MGVCL

Q1.The construction cost per kilowatt of an AC generator

1. Same as that of the DC generator
2. Lower than that of the DC generator
3. Higher than that of the DC generator
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q2.A generating station has a plant capacity factor of 50% and average demand is 15 MW, then the installed capacity in MW will be

1. 15
2. 20
3. 30
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q3.Power factor of an AC circuit is given by

1. Resistance/ impedance
2. Real power/ Apparent power
3. KW/KVA
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q4.Which of the following essential features is possessed by an indicating instrument?

1. Deflecting device
2. Controlling device
3. Damping device
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q5.In transmission line:

1. Inductance > capacitance
2. Inductance < capacitance
3. Inductance = capacitance
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q6.1 PW =

1. 10 TW
2. 100 TW
3. 1000 TW
4. None of the given

Correct Ans: C

Q7.The following is not true for microprocessor based relay:

1. Cost is low
2. Quick response
3. Low maintenance
4. Size is large

Correct Ans: D

Q8.The design of electromagnets is based upon

1. Voltage equation
2. Heating equation
3. Magnetic circuit equation
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q9.Electrical charge is measured in___________.

1. Farad
2. Mhos
3. Coulomb
4. Henry

Correct Ans: C

Q10.The following is an unsymmetrical fault in power system

1. Shunt type fault
2. L-G fault
3. L-L fault
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q11.Fuse is used for the following purpose

1. Overload protection
2. Short circuit protection
3. Used up to 66 kV
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q12.MOCB means:

1. Maximum oil circuit breaker
2. Minimum oil circuit breaker
3. Minimum off circuit breaker
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q13.The charging current in the transmission line

1. Lags the voltage by 90˚
2. Leads the voltage by 45˚
3. Leads the voltage by 90˚
4. Leads the voltage by 180˚

Correct Ans: C

Q14.Diversity factor always

1. \(0\)
2. \(< 1\)
3. \(\geq 1\)
4. \(\infty\)

Correct Ans: C

Q15.Which one of the following is measured by the loss of charge method?

1. Low R
2. High R
3. Low L
4. High L

Correct Ans: B

Q16.A Current is alternating current if

1. Direction of current changes with time
2. Magnitude of current remains constant throughout the period
3. Magnitude and direction of current changes with time
4. Magnitude and current changes with time

Correct Ans: C

Q17.The following is/are circuit breaker contact

1. Tulip type
2. Finger and wedge
3. Butt
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q18.The Electricity act ________ is an Act of the Parliament of India enacted to transform the power sector in India.

1. 2000
2. 2001
3. 2002
4. 2003

Correct Ans: D

Q19.The heavy current due to short-circuit causes excessive__________.

1. Heating
2. Vibration
3. Cooling
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q20.A 40 KVA transformer has iron loss of 450 watt and full load copper loss of 850 watt. If the power factor of the load is 0.8 is lagging. The full load efficiency of the transformer in % is

1. 85.2
2. 96.1
3. 78.5
4. 91.2

Correct Ans: B

Q21.A generating station has a maximum demand of 25 MW, a load factor of 60%, then the average demand MW will be

1. 15
2. 20
3. 30
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q22.The price charged for the sale of Electricity from the State Electricity Board is termed as

1. Generation cost
2. Selling cost
3. Unit rate
4. Tariff

Correct Ans: D

Q23.The _________ is typically located close to the load centres.

1. Switchyard at generating station
2. Customer substation
3. System station
4. Distribution station

Correct Ans: D

Q24.Wind can be used

1. To generate electricity
2. Operate flour mills
3. Draw underground water
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q25.The Air Blast Circuit Breaker uses________ for the arc extinction.

1. Compressed air
2. Atmospheric pressure air
3. Water
4. Compressed water

Correct Ans: A

Q26.A 40 W bulb is connected in series with room heater. If now 40W bulb is replaced by 100 W bulb, the heater output will:

1. Decrease
2. Increase
3. Remains same
4. Heater will burn out

Correct Ans: B

Q27.Which of the following is component of biogas?

1. Methane
2. LPG
3. CNG
4. Hydrogen sulphide

Correct Ans: A

Q28.The one thing that is common to all fossil fuels is that they:

1. Where originally formed in Marine environment
2. Contain carbon
3. Have undergone the same set of geological processes during their formation
4. Represent the remains of one living organism

Correct Ans: B

Q29.______ is used for the railway electrification.

1. Air blast circuit breaker
2. \(SF_6\) circuit breaker
3. Bulk oil circuit breaker
4. Minimum oil circuit breaker

Correct Ans: A

Q30.The following test is done at laboratory in front of customer:

1. cc
2. Acceptance test
3. Manufacturer's test
4. All of the given

Correct Ans: B

Q31.An industrial consumer has a connected load of 50 kW. On the average, each machine works for 8 hours a day for 300 working days in a year. The tariff is (Rs. 5000 + Rs. 800 per KW of maximum demand + Rs. 1.15 per KWh of energy consumed) the annual bill of the consumer is:

1. Rs. 2,70,000.00/-
2. Rs. 1,75,000.00/-
3. Rs. 1,35,000.00/-
4. Rs. 2,56,000.00/-

Correct Ans: Correct answer is not matched with above options

Q32.In short circuit test on circuit breaker, the following readings were obtained on single frequency transient: Time to reach the peak restriking voltage is \(50 \mu s\) . Peak restriking voltage is 100KV. The average RRRV is:

1. \(2 \times 10^6 \: KV/sec\)
2. \(4 \times 10^6 \: KV/sec\)
3. \(5.6 \times 10^6 \: KV/sec\)
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q33.For AC power measurement watts =

1. \(volts \times amps \times PF\)
2. \(\frac{volts}{amps } \times PF\)
3. \(volts+amps\)
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q34.Ferranti effect happens in transmission line when the line is

1. long and unloaded
2. long and loaded
3. short and loaded
4. none

Correct Ans: A

Q35.The most dangerous fault in alternator is:

1. Failure of field
2. Stator winding fault
3. Failure of prime mover
4. Unbalanced loading

Correct Ans: B

Q36.The diameter of each strand is "d" then the diameter of n-layer stranded conductor will be:

1. (2n+1)d
2. 3(n+1)d
3. (2n-1)d
4. 3(n-1)d

Correct Ans: C

Q37.A 120V electrical outlet with 4A of current flowing from it has a power value of _________W.

1. 480
2. 48
3. 24
4. 12

Correct Ans: A

Q38.1 coulomb is equivalent to the charge of approximately _______ electrons.

1. \(6.24\times10^{18}\)
2. \(6.24\times10^{10}\)
3. \(6.24\times10^{2}\)
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q39.A 240 V, 60 Hz, 30 Amp electric motor is rated at 6000W. The power factor is________.

1. 83.33%
2. 63.33%
3. 33.33%
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q40.Which one of the following is not the criterion to select potentiometer in a control system?

1. Accuracy
2. Noise
3. Time Response
4. Frequency Response

Correct Ans: B

Q41.The temperature rise of transformer is directly proportional to ____________.

1. Apparent power
2. Reactive power
3. Leakage reactor
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q42.A three phase transmission line operating at 10KV has resistance of 1 Ohm. The percentage resistance of the line at 10,000 KVA base is

1. 20%
2. 10%
3. 5%
4. 40%

Correct Ans: B

Q43.The following material used for fusing element has melting point of \(1084 ^ \circ \: C\):

1. Aluminum
2. Copper
3. Lead
4. Zinc

Correct Ans: B

Q44.Total capacitance of two capacitors of 20 mF connected in parallel will be in:

1. 20 mF
2. 40 mF
3. 60 mF
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q45.What conductors are mostly preferred for modern overhead transmission line?

1. Copper
2. Aluminium conductor Steel reinforced (ACSR)
3. Aluminium
4. Galvanized steel

Correct Ans: B

Q46.The Adjustment of position of shading bands, in an energy meter is done to provide:

1. Friction compensation
2. Creep compensation
3. Braking torque
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q47.The resistance of 100W, 200V lamp is:

1. 100 ohm
2. 200 ohm
3. 300 ohm
4. 400 ohm

Correct Ans: D

Q48.______ is preferred to be installed in in extra High Voltage AC system.

