is greater than efficiency of CFL bulb
  4. None of these

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) LED bulbs are more energy-efficient compared to CFL bulbs. This is because LEDs convert a higher percentage of electrical energy into light, with much less energy wasted as heat.


\(\Rightarrow\) CFL bulbs are more efficient than incandescent bulbs, but they are less efficient than LEDs in terms of energy conversion and light output.

Q175.Which chapter of Gujarat Electricity (Reorganization and Regulation) Act, 2003 deals with licensing of transmission and supply of electricity?

  1. Chapter-4
  2. Chapter-5
  3. Chapter-6
  4. Chapter-7

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The Gujarat Electricity (Reorganization and Regulation) Act, 2003 provides the legal framework for electricity regulation in Gujarat.


\(\Rightarrow\) Chapter-5 specifically deals with the licensing of transmission and supply of electricity. This chapter outlines the provisions related to the licensing process for transmission and distribution companies and the regulation of the supply of electricity to consumers.

Q176.Given vectors \(A = a_x + 3a_z\), and \(B=5a_x+2a_y-6a_z\), the value of \(|A + B|\) will be

  1. 6
  2. 7
  3. 25
  4. 49

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

Given vectors:

\( A = a_x + 3a_z \)

\( B = 5a_x + 2a_y - 6a_z \)
\[\rightarrow
A + B = (a_x + 3a_z) + (5a_x + 2a_y - 6a_z)
\]

\[\implies
A + B = 6a_x + 2a_y - 3a_z
\]

The magnitude of a vector \( \vec{V} = x\hat{i} + y\hat{j} + z\hat{k} \) is given by:

\[
|\vec{V}| = \sqrt{x^2 + y^2 + z^2}
\]

For \(A + B = 6a_x + 2a_y - 3a_z\), the magnitude is:

\[\therefore
|A + B| = \sqrt{(6)^2 + (2)^2 + (-3)^2}
\]
\[\implies
|A + B| = \sqrt{36 + 4 + 9}=\sqrt{49}=7
\]

Q177.Given the following statements

Statement 1: Quantity 'work' is not a vector

Statement 2: Displacement of a mosquito in space is not a scalar field

Choose the correct option for the above statements

  1. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
  2. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
  3. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are true

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 1: Quantity 'work' is not a vector.

Work is defined as the dot product of force and displacement:
\[
W = \vec{F} \cdot \vec{d}
\]
\(\rightarrow\) A dot product results in a scalar quantity, not a vector. Therefore, work is a scalar, not a vector.


\(\therefore\) Statement 1 is true.



\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 2: Displacement of a mosquito in space is not a scalar field.

\(\rightarrow\) Displacement describes both magnitude and direction, so it's a vector quantity.


\(\rightarrow\) A scalar field assigns a scalar value to every point in space (like temperature or pressure).


\(\therefore\) Displacement in space is a vector field, not a scalar field.


\(\therefore\) Statement 2 is also true.

Q178.The intersection of the two surfaces, \(\rho=2\) and \(z = 1\), is

  1. an infinite plane
  2. a circle
  3. a cylinder
  4. a semi-infinite plane.

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

1. Surface 1: \(\rho = 2\)
In cylindrical coordinates, \(\rho = 2\) represents a cylinder of radius 2 centered along the z-axis. This surface includes all points such that:
\[
x^2 + y^2 = 4,\quad \text{for all } z \in (-\infty, \infty)
\]

2. Surface 2: \(z = 1\)
This is a horizontal plane at height \(z = 1\), extending infinitely in the x and y directions.



\(\rightarrow\) Intersection of \(\rho = 2\) and \(z = 1\):

- set of points that lie both on the cylinder \(\rho = 2\) and the plane \(z = 1\).

- It means:
\[
x^2 + y^2 = 4,\quad \text{and}\quad z = 1
\]

\(\therefore\) It defines a circle of radius 2, located at height \(z = 1\).