1. Air blast circuit breaker
2. \(SF_6\) circuit breaker
3. Bulk oil circuit breaker
4. Minimum oil circuit breaker

Correct Ans: B

Q49.The output of the solar cell is of the order:

1. 0.5 W
2. 1.0 W
3. 5.0 W
4. 10.25 W

Correct Ans: B

Q50.Total capacitance in case of three capacitors in series is given by

1. \(\frac{1}{C}=\frac{1}{C_1}+\frac{1}{C_2}+\frac{1}{C_3}\)
2. \(\frac{1}{C}=\frac{1}{C_1}-\frac{1}{C_2}-\frac{1}{C_3}\)
3. \(C=C_1\times C_2\times C_3\)
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q51.What happens in a load shedding?

1. System voltage is reduced
2. System frequency is reduced
3. System loads are switched off
4. System power factor is changed

Correct Ans: C

Q52.The following company is incorporated for transmission

1. UGVCL
2. DGVCL
3. PGVCL
4. GETCO

Correct Ans: D

Q53.Iron loss in transformer occurs in:

1. Core
2. Winding
3. Main body
4. Insulating oil

Correct Ans: A

Q54.When a line-to-ground fault occurs, the current in the faulted phase is 100A. The zero-sequence current in this case is

1. 33.3 A
2. zero
3. 66.6 A
4. 100 A

Correct Ans: A

Q55.In a 33 KV overhead line, there are 3-units in the string of insulators. If the string efficiency is 85.8% , then voltage across the disc nearest to the conductor is:

1. 11 KV
2. 7.4 KV
3. 19.05 KV
4. 9.8 KV

Correct Ans: B

Q56.The speed regulation of synchronous motor is:

1. Unity
2. Zero
3. Infinity
4. Always < 1

Correct Ans: B

Q57.Maximum temperature limit for class F insulation is:

1. 105 ˚C
2. 120 ˚C
3. 130 ˚C
4. 155 ˚C

Correct Ans: D

Q58.The type of periodic testing of protecting relays could be

1. Visual inspection
2. Mechanical adjustment
3. Checking of contact functioning
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q59.If \(P_I\) be the iron loss and \(P_C\) be the copper loss on full load in transformer, then which of the following condition has to be satisfied to obtain maximum efficiency at 3/4 full load?

1. \(P_C = \frac{3 \times P_I}{4} \)
2. \(P_C = \frac{4 \times P_I}{3} \)
3. \(P_C = \frac{16 \times P_I}{9} \)
4. \(P_C = \frac{9 \times P_I}{16} \)

Correct Ans: C

Q60.Demand factor always

1. \(> 1\)
2. \(0\)
3. \(\leq 1\)
4. \(\infty\)

Correct Ans: C

Q61.An electronic path, that sends signals from one part of computer to another is?

1. Logic Gate
2. Modem
3. Bus
4. Serial Port

Correct Ans: C

Q62.What is full form of GUI in terms of computers?

1. Graphical user Instrument
2. Graphical unified Interface
3. Graphical unified Instrument
4. Graphical user Interface

Correct Ans: D

Q63.Short cut of view formula instantly:

1. Ctrl + "
2. Ctrl + -
3. Ctrl + ;
4. Ctrl + '

Correct Ans: NA

Q64.Which among following is commonly used language in Android applications?

1. C
2. PHP(php)
3. C++
4. Java

Correct Ans: D

Q65.Where is RAM located?

1. Expansion Board
2. External Drive
3. Mother Board
4. All of above

Correct Ans: C

Q66.Documents, Movies, Images and Photographs etc. are stored at a?

1. Application Sever
2. Web Sever
3. Print Sever
4. File Sever

Correct Ans: D

Q67.Which of the following should you use if you want all the slides in the presentation to have the same 'look'?

1. The slide layout option
2. Add a slide option
3. Outline view
4. A presentation design template

Correct Ans: D

Q68.One nibble is equal to how many bits?

1. 4 bits
2. 8 bits
3. 12 bits
4. 16 bits

Correct Ans: A

Q69.In banking, railways etc. which computers are used?

1. Mini computers
2. Micro computers
3. Mainframe computers
4. Super computers

Correct Ans: C

Q70.In which of the following form, data is stored in computer?

1. Decimal
2. Octal
3. Binary
4. Hexadecimal

Correct Ans: C

Q71.Which Indian mass movement began with the famous "Dandi March" of Mahatma Gandhi?

1. Khilafat movement
2. Non-Cooperation Movement
3. Civil Disobedience Movement
4. Quit India Movement

Correct Ans: C

Q72.Which Indian film bagged the best film award at the \(3^{rd}\) edition of the BRICS Film Festival 2018?

1. Village Rock stars
2. Sinjar
3. Bhanayakam
4. Newton

Correct Ans: D

Q73.Debenture holders of a company are its:

1. Shareholders
2. Creditors
3. Debtors
4. Directors

Correct Ans: B

Q74.The hardest substance available on earth is:

1. Gold
2. Iron
3. Dimond
4. Platinum

Correct Ans: C

Q75. Legislature of the Union which is called 'Parliament' consists of:

1. Lok Sabha
2. Rajya Sabha
3. Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha
4. President, Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

Correct Ans: D

Q76.Gir Kesar', which has been given the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, is a famous variety of which among the following?

1. Saffron
2. Pepper
3. Mango
4. Sweat

Correct Ans: C

Q77.Who has been elected as the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha ?

1. Harivansh Narayan Singh
2. B K Hariprasad
3. Ananth Kumar
4. Ram Gopal Yadav

Correct Ans: A

Q78.What do plants have that fungi don't?

1. Oxygen
2. Carbon dioxide
3. Chlorophyll
4. None of these

Correct Ans: C

Q79.Which sportsperson has clinched india's first men's tripal jump gold in 48 years at the \(18^{th}\) Asian Games 2018?

1. Shivpal Singh
2. Rakesh Babu A V
3. Sreeshankar
4. Arpinder Singh

Correct Ans: D

Q80.Who founded the Ramakrishna Mission in 1896 to carry on humanitarian relief and social work?

1. Ramakrishna Paramahansa
2. Swami Dayananada Saraswati
3. Swami Vivekananda
4. Blavatsky and Olcott

Correct Ans: C

Q81.Spot the error:

1. If you had seen
2. Yesterday's cricket I am sure you
3. Would have enjoyed seeing our team bat
4. No Error

Correct Ans: D

Q82.Choose one alternative which is opposite in meaning to the word: DEFICIT

1. Explicit
2. Implicit
3. Superfluous
4. Surplus

Correct Ans: D

Q83.Choos the mis-spelt word:

1. Benefit
2. Banana
3. Birth
4. Beginer

Correct Ans: D

Q84.Choose one alternative which is similar in meaning to the word: STUPID

1. Insane
2. Incapable
3. Silly
4. Disobedient

Correct Ans: C

Q85.Fill in the blanks with suitable idiom or phrase: He comes here _________ for a chat with me.

1. Over and over
2. Off and on
3. Of and on
4. Off and over

Correct Ans: B

Q86.Choose the correctly spelled word:

1. Geraff
2. Giraffe
3. Giraf
4. Gerraffe

Correct Ans: B

Q87.Pick out the most appropriate pair to fill in the blanks: I don't ______ I shall be _______ to go.

1. Think, able
2. Believe, Linking
3. Know, wanting
4. Consider, desirous

Correct Ans: A

Q88.Fill in the blank: I have been working hard ________ last year.

1. For
2. Since
3. In
4. From

Correct Ans: B

Q89.Spot the error:

1. We always complain that prices
2. Are too high and that we were
3. Not getting our money's worth
4. No Error

Correct Ans: B

Q90.Fill in the blanks with suitable idiom or phrase: He was shouting and screaming as if he was ________.

1. Of his head
2. Out of his mind
3. Out of his head
4. Out of order

Correct Ans: B

Q91.ગણી શકાય નહીં તેટલું' શબ્દ્સમૂહનો એક શબ્દ શોધો:

1. નાગણિત
2. વિગણિત
3. અગણિત
4. નવગણિત

Correct Ans: C

Q92.વિરુદ્ધાર્થી કહેવત શોધો: બોલે તેના બોર વેચાય

1. માગ્યા વિના માય ન પીરસે
2. ખાલી ચણો વાગે ધણો
3. અધૂરો ઘડો છલકાય
4. ન બોલવામાં નવ ગુણ

Correct Ans: D

Q93.ખાલી જગ્યામાં ઉચિત શબ્દ ભરો: વિજ્ઞાન અને ટેકનોલોજી આજના જીવનનું અત્યંત ________ ક્ષેત્ર બની ગયું છે.