Q179.A piece of wood is described by \(z=0, 30^\circ<\phi < 60^\circ.\) Given the following statements

Statement 1: The piece of wood includes neither the x-axis nor the y-axis

Statement 2: The piece of wood is infinitely long

Choose the correct option for the above statements

  1. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
  2. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
  3. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 both are true

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

Given:

\(\rightarrow\) \(z = 0 \implies\) This is the xy-plane.

\(\rightarrow\) \(30^\circ < \phi < 60^\circ \implies\) It defines a wedge-shaped region in the xy-plane (between the angles \(30^\circ\) and \(60^\circ\) from the x-axis in polar coordinates).



Statement 1: "The piece of wood includes neither the x-axis nor the y-axis"


\(\rightarrow\) The x-axis corresponds to \(\phi = 0^\circ\) or \(180^\circ\)

\(\rightarrow\) The y-axis corresponds to \(\phi = 90^\circ\) or \(270^\circ\)

\(\rightarrow\) Since the piece is only between \(30^\circ < \phi < 60^\circ\), it excludes both the x-axis and the y-axis.


\(\therefore\) Statement 1 is true.



Statement 2: "The piece of wood is infinitely long"


\(\rightarrow\) The surface is at \(z = 0\) only, meaning it lies strictly in the xy-plane.

\(\rightarrow\) There is no indication of variation along z (no length in z-direction), so it is not infinitely long in any direction.


\(\therefore\) Statement 2 is false.

Q180.Given the following statements

Statement 1: The curl of a vector field is another vector field.

Statement 2: The divergence of the curl of a vector field is zero.

Choose the correct option for the above statements"

  1. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
  2. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
  3. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are true

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 1: The curl of a vector field is another vector field.

\(\rightarrow\) vector field \(F = F(x,y,z)\) then the curl of \(F\) is given by:

$$
\nabla \times \mathbf{F}
$$

\(\implies\) This operation results in another vector field, which represents the rotation at every point in the field.


Example:

Let \(\mathbf{F} = x \hat{i} + y \hat{j} + z \hat{k}\)
Then,

\[
\nabla \times \mathbf{F} = 0 \hat{i} + 0 \hat{j} + 0 \hat{k} = \mathbf{0}
\]

\(\therefore\) Still a vector field — just the zero vector field.


\(\therefore\) Statement 1 is TRUE.




\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 2: The divergence of the curl of a vector field is zero.

$$
\nabla \cdot (\nabla \times \mathbf{F}) = 0
$$

\(\implies\) For any sufficiently smooth vector field \(F\).



\(\therefore\) Statement 2 is also TRUE.

Q181.Point charges \(Q_{1} = 1 \:nC \) and \(Q_{2} = 2\: nC\) are at a distance apart. Given the following statements

Statement 1: As the distance between them decreases, the force on \(Q_1\), increases linearly.

Statement 2: The force on \(Q_2\), is the same in magnifude as that on \(Q_1\).

Choose the correct option for the above statements

  1. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
  2. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
  3. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are true

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

Given:


Charges: \(Q_1 = 1 \, \text{nC}, \quad Q_2 = 2 \, \text{nC}\)

Distance between them: \(r\)


Coulomb’s Law:


\[
F = k \cdot \frac{|Q_1 Q_2|}{r^2}
\]

where:


\(F\): Electrostatic force between charges

\(k\) \(= \frac{1}{4\pi \varepsilon_0} \approx 9 \times 10^9 \, \text{Nm}^2/\text{C}^2\)

\(Q_1, Q_2\): Charges in coulombs

\(r\): Distance between charges




\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 1: As the distance between them decreases, the force on \(Q_1\) increases linearly.


From Coulomb's Law:


\[
F \propto \frac{1}{r^2}
\]
\(\rightarrow\) It means force increases non-linearly (inversely proportional to the square of distance), not linearly.



\(\therefore\) Statement 1 is FALSE.



\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 2: The force on \(Q_2\) is the same in magnitude as that on \(Q_1\).


\(\rightarrow\) Newton’s Third Law applies: For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

\(\rightarrow\) The force that \(Q_1\) exerts on \(Q_2\) is equal in magnitude and opposite in direction to the force that \(Q_2\) exerts on \(Q_1\).



\(\implies\) Both charges experience equal magnitude of force.


\(\therefore\) Statement 2 is TRUE.

Q182.Given the statement, "The electric flux density on a spherical surface \(r=a\) is the same for a point charge Q located at the origin and for charge Q uniformly distributed on surface \(r = b (b < a)\)." Corresponding to this statement, choose the correct option.

  1. 1
  2. Not necessarily true
  3. 0
  4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

Given Statement:


\(\Rightarrow\) The electric flux density on a spherical surface \(r = a\) is the same for a point charge \(Q\) located at the origin and for charge \(Q\) uniformly distributed on surface \(r = b\) (where \(b\) < \(a\)).


\(\rightarrow\) Gauss’s Law:

\[
\Phi_E = \oint_S \mathbf{D} \cdot d\mathbf{A} = Q_{\text{enclosed}}
\]

\(\rightarrow\) \(\mathbf{D}\): Electric flux density vector \((units: C/m^2)\)

\(\rightarrow\) \(d\mathbf{A}\): Differential area vector

\(\rightarrow\) \(Q_{\text{enclosed}}\): Total charge enclosed within the Gaussian surface


\(\Rightarrow\) For spherical symmetry:

\[
|\mathbf{D}| = \frac{Q_{\text{enclosed}}}{4\pi r^2}
\]

\(\Rightarrow\) Case 1: Point charge \(Q\) at the origin


\(\rightarrow\) The charge is entirely enclosed by the spherical surface \(r = a\).

\[
\mathbf{D} = \frac{Q}{4\pi a^2} \hat{r}
\]

\(\Rightarrow\) Case 2: Charge \(Q\) uniformly distributed on spherical shell \(r = b < a\)


\(\rightarrow\) Again, the entire charge \(Q\) lies inside the spherical surface \(r = a\).

\(\rightarrow\) Hence, total charge enclosed is the same: \(Q\).

\[
\mathbf{D} = \frac{Q}{4\pi a^2} \hat{r}
\]

\(\therefore\) In both cases, the electric flux density \(\mathbf{D}\) at \(r = a\) is the same.


\(\therefore\) The given statement is TRUE.

Q183.When we say that the electrostatic field is conservative, we do not mean that

  1. Its curl is identically zero
  2. The work done in a closed path inside the field is zero
  3. The potential difference between any two points is zero
  4. It is the gradient of a scalar potential

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) An electrostatic field is conservative, means:


1. The work done in moving a charge between two points is independent of the path.

2. The line integral around a closed path is zero:


$$
\oint \mathbf{E} \cdot d\mathbf{l} = 0
$$
3. The field can be expressed as the negative gradient of a scalar potential:


$$
\mathbf{E} = -\nabla V
$$
4. Its curl is zero everywhere:


$$
\nabla \times \mathbf{E} = 0
$$



\(\Rightarrow\) Option 1: Its curl is identically zero

\(\rightarrow\) As per vector calculus identity:


$$
\nabla \times \mathbf{E} = 0 \quad \text{(Electrostatics)}
$$

\(\therefore\) Correct.



\(\Rightarrow\) Option 2: The work done in a closed path inside the field is zero.


$$
\oint \mathbf{E} \cdot d\mathbf{l} = 0
$$

\(\therefore\) Correct.




\(\Rightarrow\) Option 3: The potential difference between any two points is zero.

\(\rightarrow\) In a conservative field, potential difference depends only on the position (not path), but it is not necessarily zero unless the two points are the same.

\(\rightarrow\) Between two different points \(A\) and \(B\), potential difference is:

$$
V_{AB} = -\int_A^B \mathbf{E} \cdot d\mathbf{l} \neq 0
$$

\(\therefore\) Incorrect. — a conservative field does not imply zero potential difference between different points.



\(\Rightarrow\) Option 4: It is the gradient of a scalar potential:

$$
\mathbf{E} = -\nabla V
$$

\(\therefore\) Correct.

Q184.For a static magnetic field, the following statements are given

Statement 1: It is solenoidal.

Statement 2: It is conservative.