1. મહત્વપૂર્ણ
2. વિકસિત
3. સાધારણ
4. સુરક્ષિત

Correct Ans: A

Q94.સાચી જોડણી વાળો શબ્દ શોધો:

1. નુકસાન
2. નુકશાન
3. નૂકસાન
4. નૂકશાન

Correct Ans: A

Q95.નીચેના પ્રશ્નમાં ઘાટા અક્ષરોમાં ત્રણ શબ્દો આપેલા છે. તેમાંથી ખોટી જોડણી વાળો શબ્દ શોધો:

આજની હું <span class="color_blue">પ્રતિજ્ઞા</span>(૧) લઉં છું કે હું દરરોજ <span class="color_blue">નિયમિત</span> (૨) એક કલાક કસરત પાછળ <span class="color_blue">ગાળીશ</span>. (૩)

1. પ્રતિજ્ઞા
2. નિયમિત
3. ગાળીશ
4. કોઈ ભૂલ નથી

Correct Ans: C

Q96. સંપ ત્યાં જંપ કહેવતનો અર્થ દર્શાવો.

1. એકતાથી સુખ અને શાંતિ મળે છે.
2. સત્યનો સદા વિજય થાય છે
3. તંદુરસ્તી તે પહેલું સુખ
4. અંદરોઅંદર ઝઘડતા શત્રુ ફાવે

Correct Ans: A

Q97.સંધિ જોડો: વાત + આવરણ

1. વાતાવારણ
2. વાતઆવરણ
3. વાતાવરણ
4. વતાવરણ

Correct Ans: C

Q98.નીચે આપેલા ચાર શબ્દોમાંથી ખોટી જોડણી વાળો શબ્દ શોધો:

1. અનુક્રમણિકા
2. ભારતીય
3. ધુમ્રપાન
4. સ્થિતિ

Correct Ans: C

Q99.મૂછનો દોરો ફૂટવો' રૂઢિપ્રયોગનો અર્થ શોધો:

1. મૂછમાં દોરો લગાવવો
2. સાહસના કામ કરવા
3. મોટા સાથે મગજમારી કરવી
4. જુવાની આવવી

Correct Ans: D

Q100.પક્ષી' નો સમાનાર્થી શોધો:

1. ગજ
2. તોખાર
3. પંખી
4. અશ્વ

Correct Ans: C

QGL1.માણસ: ઘર :: પશુ:

1. પાતાળ
2. ગુફા
3. અંતરિક્ષ
4. આકાશ

Correct Ans: B

QGL2.દુર્ગતિ' શબ્દનો વિરુદ્ધાર્થી શબ્દ કયો છે?

1. કુગતિ
2. સુગતિ
3. સળંગગતિ
4. અદુર્ગતી

Correct Ans: B

QGL3.નીચે પૈકી 'અચરજ' નો પર્યાયી શબ્દ ક્યો છે?

1. વિસ્મય
2. શાશ્વત
3. જગત
4. રજ

Correct Ans: A

QGL4.1. મંગલ + આચરણ - મંગલાયચરણ

2. હરિ + ઇન્દ્ર - હરિન્દ્ર

3. નર + ઇશ - નરેશ

3. પ્રતિ + અક્ષ - પ્રતિક્ષ

ઉપરોક્ત વર્ણવેલ માંથી કઈ સંધિ સાચી છે.

1. 2,3
2. 1,4
3. 1,3
4. 2,1

Correct Ans: C

QGL5.આપેલ વિકલ્પો પૈકી દ્રવ્યવાચક સંજ્ઞાનુંવાકય કયું છે?

1. આજકાલ ઠંડી હવા પ્રસરવા લાગી છે.
2. ગુરુ એવો હોવો જોઈએ જેની વાણીમાં મીઠાસ હોય.
3. મહારાષ્ટ્રમાં અનેક શહેરો છે.
4. રણવીરને બોલીવુડનો બાહુબલી કહી શકાય.

Correct Ans: A

QGL6.જ્યાં ઉપમેયનો ઉલ્લેખ જ કરવામાં ન આવે અને ઉપમાન જ ઉપમેય હોય ત્યારે દ્રષ્ટાંત અલંકાર બને છે. - આ કથન સત્ય છે કે નહિ અને જો ખોટું હોય તો સત્ય કથન કયું હોઈ શકે?

1. સાચું છે.
2. ખોટું છે,
   
   જ્યાં ઉપમેયનો ઉલ્લેખ જ કરવામાં ન આવે અને ઉપમાન જ ઉપમેય હોય ત્યારે વિરોધાભાસ અલંકાર બને છ.
3. ખોટું છે,
   
   જ્યાં ઉપમેયનો ઉલ્લેખ જ કરવામાં ન આવે અને
   ઉપમાન જ ઉપમેય હોય ત્યારે અનન્વય અલંકાર બને છે.
4. ખોટું છે,
   
   જ્યાં ઉપમેયનો ઉલ્લેખ જ કરવામાં ન આવે અને
   ઉપમાન જ ઉપમેય હોય ત્યારે અતિશયોક્તિ અલંકાર બને છે.

Correct Ans: D

QGL7.મારુતારુંનો ઝગડો હજી ખતમ થયો નથી, ચારપાંચ વર્ષ થઇ ગયા અને રાતદિવસ સાથે ઉઠવા-બેસવાનું તો ચાલુ જ છે. ઉપરોક્ત વાક્યમાં ક્યા ક્યા વ્યાકરણીય સમાસનો ઉપયોગ કરાયો છે?

1. દ્વન્દ્વ, મધ્યમપદલોપી
2. દ્વન્દ્વ
3. તત્પુરુષ,
4. અવ્યવીભાવ, મધ્યમપદલોપી

Correct Ans: B

QGL8.જ્વાળા: ધુમાડો:: બરફ : .............

1. શીતળતા
2. ગરમ
3. બાષ્પ
4. તાપમાન

Correct Ans: C

QGL9.નીચેના રૂઢિપ્રયોગોનો ને અર્થ સાથે સાંકળી જોડી બનાવો .

1. કાન કરડવા .......... 1. બાતમી મળી જવી

2. કાન ફુંકવા ........... 2. વાત પર ધ્યાન ન આપવું

3. કાને વાત પહોચવી ........ 3. કાન ભંભેરણી કરવી

4. કાને ન ધરવું ......... 4. ગુપસુપ વાતો કરવી

1. 1-3
   
   2-4
   
   3-1
   
   4-2
   
2. 1-2
   
   2-3
   
   3-4
   
   4-1
   
3. 1-4
   
   2-3
   
   3-1
   
   4-2
   
4. 1-3
   
   2-2
   
   3-4
   
   4-1
   

Correct Ans: C

QGL10.જીવનમાં તડકોછાયો એતો એક ઘટમાળ છે. વાક્યમાં ક્યા સમાસનો ઉપયોગ કરવામાં આવ્યો છે?

1. દ્વન્દ્વ
2. તત્પુરુષ
3. ઉપપદ
4. કર્મધારય

Correct Ans: A

QGK1.The Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana (PMRY) was launched in which year?

1. 2003
2. 1995
3. 1993
4. 2005

Correct Ans: C

QGK2.Recently, India signed first ever term contract to import crude oil with which country?

1. China
2. Russia
3. Nepal
4. Japan

Correct Ans: B

QGK3.Which of the following architectures is also known as "Five Principles of Peaceful Co-existence"?

1. Panchayatana
2. Panchsheel
3. Vedanga
4. Manusmriti

Correct Ans: B

QGK4.The air envelope surrounding the earth is called __________

1. Hydrosphere
2. Lithosphere
3. Atmosphere
4. Asthenosphere

Correct Ans: C

QGK5.Recently, Dr. Subir Vithal Gokarn passed away due to illness. He is a/an _________

1. Former RBI Deputy Governor
2. Former Finance Minister
3. Former IAS Officer
4. Former Chief Minister of Gujarat

Correct Ans: A

QGK6.In which of the following States, Tarapur Nuclear Power Plant is located?

1. Assam
2. Maharashtra
3. Bihar
4. Uttar Pradesh

Correct Ans: B

QGK7.Dena Bank and Vijaya Bank recenlty got merged with which of the following banks?

1. State Bank of India
2. Punjab National Bank
3. Indian Overseas Bank
4. Bank of Baroda

Correct Ans: D

QGK8.What is the full form of the acronym 'BCCI' in sports?