Choose the correct option for the above statements

  1. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
  2. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
  3. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are true

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 1: It is solenoidal.


\(\rightarrow\) A vector field is solenoidal if its divergence is zero:

$$
\nabla \cdot \mathbf{B} = 0
$$

\(\rightarrow\) This is one of Maxwell’s Equations (Gauss’s Law for Magnetism), and it means:


\(\implies\) Magnetic field lines are closed loops — they don’t begin or end anywhere (no magnetic monopoles).

\(\implies\) For a static magnetic field, this is always true.


\(\therefore\) Statement 1 is TRUE.



\(\Rightarrow\) Statement 2: It is conservative.


\(\rightarrow\) A field is conservative if its curl is zero:


$$
\nabla \times \mathbf{F} = 0
$$

\(\rightarrow\) For a static electric field, this is true. But for a magnetic field, we have another of Maxwell’s Equations (for magnetostatics):



$$
\nabla \times \mathbf{B} = \mu_0 \mathbf{J}
$$

Where:

\(\rightarrow\) \(\mathbf{J}\): current density

\(\rightarrow\) \(\mu_0\): permeability of free space


\(\implies\) Unless \(\mathbf{J} = 0\), the curl of \(\mathbf{B}\) is non-zero — so the magnetic field is not conservative in general.

\(\therefore\) Statement 2 is FALSE.

Q185.Two thin parallel wires carry currents along the same direction. The force experienced by one due to the other is

  1. Zero
  2. Perpendicular to the lines and repulsive
  3. Parallel to the lines
  4. Perpendicular to the lines and attractive

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Magnetic Field Due to a Long Straight Wire:


\(\rightarrow\) The magnetic field produced by wire 1 at the location of wire 2 is:


$$
B_1 = \frac{\mu_0 I_1}{2\pi d}
$$

Where:


\(\rightarrow\) \(\mu_0\): permeability of free space

\(\rightarrow\) \(d\): distance between the wires


\(\Rightarrow\) Force on Wire 2 Due to Magnetic Field of Wire 1:


\(\rightarrow\) A current-carrying wire in a magnetic field experiences a force given by:


$$
\mathbf{F}_{21} = I_2 \, \mathbf{L} \times \mathbf{B}_1
$$

\(\Rightarrow\) Direction of the Force:


\(\rightarrow\) The force is perpendicular to the wires (acts along the line joining them).

\(\rightarrow\) Since the wires are parallel and currents are in the same direction, the force is attractive.



\(\therefore\) The force on one wire due to the other is perpendicular to the lines and attractive.

Q186.Which of the following materials requires the least value of magnetic field strength to magnetize them?

  1. Nickel
  2. Silver
  3. Tungsten
  4. Sodium chloride

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Nickel is ferromagnetic → requires the least magnetic field strength \((H)\) to magnetize.

\(\Rightarrow\) All others are either paramagnetic (Tungsten), diamagnetic (Silver), or non-magnetic \((NaCl)\)

Q187.A loop rotates about the y-axis in a magnetic field \(B= B_0 sin(wt) a_x, Wb/m^2\). The voltage induced in the loop is

  1. Motional emf
  2. Transformer emf
  3. A combination of motional and transformer emf
  4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Electromagnetic induction can occur due to:


1. Transformer EMF: Caused by a time-varying magnetic field.

2. Motional EMF: Caused by movement of the conductor in a magnetic field.



\(\rightarrow\) Faraday's law:


$$
e = -\frac{d\Phi}{dt}
$$

\(\rightarrow\) Where \(\Phi\) is the magnetic flux linked with the loop.



Given:


\(\rightarrow\) The magnetic field is time-varying:


$$
\vec{B}(t) = B_0 \sin(\omega t) \, \hat{a}_x
$$
\(\rightarrow\) The loop is rotating about the y-axis → introduces motion in the magnetic field.



\(\Rightarrow\) 1: Time-varying B field → Transformer EMF


Since \(B = B_0 \sin(\omega t)\), the flux through the loop varies with time:


$$
\Phi = \int \vec{B} \cdot d\vec{A}
\Rightarrow e_{\text{transformer}} = -\frac{d\Phi}{dt}
$$

\(\therefore\) This is transformer EMF due to the changing magnetic field.



\(\Rightarrow\) 2: Loop is rotating → Motional EMF


\(\rightarrow\) When the loop rotates in a magnetic field, there’s motion of conductors, leading to motional EMF:


$$
e_{\text{motional}} = \int (\vec{v} \times \vec{B}) \cdot d\vec{l}
$$

\(\rightarrow\) \(\vec{v}\): tangential velocity of a segment of the loop

\(\rightarrow\) \(\vec{B}\): magnetic field vector


\(\therefore\) The loop is rotating about the y-axis, parts of the loop move in the \(z–x\) plane, and because \(\vec{B}\) is in \(\hat{a}_x\) direction, the cross-product \(\vec{v} \times \vec{B}\) is non-zero, so motional EMF exists.



\(\therefore\) Total Induced EMF:


$$
e_{\text{total}} = e_{\text{transformer}} + e_{\text{motional}}
$$

\(\therefore\) Both types of EMF are present.

Q188.Out of the following, what is the major factor for determining whether a medium is free space, lossless dielectric, lossy dielectric or a good conductor?

  1. Loss tangent
  2. Attenuation constant
  3. Reflection coefficient
  4. Constitutive parameters \((\sigma, \mu,\varepsilon)\)

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) The nature of an electromagnetic medium is governed by three fundamental constitutive parameters:


1. \(\varepsilon\) — Permittivity (how the medium stores electric energy)

2. \(\mu\) — Permeability (how the medium supports magnetic fields)

3. \(\sigma\) — Conductivity (how easily the medium conducts electric current)

Q189.Given the following statements:

Statement 1: A periodic signal cannot be anticausal.

Statement 2: An energy signal must be of finite duration.

Choose the correct option for the above statements"

  1. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
  2. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
  3. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are true

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\textbf{Statement 1: A periodic signal cannot be anticausal}\)

\(\text{A signal is anticausal if it is nonzero only for } t < 0.\)

\(\text{A periodic signal repeats over all time, i.e., both for } t < 0 \text{ and } t > 0.\)

\(\text{Therefore, a periodic signal cannot be confined only to the negative time axis.}\)

\(\implies \text{Statement 1 is true}\)



\(\textbf{Statement 2: An energy signal must be of finite duration}\)

\(\text{Energy of a signal is defined as } E = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} |x(t)|^2 dt.\)

\(\text{The energy can be finite even if the signal exists over infinite duration.}\)

\(\text{Example: } x(t) = \frac{1}{1 + t^2} \text{ is defined over all } t, \text{ but has finite energy.}\)

\(\text{Hence, finite duration is not a requirement for energy signals.}\)

\(\implies \text{Statement 2 is false}\)



\(\Rightarrow \textbf{Final Answer: } \text{Statement 1 is true, but Statement 2 is false}\)

Q190.The value of the expression \([e^{-t} cos(3t-60^\circ)] \delta(t)\) is

  1. \(\frac{3}{2} \delta(t)\)
  2. \(\frac{1}{2} \delta(t)\)
  3. \(\frac{-1}{2} \delta(t)\)
  4. \(\frac{-3}{2} \delta(t)\)

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\textbf{Step 1: Property of Delta Function}\)

\(\delta(t) \text{ "samples" the value of the function at } t = 0\)

\(\Rightarrow f(t)\delta(t) = f(0)\delta(t)\)



\(\textbf{Step 2: Evaluate } f(0)\)

\(f(t) = e^{-t} \cos(3t - 60^\circ)\)

\(f(0) = e^{0} \cdot \cos(3 \cdot 0 - 60^\circ) = 1 \cdot \cos(-60^\circ)\)

\(\cos(-60^\circ) = \cos(60^\circ) = \frac{1}{2}\)



\(\textbf{Step 3: Final expression}\)

\([e^{-t} \cos(3t - 60^\circ)] \delta(t) = \frac{1}{2} \delta(t)\)

Q191.Given the following statements

Statement 1: Convolution of an odd and an even function is an odd function.