1. Board of Common Cricket in International
2. Board of Control for Cricket in India
3. Board of Cricket Committee in India
4. Board of Cricket Commentary in International

Correct Ans: B

QGK9.The term NEFT (in banking), is an abbreviation of ____________

1. Net Electronics Funds Transfer
2. Net Electronics Financial Transfer
3. National Electronic Funds Transfe
4. National Electronics Financial Transaction

Correct Ans: C

QGK10.Who has won the ‘World Games Athlete Of the Year 2019’ ?

1. Marina Chernova
2. Rani Rampal
3. Stanislav Horuna
4. Rhea Stinn

Correct Ans: B

QEK1.Replace the underlined phrase grammatically and conceptually with the help of the given options. If the given sentence is correct then select the option 'The given sentence is correct'.

The new client \(\mathbf{\underline{had \:to\: pay\: money\: to\: initiates\: a}}\) account and activate their service.

1. had to pay money to initiate a
2. had to pay money to initiate an
3. The given sentence is correct
4. have to pay money to initiate an

Correct Ans: B

QEK2.Choose the word which expresses nearly the \(\mathbf{opposite}\) meaning of the given word

" QUANDARY "

1. Clutch
2. Dilemma
3. Certainty
4. Embarrassment

Correct Ans: C

QEK3.Fill in the blanks with suitable Article from the given alternatives.

Bread is __________ predominant food prepared from a dough of flour and water.

1. a
2. an
3. No article
4. the

Correct Ans: A

QEK4.Choose the best option from the given alternatives which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

A disease prevailing in a locality

1. Habitat
2. Host
3. Epic
4. Endemic

Correct Ans: D

QEK5.Find the word which is correctly spelt from the given options

1. Various
2. Absurrd
3. Abolishid
4. Wrinkel

Correct Ans: A

QEK6.In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the option corresponding to it. If the sentence contains no error, Select "No error'' option. (Avoid punctuation errors)

(A) Bubin together with / (B) her parents are coming / (C) to attend the party / (D) NO ERROR

1. D
2. C
3. A
4. B

Correct Ans: D

QEK7.Choose the word which best expresses the similar meaning of the given word " CALLOW "

1. Sophisticated
2. Mature
3. Immature
4. Calm

Correct Ans: C

QEK8.Find the word which is correctly spelt from the given options.

1. Benifited
2. Dimnished
3. Ambience
4. Suppresed

Correct Ans: C

QEK9.Fill in the blanks with suitable Preposition from the given alternatives.

The match was dedicated ______________ Indian fast bowler Zaheer, who has announced his retirement from international cricket.

1. to
2. from
3. since
4. against

Correct Ans: A

QEK10.Rearrange the following to form a meaningful sentence and find the most logical order from the given options.

P: 60 countries using dance as a tool for

Q: building social cohesion and resolving

R: conflict throughout the world

S: battery Dance has travelled far and wide across

1. SPQR
2. PQSR
3. SPRQ
4. PQRS

Correct Ans: A

QEE1................. is the rms value of the total current comprising the AC and DC components of the current in the circuit breaker pole at the instant of contact separation.

1. Making current
2. Symmetrical breaking current
3. Asymmetrical breaking current
4. Symmetrical short circuit current

Correct Ans: C

QEE2.Voltage dips cannot be caused by which of the following:

1. Switching on of Large Loads
2. Capacitive Switching
3. Local and Remote faults
4. Inductive Loading

Correct Ans: B

QEE3.In underground cables, the electrostatic stress is .................. at contactor surface and ................ at the sheath.

1. zero, zero
2. zero, minimum
3. minimum, maximum
4. maximum, minimum

Correct Ans: D

QEE4.Consider the following two statements and choose the correct answer.

Statement 1: The V-curves of a synchronous motor show relationship between armature current and supply voltage.

Statement 2: The plot of power factor against the field current of synchronous motor is known as inverted V curves.

1. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
2. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE
3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE
4. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE

Correct Ans: B

QEE5.The single line diagram of the simple power system is shown in Fig. The corresponding reactance diagram is

1. 
   
   
   
   
2. 
   
   
   
   
3. 
   
   
   
   
4. 
   
   
   
   

Correct Ans: C

QEE6.Three equal star-connected inductors take 8 kW at 0.8 power factor when connected to a 460 V
three - phase 3-wire supply. If one of the inductor in phase – Y is short circuited, then the line current in phase-Y is ……………….. Assume RYB sequence.

1. 37.6 A
2. 27.6 A
3. 21.7 A
4. 31.7 A

Correct Ans: A

QEE7.Determine the ohmic value of the current limiting reactor per phase external to a 30 MVA, 11 kV, 50 Hz, three phase synchronous generator which can limit the current on short circuit of 5 times the full load current. The reactance of the synchronous generator is 0.05 pu.

1. \(0.405\:\Omega\)
2. \(0.805\:\Omega\)
3. \(0.305\:\Omega\)
4. \(0.605\:\Omega\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE8.

1. A = (ii), B = (iii), C = (i)
2. A = (iii), B = (i), C = (ii)
3. A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (i)
4. A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii)

Correct Ans: B

QEE9.A fully controlled natural commutated 3-phase bridge rectifier is operating with a firing angle \(\alpha=30^\circ\), The peak to peak voltage ripple expressed as a ratio of the peak output dc voltage at the output of the converter bridge is

1. \(1-\frac{\sqrt3}{2}\)
2. \(\sqrt3-1\)
3. \(\frac{\sqrt3}{2}\)
4. 0.5

Correct Ans: D

QEE10.The expression for voltage regulation of a short transmission line for lagging power factor is given by: ................, where, 'I' is the line current, '\(V_R\)' is the receiving end voltage, 'R' is the line resistance and 'X' is the line reactance.

1. \(\frac{IX\cos\phi_R\:-\:IR\sin\phi_R}{V_R}\)
2. \(\frac{IX\cos\phi_R \:+\: IR\sin\phi_R}{V_R}\)
3. \(\frac{IR\cos\phi_R\:+\:IX\sin\phi_R}{V_R}\)
4. \(\frac{IR\cos\phi_R\:-\:IX\sin\phi_R}{V_R}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE11.A THHN conductor will have \(75^\circ C\) termination on one end and a \(60/75^\circ C\) termination on the other, which ampacity column will be used?

1. \(60^\circ C\) column
2. \(75^\circ C\) column
3. \(90^\circ C\) column
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

QEE12.What is the largest thermal power plant in India?

1. Mundra Thermal Power Station
2. Talcher Super Thermal Power Station
3. Sasan Ultra Mega Power Plant
4. Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station

Correct Ans: D

QEE13......................... is the short time reduction in the rms voltage between 0.1 to 0.9 p.u for a duration of ...................

1. Voltage sag, greater than 1 minute.
2. Voltage swell, 0.5 cycle to 1 minute.
3. Voltage sag, 0.5 cycle to 1 minute.
4. Voltage swell, greater than 1 minute.

Correct Ans: C

QEE14.A given solar cell has the following specifications: Open-circuit voltage, \(V_{oc}\): 0.7 V, Short-circuit current, \(I_{sc}\): 3.5 A , Fill factor, FF: 0.6, Input power,\(P_{in}\) : 10 W, If the solar cell operates at maximum power point, calculate the efficiency.

1. 12.70 %
2. 14.70 %
3. 13.70 %
4. 15.70 %

Correct Ans: B

QEE15.Which type of connection is employed for current transformers for the protection of delta- star connected 3-phase transformer?

1. star-delta
2. star-star
3. delta-star
4. delta-delta

Correct Ans: A

QEE16.In a single phase energy meter, the series electromagnet is energized by a ................. of…………………..

1. voltage coil, thick wire of few turns
2. current coil, thin wire of more turns
3. voltage coil, thin wire of more turns
4. current coil, thick wire of few turns

Correct Ans: D

QEE17.For sea water with \(\sigma= 5\: mho/m\) and \(\epsilon_r= 80\), what is the distance for which radio signal can be transmitted with 90% attenuation at 25 KHz?

1. 32.7 m
2. 327 m
3. 3.27 m
4. 0.327 m

Correct Ans: C

QEE18.What are the states of the three ideal diodes of the circuit shown in Fig.?