Statement 2: Convolution of two odd or two even functions is an even function.

Choose the correct option for the above statements

  1. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
  2. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
  3. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are true

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\textbf{Statement 1: Convolution of an odd and an even function is an odd function}\)

\(\text{Let } f(t) \text{ be even } \Rightarrow f(-t) = f(t)\)

\(\text{Let } g(t) \text{ be odd } \Rightarrow g(-t) = -g(t)\)



\(\text{Then their convolution is: } (f * g)(t) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(\tau) g(t - \tau) d\tau\)

\(\text{Let’s check the symmetry of } (f * g)(-t):\)

\((f * g)(-t) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(\tau) g(-t - \tau) d\tau\)

\(\text{Let } u = -\tau \Rightarrow d\tau = -du\)

\(\Rightarrow (f * g)(-t) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(-u) g(-t + u)(-du)\)

\(\Rightarrow \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} -f(u) g(t - u) du = - (f * g)(t)\)

\(\Rightarrow (f * g)(-t) = - (f * g)(t)\)

\(\text{So, the convolution is odd. Statement 1 is true.}\)



\(\textbf{Statement 2: Convolution of two odd or two even functions is an even function}\)


\(\text{Case 1: Two even functions: } f(-t) = f(t),\ g(-t) = g(t)\)

\(\text{Then } (f * g)(-t) = (f * g)(t)\)

\(\text{So result is even}\)



\(\text{Case 2: Two odd functions: } f(-t) = -f(t),\ g(-t) = -g(t)\)

\((f * g)(-t) = \int f(\tau) g(-t - \tau) d\tau\)

\(\text{Apply variable change as above:}\)

\((f * g)(-t) = \int -f(u) \cdot -g(t - u) du = \int f(u) g(t - u) du = (f * g)(t)\)

\(\text{So, the convolution is even in both cases. Statement 2 is true.}\)



\(\textbf{Final Answer:} \text{Both statements 1 and 2 are true}\)

Q192.If the energy of a signal \(x[n]\) is E, then the energy of the signal \(x[m-n]\), where m is an integer, is

  1. \(E\)
  2. \(-E\)
  3. \(m E\)
  4. \(m^2 E\)

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Shifting a signal does not change its energy.

Q193.The power of the signal \((-1)^n u[n])\) is

  1. \(0\)
  2. \(0.5\)
  3. \(1\)
  4. \(2\)

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\textbf{Step 1: Analyze the signal}\)

\(\text{The given signal is } x[n] = (-1)^n u[n], \text{ where } u[n] \text{ is the unit step function.}\)

\(u[n] = \begin{cases}
1, & \text{if } n \geq 0 \\
0, & \text{if } n < 0
\end{cases}\)

\(\text{Thus, the signal } x[n] = (-1)^n \text{ for } n \geq 0, \text{ and } x[n] = 0 \text{ for } n < 0.\)



\(\textbf{Step 2: Power of the signal}\)

\(\text{The power of a discrete-time signal is given by the average of } |x[n]|^2 \text{ over all values of } n:\)

\(P = \lim\limits_{N \to \infty} \frac{1}{2N+1} \sum_{n=-N}^{N} |x[n]|^2\)

\(\text{Since } x[n] = 0 \text{ for } n < 0, \text{ we can restrict the sum to } n \geq 0:\)

\(P = \lim\limits_{N \to \infty} \frac{1}{2N+1} \sum_{n=0}^{N} |(-1)^n|^2\)

\(\text{Since } |(-1)^n|^2 = 1 \text{ for all } n, \text{ we get:}\)

\(P = \lim\limits_{N \to \infty} \frac{1}{2N+1} \cdot (N+1)\)



\(\textbf{Step 3: Simplify the expression}\)

\(\text{As } N \to \infty, \text{ the expression simplifies to:}\)

\(P = \lim\limits_{N \to \infty} \frac{N+1}{2N+1} = \frac{1}{2}\)