\

1. D1 ON, D2 OFF, D3 OFF
2. D1 ON, D2 OFF, D3 ON
3. D1 OFF, D2 ON, D3 OFF
4. D1 OFF, D2 ON, D3 ON

Correct Ans: A

QEE19.A balanced delta connected load of \(8+j6\:\Omega\) per phase is connected to a 415V, 50 Hz, 3-phase supply lines.if the input power factor is improved to 0.9 by connecting a star connected capacitor bank, then the required kVAR of the bank is

1. 10.98 kVAR
2. 16.98 kVAR
3. 14.98 kVAR
4. 8.98 kVAR

Correct Ans: A

QEE20.Stability of power system can be improved by

1. Reducing voltage of transmission

2. Using parallel transmission lines

3. Using series compensators

Which of the above statements are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. All 1, 2 and 3

Correct Ans: B

QEE21.Which among the following are included in the two part tariff?

i. Fixed charges

ii. Running charges

iii. Semi fixed charges

1. (i) and (iii) only
2. (ii) and (iii) only
3. (i) and (ii) only
4. (i), (ii) and (iii)

Correct Ans: C

QEE22.Insulation Power Factor testing on an oil-filled transformer is not helpful in determining _________

1. Movement of the windings (change in capacitance)
2. Turns ratio values
3. Condition of paper insulation (change in watts losses)
4. Whether the oil test indicates moisture

Correct Ans: B

QEE23.A coil having an inductance of 100 mH is magnetically coupled to another coil having an inductance of 900 mH. The coefficient of coupling between the coils is 0.45. Calculate the equivalent inductance if the two coils are connected in series aiding.

1. 932 mH
2. 730 mH
3. 1135 mH
4. 1270 mH

Correct Ans: C

QEE24.The power factor angle of a purely inductive circuit is

1. \(60^\circ\)
2. \(30^\circ\)
3. \(90^\circ\)
4. \(45^\circ\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE25.A new generation of smart meters is known as ........

1. SMETS3
2. SMETS4
3. SMETS1
4. SMETS2

Correct Ans: D

QEE26.The frequency of the emf in the stator of a 4-pole induction motor is 50 Hz, and that in the rotor is 2 Hz. What is the slip and at what speed is the motor running?

1. 4%, 1440 rpm
2. 3%, 1455 rpm
3. 4%, 1455 rpm
4. 3%, 1440 rpm

Correct Ans: A

QEE27.At what range of wind speed is the electricity from the wind turbine is generated?

1. 450 – 650 mph
2. 100 – 125 mph
3. 250 – 450 mph
4. 30-35 mph

Correct Ans: D

QEE28.In a 3-phase, 4-wire, 400/230 V system, a lamp \(L_1\) of 100 W is connected to one phase and neutral and a lamp \(L_2\) of 150 W is connected to the second pahse and neutral. If the neutral wire is disconnected accidently, what will be the voltage across a 100 W lamp \(L_1\)?

1. 160 V
2. 120 V
3. 180 V
4. 240 V

Correct Ans: D

QEE29.The current flowing to a balanced delta connected load through line 'a' is 15 A when the conductor of line 'b' is open. With the current in line 'a' as reference, compute the symmetrical components of the line currents. Assume the phase sequence of 'abc'.

1. \(I_{a0=0\:A}\)
   
   \(I_{a1=(7.5+j4.33)\:A}\)
   
   \(I_{a2=(7.5-j4.33)\:A}\)
   
2. \(I_{a0=0\:A}\)
   
   \(I_{a1=(-7.5-j13)\:A}\)
   
   \(I_{a2=(-7.5+j13)\:A}\)
   
3. \(I_{a0=0\:A}\)
   
   \(I_{a1=(7.5+j4.33)\:A}\)
   
   \(I_{a2=(-7.5-j4.33)\:A}\)
   
4. \(I_{a0=0\:A}\)
   
   \(I_{a1=(7.5-j13)\:A}\)
   
   \(I_{a2=(7.5+j13)\:A}\)
   

Correct Ans: A

QEE30.A grid interactive solar system:

1. supplies power to as well as receives power from the grid as required
2. always receives power from the grid
3. always supplies power to the grid
4. works only when the grid fails

Correct Ans: A

QEE31.An RC series circuit with \(R=150\:\Omega\) and \(C=2\:\mu F\) is excited by a DC source of 15V by closing the switch at t = 0 with an initially uncharged capacitor. The initial and final voltages across the capacitor respectively are

1. 10 V, 15 V
2. 15 V, 10 V
3. 0 V, 10 V
4. 0 V, 15 V

Correct Ans: D

QEE32.Murray loop test is performed on a faulty cable 300 m long. At balance, the resistance connected to the faulty core was set at \(R=15\:\Omega\) and the resistance of the resistor connected to the sound core was \(R=45\:\Omega\). Calculate the distance of the fault point from the test end.

1. 75 m
2. 450 m
3. 225 m
4. 150 m

Correct Ans: D

QEE33.The necessary equation to be solved during the load flow analysis using Fast-Decoupled method is given below:

Where B' and B" are formed using the imaginary part of the bus admittance matrix \(Y_{bus}\), n is the total number of buses in the system, m is the number of voltage regulated buses. The size of matrix B' is

\(\frac{\Delta P}{|V_i|}=-B' \Delta \delta\)

\(\frac{\Delta Q}{|V_i|}=-B''\Delta |V| \)

1. (m-1) x (m-1)
2. (n-m) x (n-m)
3. (n-1) x (n-1)
4. (n-m-1) x (n-m-1)

Correct Ans: C

QEE34.In 2019, India stands ……… position in the consumption of electricity in the world.

1. Fourth
2. First
3. Second
4. Third

Correct Ans: D

QEE35.While selecting the gas for a circuit breaker, the property of gas that should be considered is its

(i) dielectric strength

(ii) non-inflammability

(iii) non-toxicity

1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. (i) only
3. (i) and (ii) only
4. (i) and (iii) only

Correct Ans: A

QEE36.By inserting a plate of dielectric material between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor at constant potential, the energy stored in the capacitor is increased five times. The dielectric constant of the material is

1. 1/5
2. 1/25
3. 25
4. 5

Correct Ans: D

QEE37.As per ............ guidelines, if the ratio of carbon dioxide \(CO_2\)and carbon monoxide (CO) in dissolved gas analysis is ..............., it is predicted that the condition of paper insulation inside the transformer is poor.

1. IEC-899, less than 11
2. IEC-599, more than 11
3. IEC-899, more than 11
4. IEC-599, less than 11

Correct Ans: B

QEE38.Two-wattmeter method is used to measure the power taken by a 3-phase induction motor on no load. The wattmeter readings are 375 W and –50 W. Calculate the reactive power taken by the load.

1. \(\frac{425}{\sqrt3}\) VAR
2. \(325\sqrt3\) VAR
3. \(425\sqrt3\) VAR
4. \(\frac{325}{\sqrt3}\) VAR

Correct Ans: C

QEE39.Consider the following statements and choose the correct option:

Statement 1: The magnitude of earth fault current for a given fault position within a winding depends upon the method of neutral grounding.

Statement 2: Earth fault protection for an electric motor is provided by means of instantaneous overcurrent relay.

1. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE
2. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE
3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE
4. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE

Correct Ans: D

QEE40.A 16 A, Type B Miniature Circuit Breaker (MCB) will disconnect a fault in 0.1s when the fault current is

1. greater than 32 A
2. between 48 A and 80 A
3. less than 16 A
4. between 16 A and 48 A

Correct Ans: B

QEE41.An eight-pole wave-connected armature has 600 conductors and is driven at 625 rev/min. If the flux per pole is 20 mWb, determine the generated emf.

1. 250 V
2. 325 V
3. 500 V
4. 125 V

Correct Ans: C

QEE42.The normal percentage bias setting of differential relay used for transformer protection will be

1. above 75%
2. between 10% and 50%
3. between 50% and 75%
4. below 10%

Correct Ans: B

QEE43.If a 415 V, 50 Hz, star-connected, three-phase squirrel-cage induction motor is operated from a 415 V, 70 Hz supply, the torque that the motor can now provide while drawing rated current from the supply

1. increases or reduces depending upon the rotor
   resistance
2. reduces
3. remains the same
4. increases

Correct Ans: B

QEE44.The operating time of an inverse definite minimum time (IDMT) overcurrent relay corresponding to plug-setting multiplier (PSM) = 1 and time-multiplier setting (TMS) = 1 will be

1. zero
2. 3 sec
3. infinite
4. 1 sec

Correct Ans: C

QEE45.For protection of inter-turn fault in transformer, the relays preferred are

1. Overcurrent relay and differential relay
2. Buchholz's relay and differential relay
3. Buchholz's relay, overcurrent relay and differential relay
4. Overcurrent relay and Buchholz's relay

Correct Ans: B

QEE46.Which of the following are the advantages of Aerial Bunched Cables (ABC)?