Q194.The Laplace transform of \(y(t)\) is given as \(Y(s) =\frac{ 10(2s+3)}{s(s^2+2s+5)}\) The final value of \(y(t)\) is

  1. \(0\)
  2. \(0.5\)
  3. \(6\)
  4. \(2\)

Correct Ans: C

Solution:

\(\textbf{Step 1: Use the Final Value Theorem}\)

\(\text{The Final Value Theorem states that:}\)

\(\lim_{t \to \infty} y(t) = \lim_{s \to 0} s \cdot Y(s)\)

\(\text{Given: } Y(s) = \frac{10(2s+3)}{s(s^2+2s+5)}\)



\(\textbf{Step 2: Multiply by } s\)

\(\text{We need to find: } \lim_{s \to 0} s \cdot Y(s)\)

\[
s \cdot Y(s) = s \cdot \frac{10(2s+3)}{s(s^2+2s+5)}
\]

\(\text{Simplifying:}\)

\[
s \cdot Y(s) = \frac{10(2s+3)}{s^2 + 2s + 5}
\]



\(\textbf{Step 3: Evaluate the limit as } s \to 0\)

\(\text{Now, substitute } s = 0 \text{ into the expression:}\)

\[
\lim_{s \to 0} \frac{10(2s+3)}{s^2 + 2s + 5} = \frac{10(2(0)+3)}{(0)^2 + 2(0) + 5} = \frac{10(3)}{5} = \frac{30}{5} = 6
\]

Q195.If a signal \(x(t)\) is bandlimited to B Hz, then the signal \(x^n (t)\) will be bandlimited to

  1. B Hz
  2. nB Hz
  3. n/B Hz
  4. B/n Hz

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\Rightarrow\) Raising x(t) to the n-th power expands its bandwidth to nB Hz.

Q196.Given the following statements for LTI systems

Statement 1: The inverse of a causal LTI system is always causal.

Statement 2: If an LTI system is causal, then it is stable.

Choose the correct option for the above statements"

  1. Statement 1 is true, but statement 2 is false
  2. Both statements 1 and 2 are false
  3. Statement 1 is false, but statement 2 is true
  4. Both statements 1 and 2 are true

Correct Ans: B

Solution:

\(\textbf{Step 1: Analyze Statement 1}\)

\(\text{Statement 1: The inverse of a causal LTI system is always causal.}\)

\(\text{This statement is false.}\)

\(\text{For a system to be causal, its output at any time } t \text{ depends only on past and present inputs.}\)

However, the inverse of a causal system may not be causal. Inverse systems are generally not causal unless they satisfy certain conditions.



\(\textbf{Step 2: Analyze Statement 2}\)

\(\text{Statement 2: If an LTI system is causal, then it is stable.}\)

\(\text{This statement is false.}\)

Causality does not imply stability. A system can be causal but unstable. For example, a causal system with an unstable pole in the transfer function could be unstable.

Q197.The Fourier transform \(X(jw)\) of \(x(t) = e^{-2|t-1|}\) is

  1. \(\frac{4e^{-jw}}{4+w^2}\)
  2. \(\frac{e^{-jw}}{4+w^2}\)
  3. \(\frac{4e^{jw}}{4+w^2}\)
  4. \(\frac{e^{jw}}{4+w^2}\)

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\textbf{Step 1: Recognize the structure of the given signal}\)

\(x(t) = e^{-2|t - 1|} \text{ is a shifted even function centered at } t = 1.\)

\(\text{Let } f(t) = e^{-2|t|}, \text{ which is a known even function with a standard Fourier transform.}\)



\(\textbf{Step 2: Recall the Fourier transform of } f(t) = e^{-2|t|}\)

\[
\mathcal{F}\{e^{-a|t|}\} = \frac{2a}{a^2 + \omega^2}, \quad \text{for } a > 0
\]

\(\text{In our case, } a = 2,\) so:

\[
\mathcal{F}\{e^{-2|t|}\} = \frac{4}{4 + \omega^2}
\]



\(\textbf{Step 3: Apply time-shifting property of the Fourier transform}\)