1. Elimination of theft of energy
2. Reduced height of supports
3. Higher safety and reliability
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

QEE47.An electric potential field is produced in air by point charges 1 µC and 4 µC located at (-2, 1, 5) and (1, 3, -1) respectively. The energy stored in the field is

1. 12.50 mJ
2. 2.57 mJ
3. 5.14 mJ
4. 10.28 mJ

Correct Ans: C

QEE48.Simultaneous tripping of the circuit breaker at both ends of a transmission line is achieved by

1. distance protection
2. overcurrent protection
3. pilot protection
4. none

Correct Ans: D

QEE49.A single phase motor connected to 400 V, 50 Hz supply takes 30 A at a power factor of 0.7 lagging. Calculate the capacitance required in parallel with the motor to raise the power factor to 0.9 lagging.

1. 89.5 µF
2. 79.5 µF
3. 99.5 µF
4. 69.5 µF

Correct Ans: A

QEE50.A transformer designed for operation at 60 Hz supply is working at 50 Hz supply system without changing its voltage and current ratings. Compared to the full load efficiency at 60 Hz, the full load transformer efficiency at 50 Hz…..

1. increases by 30%
2. decreases marginally
3. remains unaltered
4. increases marginally

Correct Ans: B

QEE51....................... is the process of actuating equipment operation at remote locations.

1. Data acquisition
2. Data processing
3. Supervisory control
4. Supplementary control

Correct Ans: C

QEE52.Calculate the capacitance per meter of a 50 Ω load cable that has an inductance of 50 nH/m

1. 10 pF
2. 30 pF
3. 20 pF
4. 40 pF

Correct Ans: C

QEE53.An alternator is supplying load of 300 kW at a power factor of 0.5 lagging. If the power factor is raised to unity, how many more kilowatts can alternator supply for the same kVA loading?

1. 600 kW
2. 150 kW
3. 300 kW
4. 450 kW

Correct Ans: C

QEE54.The miniature circuit breaker(MCB) shown in Fig. is a ___________.

1. two pole MCB
2. three pole MCB
3. four pole MCB
4. five pole MCB

Correct Ans: C

QEE55.Case 1: The PV connected to the DC bus was injecting 20 kW of power constituting of 1 kW of loss.

Case 2: The same PV is connected to the AC bus constituting to 1.5 kW loss.

Find out the change in efficiency from Case 1 to Case 2.

1. 5% decrease
2. 2.5% decrease
3. 5% increase
4. 2.5% increase

Correct Ans: B

QEE56.A thermistor is inherently suitable for temperature measurement involving

1. high span and low sensitivity
2. low span and high sensitivity
3. high span and high sensitivity
4. low span and low sensitivity

Correct Ans: B

QEE57.Determine maximum permissible load which a 15 MVA, ONAN cooled transformer to IS : 2026 can take for 6 hr, if the initial load on it was 12 MVA. The weighted ambient temperature is \(20^\circ\). Assume the permissible load kVA as a fraction of rated kVA is 1.25.

1. 18.75 MVA
2. 9.6 MVA
3. 12 MVA
4. 15 MVA

Correct Ans: A

QEE58.Three resistances \(750\:\Omega\), \(600\:\Omega\) and \(200\:\Omega\) are connected in parallel. The total current is 1 A. Determine the voltage applied.

1. 200 V
2. 100 V
3. 150 V
4. 125 V

Correct Ans: D

QEE59.An RLC series circuit consists of \(R=16\:\Omega\),\(L=5\:mH\) and \(C=2\:\mu F\). Calculate the quality factor.

1. 5.125
2. 4.125
3. 3.125
4. 2.125

Correct Ans: C

QEE60.A given solar cell has the following specifications:\(I_{SC}=4\:A\) and \(V_{OC}=0.7\:V\). Consider that 20 identical cells with the above specifications are to be interconnected to create a PV module. What is the open-circuit voltage of the PV module if all the solar cells are connected in a series configuration?

1. 12.6 V
2. 11.2 V
3. 0.7 V
4. 14 V

Correct Ans: D

QCK1.Which of the following malicious programs does not replicate automatically?

1. Virus
2. Trap doors
3. Trojan horse
4. Worm

Correct Ans: C

QCK2.Which generation of computers used vacuum tubes?

1. First Generation
2. Fourth Generation
3. Second Generation
4. Third Generation

Correct Ans: A

QCK3.In Microsoft Word, which of the following menu is used to add Headings that are displayed automatically in the top margin of all pages?

1. View Menu
2. Format Menu
3. Insert Menu
4. Tools Menu

Correct Ans: C

QCK4.In computer networks, the nodes are

1. the computer that originates data
2. the computer that routes data
3. the computer that terminates data
4. all the mentioned above

Correct Ans: D

QCK5.A __________ is a device that forwards packets between networks by processing the routing information included in the packet.

1. Bridge
2. Firewall
3. Router
4. all the mentioned above

Correct Ans: C

QCK6.1 terabyte is equal to

1. 1024 bytes
2. 1024 kilobytes
3. 1024 gigabytes
4. None of these

Correct Ans: C

QCK7.Which of the following features of Microsoft Word automatically moves to the next line
while reaching the end of current line?

1. Carriage return
2. Enter
3. Word wrap
4. None of these

Correct Ans: C

QCK8.The operating system is the most common type of ____________

1. System Software
2. Communication
3. Application Software
4. Firmware

Correct Ans: A

QCK9.Which of the following is an independent malicious program that spread copies of itself from computer to computer?

1. Worm
2. Virus
3. Trojan horse
4. Trap door

Correct Ans: A

QCK10.Which of the following is the layer of a computer system between the hardware and the user program?

1. Application Software
2. Operating System
3. System Environment
4. None of these

Correct Ans: B

QGK1.As per Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) report 2019 for the period 2014-2018, which country is the largest arms importer in the world?

1. Saudi Arabia
2. India
3. Germany
4. Myanmar

Correct Ans: A

QGK2.When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?

1. 13th January 1950
2. January 25 1930
3. 15th August 1947
4. 26th November 1949

Correct Ans: D

QGK3.Arjuna Award" is awarded for the excellence in which field?

1. Science
2. Literature
3. Mathematics
4. Sports

Correct Ans: D

QGK4.In public sector, what is the full form of "LIC"?

1. Life Insurance Corporation
2. Lively Insurance Corporation
3. Life Insurance Company
4. Life Insurers Corporation

Correct Ans: A

QGK5.The International boundary 'Radcliffe Line' lies between India and_________.

1. China
2. Pakistan
3. Afghanistan
4. Japan

Correct Ans: B

QGK6.Nairobi negotiations are related to which of the following Organisation?

1. World Trade Organisation
2. The United Nations Children's Fund
3. UNESCO
4. World Economic Forum

Correct Ans: A

QGK7.Tiger Woods is associated with which of the following fields?

1. Politics
2. Literature
3. Cinema
4. Sports

Correct Ans: D

QGK8.What is the full form of the acronym 'SWIFT', in financial institution?

1. Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication
2. Social World interconnection in Financial Tech process
3. Social Wide in Financial Transaction
4. Society website in Financial Terms

Correct Ans: A

QGK9.The process of peeling of rocks into layers is called_________.

1. Delta
2. Exfoliation
3. Sublimation
4. Barchans

Correct Ans: B

QGK10.Arunachal Pradesh does not share its borders with which one of the following nations?

1. Myanmar
2. Bhutan
3. Bangladesh
4. China

Correct Ans: C

QEE1.The threshold voltage of an N-channel enhancement mode MOSFET is 0.5 V. When the device is biased at a gate voltage of 3 V. pinch-off would occur at a drain voltage of

1. 2.5 V
2. 1.5 V
3. 3.5 V
4. 4.5 V

Correct Ans: A

QEE2.In which of the following situations, there is no need to provide directional overcurrent protection.

1. ring main
2. single end fed, single feeder
3. double end fed, single feeder
4. single end fed, parallel feeder

Correct Ans: B

QEE3.Consider a solar PV plant with the following specific conditions:

Analysis period: 1 year Measured average solar irradiation intensity in 1 year: 150 kWh/\(m^2\)
Generator area of the PV plant: 10 \(m^2\) Efficiency factor of the PV modules: 15%
Electrical energy actually exported by plant to grid: 135 kWh
Calculate the performance ratio.

1. 50%
2. 80%
3. 60%
4. 75%

Correct Ans: C

QEE6.Continuous and rapid variations in the load current magnitude which causes voltage variations is known as

1. Harmonics
2. Flicker
3. Voltage distortion
4. Voltage sag

Correct Ans: B

QEE7.Which state is the largest producer of wind energy in India?

1. Maharashtra
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Andhra pradesh
4. Tamil Nadu

Correct Ans: D

QEE8.A star connected synchronous generator rated at 500 MVA, 50 kV has a reactance of 0.5 pu. Find the ohmic value of the reactance.

1. 2.5 \(\Omega\)
2. 0.1 \(\Omega\)
3. 1 \(\Omega\)
4. 0.25 \(\Omega\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE9.What is the value of the characteristic impedance of a transmission line with impedance and admittance of 15 and 5?

1. 1.414
2. 0.707
3. 0.577
4. 1.732

Correct Ans: D

QEE11.The current flowing in to a balanced delta connected load through line 'a' is 10 A when the conductor of line 'b' is open. With the current in line 'a' as reference, compute the symmetrical components of the line currents. Assume the phase sequence of 'abc'.

1. \(I_{a0} =10 A\)
   \(I_{a1} = (-5 + j2.88)A\)
   \(I_{a2}= (5 + j2.88) A\)
2. \(I_{a0}= 0 A \)
   \(I_{a1}= (5 + j2.88)A\)
   \(I_{a2}= (5 - j2.88) A\)
3. \(I_{a0} = 10 A\)
   \(I_{a1}= (-1.66 + j2.88) A\)
   \(I_{a2}= (1.66 - j2.88) A
   \)
   
4. \(I_{a0}= 0 A \)
   \(I_{a1}= (-1.66 + j2.88) A\)
   \(I_{a2}= (1.66 - j2.88) A\)
   

Correct Ans: B

QEE12.If a cable of homogeneous insulation has maximum stress of 6 kV/mm, then the dielectric strength of insulation should be.............

1. 3 kV/mm
2. 1.5 kV/mm
3. 12 kV/mm
4. 6 KV/mm

Correct Ans: D

QEE13.In a single phase energy meter, the pressure / voltage coil is wound on

1. the edges of the limb on the laminated core
2. both the limbs of the laminated core with different turns
3. both the limbs of the laminated core with same turns
4. the centre limb of the laminated core / the middle limb of the shunt magnet

Correct Ans: D

QEE14.Medium voltage covered conductors (MVCC) are produced in voltage rating

1. between 6.6 kV to 33 kV
2. between 132 kV to 200 kV
3. less than 3.3 KV
4. beyond 200 KV

Correct Ans: A

QEE15.The complex power injections at a bus are shown in Fig. Two lines are connected drawing the powers as shown in Fig. The complex power in the line-2 '\(S_2\) is

1. 2-j5
2. 2-j1
3. 2+j5
4. 2+j1

Correct Ans: C

QEE16.............is the rms value of AC component of the current in the pole at the instant of contact separation.

1. Making current
2. Symmetrical breaking current
3. Symmetrical short circuit current
4. Asymmetrical breaking current

Correct Ans: B

QEE18.Consider the following statements associated with Buchholz's relays.
Statement 1: Buchholz's relay is used for protection of a transformer against incipient faults.
Statement 2: Buchholz's relay can be installed on oil cooled transformers.

1. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE
2. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE
3. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
4. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE

Correct Ans: B

QEE19.A 10 A, Type C Miniature Circuit Breaker (MCB) will trip at fault currents

1. less than 10 A
2. between 50 A and 100 A
3. greater than 100 A
4. between 10 A and 50 A

Correct Ans: B

QEE20.In a power network, 375 kV is recorded at a 400 KV bus. A 45 MVAR, 400 KV shunt reactor is connected to the bus. What is the reactive power absorbed by the shunt reactor?

1. 49.55 MVAR
2. 59.55 MVAR
3. 69.55 MVAR
4. 39.55 MVAR

Correct Ans: D

QEE22.If the phase velocity of a plane wave in a perfect dielectric is 0.4 times its value in free space, then what is the relative permittivity of the dielectric?

1. 6.25
2. 4.25
3. 2.5
4. 1.25

Correct Ans: A

QEE23.If the velocity of wind is doubled then the power output will

1. increase by 6 times.
2. increase by 8 times
3. doubled
4. reduced to half

Correct Ans: B

QEE25.The miniature circuit breaker (MCB) with............ trip characteristics trips instantaneously when the current flowing through it reaches between 10 to 20 times the rated current.

1. Class C
2. Class B
3. Class Z
4. Class D

Correct Ans: D

QEE26.The DC offset in fault current causes conventional over-current (OC) relays to:

1. over-reach
2. reach remains unaffected due to DC offset
3. sometimes under-reach and sometimes over-reach
4. under-reach

Correct Ans: A

QEE27.A single phase full converter bridge, connected to 230 V, 50 Hz source is feeding a load R=10 \(\Omega\) in series with a large inductance that makes the load current ripple free. For a firing angle of 450, calculate the rectification efficiency.

1. 76.66%
2. 63.66%
3. 50.55%
4. 28.33%

Correct Ans: B

QEE28.In two-part tariff, the............ charges depend upon the maximum demand of the consumer and the ......... charges depend upon the number of units consumed by the consumer.

1. fixed, running
2. fixed, semi-fixed
3. semi-fixed, running
4. running, fixed

Correct Ans: A

QEE29.The sending end and receiving end voltages of the short transmission line are 150 KV and 120 KV respectively. Calculate its percentage voltage regulation.

1. 40%
2. 30%
3. 20%
4. 25%

Correct Ans: D

QEE30.Which among these components connects to physical equipments of the distribution system?

1. Central control room with host computers
2. Remote Terminal Unit
3. Communication infrastructure
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

QEE33.Which country leads in the production of biofuel in the world?

1. United States of America
2. Brazil
3. Argentina
4. Germany

Correct Ans: A

QEE35.Thermopile is used for the measurement of

1. current
2. temperature
3. emf
4. flow rate

Correct Ans: B

QEE36.Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: The speed regulation of a synchronous motor is always unity.
Statement 2: In a synchronous motor, at no-load condition, and with normal excitation the armature current drawn by a synchronous motor is in phase with applied voltage.

1. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE
2. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE
3. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
4. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE

Correct Ans: B

QEE37.The magnetizing inrush current in a transformer is rich in the........... harmonic component.

1. second
2. third
3. seventh
4. fifth

Correct Ans: A

QEE39.A DC shunt generator has an induced voltage of 220 V on open circuit. When the machine is on load the terminal voltage is 200 V. Find the load current if the field resistance is 100 \(\Omega\) and armature resistance is 0.2 \(\Omega\).

1. 98 A
2. 102 A
3. 104 A
4. 96 A

Correct Ans: A

QEE40.What are the main challenges that the electric grid faces?

1. Increase in Energy Demand
2. Reliability and Power Quality is Declining
3. Global rise in temperature
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

QEE43.Consider the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: DVR (Dynamic Voltage Restorer) is a series compensation device.
Statement 2: DVR protects sensitive electric load from power quality problems such as voltage sags, swells, unbalance and distortion through power electronic controllers."

1. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE
2. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE
4. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE

Correct Ans: A

QEE45.Determine the ohmic value of the current limiting reactor per phase external to a 40 MVA, 15 kV, 50 Hz, three phase synchronous generator which can limit the current on short circuit of 6 times the full load current. The reactance of the synchronous generator is 0.06 pu.

1. 0.4 \(\Omega\)
2. 0.8 \(\Omega\)
3. 0.6\(\Omega\)
4. 0.2 \(\Omega\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE46.A 50 Hz synchronous generator is connected to an infinite bus through a line. The p.u. reactances of generator and the line are j0.4 p.u. and j0.2 p.u. respectively. The generator no load voltage is 1.1 p.u. and that of infinite bus is 1.0 p.u. The inertia constant of the generator is 4 MW-sec/MVA. Determine the frequency of natural oscillations if the generator is loaded to 60% of its maximum power transfer capacity and small perturbation in power is given.

1. 0.8 Hz
2. 1.8 Hz
3. 1.6 Hz
4. 1.2 Hz

Correct Ans: D

QEE48.A single phase motor connected to 400 V, 50 Hz supply takes 25 A at a power factor of 0.75 lagging. Calculate the capacitance required in parallel with the motor to raise the power factor to 0.95 lagging.