\(\text{If } x(t) = f(t - t_0), \text{ then } X(j\omega) = e^{-j\omega t_0} F(j\omega)\)

\(\text{Here, } x(t) = f(t - 1) = e^{-2|t - 1|} \Rightarrow X(j\omega) = e^{-j\omega} \cdot \frac{4}{4 + \omega^2}\)

Q198.The Nyquist rate for the signal \(x(t) [1 + cos(2000\pi t) + sin(4000\pi t)]\) is

  1. \(4000\)
  2. \(8000\)
  3. \(8000\pi\)
  4. \(4000\pi\)

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\textbf{Step 1: Analyze the signal}\)

\[
x(t) = 1 + \cos(2000\pi t) + \sin(4000\pi t)
\]

\(\text{This is a sum of sinusoids with different frequencies.}\)



\(\textbf{Step 2: Identify the frequencies}\)

\(\text{The cosine term: } \cos(2000\pi t) \Rightarrow f = \frac{2000\pi}{2\pi} = 1000 \text{ Hz}\)

\(\text{The sine term: } \sin(4000\pi t) \Rightarrow f = \frac{4000\pi}{2\pi} = 2000 \text{ Hz}\)



\(\textbf{Step 3: Determine the highest frequency component}\)

\(\text{The highest frequency present in the signal is } 2000 \text{ Hz.}\)



\(\textbf{Step 4: Apply the Nyquist criterion}\)

\(\text{Nyquist rate } = 2 \times (\text{highest frequency}) = 2 \times 2000 = 4000 \text{ Hz}\)

Q199.Let \(x(t)\) be a signal with Nyquist rate \(W_0\), then the Nyquist rate of \(\frac{dx(t)}{dt}\) is

  1. \(W_0\)
  2. \(2W_0\)
  3. \(0\)
  4. \(W_0/2\)

Correct Ans: A

Solution:

\(\textbf{Step 1: Understand the Nyquist rate}\)

\(\text{The Nyquist rate of a signal is twice its maximum frequency component.}\)

\(\text{If } x(t) \text{ has a Nyquist rate } W_0, \text{ then its highest frequency component is } f_{\text{max}} = \frac{W_0}{2}. \)



\(\textbf{Step 2: Apply the Fourier Transform property of differentiation}\)

\(\text{The Fourier transform of } \frac{dx(t)}{dt} \text{ is:}\)

\[
\mathcal{F} \left\{ \frac{dx(t)}{dt} \right\} = j\omega X(j\omega)
\]

\(\text{This means the frequency content remains the same, but each component is scaled by } j\omega. \)


\(\Rightarrow\) Hence, differentiation does not introduce new frequency components beyond those already present in x(t).

Q200.For the Laplace transform of a signal, specified as \(\frac{S^3-1}{S^2+s+1}\) the number of zeros located in the finite s-plane and the number of zeros located at infinity are respectively"

  1. 0 and 0
  2. 0 and 1
  3. 1 and 0
  4. 3 and 0

Correct Ans: D

Solution:

\(\textbf{Step 1: Understand the structure of a rational Laplace Transform}\)

\(\text{A rational Laplace transform is of the form } \frac{N(s)}{D(s)} \text{ where } N(s) \text{ and } D(s) \text{ are polynomials in } s.\)

\(\text{Here, } X(s) = \frac{s^3 - 1}{s^2 + s + 1} \)



\(\textbf{Step 2: Find finite zeros}\)

\(\text{Finite zeros are the roots of the numerator } s^3 - 1 = 0 \)

\[
s^3 = 1 \Rightarrow s = 1, \; s = -\frac{1}{2} \pm j\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}
\]

\(\text{So, there are 3 finite zeros.} \)



\(\textbf{Step 3: Determine zeros at infinity}\)

\(\text{The number of zeros at infinity is equal to: } \max(0, \deg(D(s)) - \deg(N(s))) \)

\(\deg(N(s)) = 3, \quad \deg(D(s)) = 2 \Rightarrow \deg(N) > \deg(D) \Rightarrow \text{No zero at infinity} \)