1. 62.55 \(\mu\)F
2. 72.55 \(\mu\)F
3. 82.55 \(\mu\)F
4. 92.55 \(\mu\)F

Correct Ans: C

QEE49.The purpose of............ is to check the ability of the circuit breaker to withstand the overvoltages at power frequency as well as undesired value of voltage during lightning and other discharge phenomenon.

1. Dielectric test
2. Routine test
3. Synthetic test
4. Short circuit test

Correct Ans: A

QEE50.A three phase four pole 50 Hz induction motor has a rotor resistance of 0.02 \(\Omega\)/phase and stand-still reactance of 0.5 \(\Omega\)/phase. Calculate the speed at which the maximum torque is developed.

1. 1500 rpm
2. 1440 rpm
3. 1475 rpm
4. 1525 rpm

Correct Ans: B

QEE51.The sites where the capacity factor is...........are not considered suitable for wind power generation.

1. lesser than 24 %
2. greater than 24%
3. greater than 12%
4. lesser than 12%

Correct Ans: D

QEE52.A 1000 KVA ONAN cooled transformer has a load of 500 KVA throughout the day except for a period of 2 hours. What is the permissible overload for a duration of two hours. Assume the permissible load kVA as a fraction of rated KVA is 1.43.

1. 1050 KVA
2. 715 KVA
3. 1430 kVA
4. 700 KVA

Correct Ans: C

QEE53.In transformers,
Statement 1: Deterioration of oil may occur due to the result of prolonged overloading of the transformer.
Statement 2: Dielectric faults occur in the winding due to turn-to-turn insulation breakdown.

1. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
2. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE
3. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE
4. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE

Correct Ans: B

QEE54.The short circuit current of a solar cell is

1. changes logarithmically with radiation
2. inversely proportional to radiation intensity
3. constant and not affected by radiation
4. directly proportional to radiation intensity

Correct Ans: D

QEE55.Murray loop test is performed on a faulty cable 300 m long. At balance, the resistance connected to the faulty core was set at 20 \(\Omega\) and the resistance of the resistor connected to the sound core was 40 \(\Omega\). Calculate the distance of the fault point from the test end.

1. 200 m
2. 100 m
3. 300 m
4. 400 m

Correct Ans: A

QEE56.Match the following:


\(\mathbf{Buses:}\)

A. Slack Bus

B. Generator Bus

C. Load Bus


\(\mathbf{Unknown \: Values:}\)

(i) \(V, \delta\)

(ii) \(P, Q\)

(iii) \(Q, \delta\)

1. A= (ii), B = (i),C = (ii)
2. A=(ii), B(ii), C = (i)
3. A=(ii), B = (i), C = (ii)
4. A=(ii),B = (ii), C = (i)

Correct Ans: B

QEE57.A 10-pole induction motor is supplied by a 6-pole alternator, which is driven at 1400 rpm. If the motor runs with a slip of 5%, what is its speed?

1. 1575 rpm
2. 882 rpm
3. 1425 rpm
4. 798 rpm

Correct Ans: D

QEE60.The most commonly used method for the protection of three phase feeder is

1. Time graded protection
2. Differential protection
3. Reverse power protection
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

QCK1.Message..............means that the data must arrive at the receiver exactly as sent.

1. Confidentiality
2. Integrity
3. Authentication
4. None of these

Correct Ans: B

QCK2.A group of computers and other devices connected together is called a network and the concept of connected computers sharing resources is called_________.

1. Networking
2. Routing
3. Linking
4. Switching

Correct Ans: A

QCK3.Which of the following medium is used between CPU and RAM to speed up the processing power of a CPU?

1. Cache memory
2. Virtual memory
3. Flash memory
4. DRAM

Correct Ans: A

QCK4.The_________elements are specialized computers used to connect two or more transmission lines.

1. Networking
2. Broadcasting
3. Switching
4. Transfering

Correct Ans: C

QCK5.Which feature is used in Ms Word to make the selected sentence to All Capital Letters or All Small Letters?

1. Change case
2. Change sentence
3. Change capital
4. Change letter

Correct Ans: A

QCK6.Data Encryption Standard (DES) was designed by

1. Microsoft
2. Apple
3. IBM
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

QCK7.Transistors were used in

1. Second Generation Computers
2. Fourth Generation Computers
3. First Generation Computers
4. Third Generation Computers

Correct Ans: A

QCK8.Job, in operating system refers to

1. Application Software
2. Process
3. Program
4. System Software

Correct Ans: B

QCK9.Name the application under MS Office software bundle, that we use to create audio- visual presentation.

1. MS Word
2. MS Powerpoint
3. MS Excel
4. MS Access

Correct Ans: B

QCK10.Which is the function of Operating System?

1. Process Management
2. Device Management
3. Security
4. All the above

Correct Ans: D

QGL1. 'વિષમ' ની સંધિ છૂટી પાડો. ક્યો વિકલ્પ સાચો છે?

1. વિ + સમ
2. વી + સમ
3. વીસ + અમ
4. વિસ્ + અમ

Correct Ans: A

QGL2. 'હું નહિ આવી શકું' વાક્યને સ્થળવાચક ક્રિયાવિશેષણમાં ફેરવો.

1. હું આજે નહિ આવી શકું,.
2. હું કદી પણ નહિ આવી શકું
3. હું નિયમિત રીતે નહિ આવી શકે.
4. હું ચેન્નઈ નહિ આવી શકું.

Correct Ans: D

QGL3.સાબરમતી: અમદાવાદ : મૂસી

1. ગોવા
2. હૈદરાબાદ
3. લંડન
4. વેનિસ

Correct Ans: B

QGL4.નીચે પૈકી કેટલી કહેવતો વિરુદ્ધાર્થી છે?
1. પંચ બોલે તે પરમેશ્વર - ગામને મોઢે ગળણું ન બંધાય
2. ચોરની ચાર અને જોનારાની બે - વિશ્વાસે વહાણ ચાલે
3. ખાલી ચણો વાગે ગણો- અધૂરો ઘડો છલકાય
4. હાથનો કર્યાં હૈયે વાગ્યા - દીવો લઈને કૂવામાં પડવું

1. એક પણ નહીં
2. કુલ ૩
3. બધી કહેવતો સમાનાર્થી છે.
4. કુલ 1

Correct Ans: D

QGL5.દ્રશ્ય' શબ્દનો વિરુદ્ધાર્થી શબ્દ આપેલ વિકલ્પોમાંથી ક્યો છે?

1. દ્રશ્યમાન
2. અદ્રશ્ય
3. દ્રષ્ટી
4. દ્રષ્ટીવંત

Correct Ans: B

QGL6.સારું: નરસું :: શુક્લ: ?

1. અમર
2. અવિનાશી
3. કૃષ્ણ
4. પરમ

Correct Ans: C

QGL7.નીચે પૈકી'ઓસડ' નો સમાનાર્થી શબ્દ ક્યો છે?

1. અચર
2. ઔષધ
3. વૃંદા
4. અનરવું

Correct Ans: B

QGL8. 'કામકાજમાં ધ્યાન કેન્દ્રિત કરજો'
આ આજ્ઞાર્થ વાક્યની સંભાવનાર્થ વાક્યરચના કઈ હોઈ શકે ?

1. હવે તો કામકાજમાં ધ્યાન કેન્દ્રિત કરશો ને?
2. કામકાજમાં ધ્યાન કેન્દ્રિત કરી લીધું છે.
3. હવે તો તમે કામકાજમાં ધ્યાન કેન્દ્રિત કરો.
4. કામકાજમાં ધ્યાન કેન્દ્રિત નથી કરવું?

Correct Ans: A

QGL9.મેં મીઠાઈ બનાવી.' વાક્યને કેવળ ક્રિયાપદની પ્રેરક રચના કઈ છે?

1. હું મીઠાઈ બનાવવા લાગી
2. મેં જ મીઠાઈ બનાવી લીધી.
3. મેં મીઠાઈ બનાવડાવી.
4. મીઠાઈ તો હું જ બનાવું ને!

Correct Ans: C

QGL10. 1.મોટેભાગે જાણે' શબ્દ હોય ત્યારે, ઉત્પ્રેક્ષા અલંકાર બને છે.
2. જ્યારે ઉપમેય અને ઉપમાન એક જ હોય ત્યારે ઉપમા અલંકાર બને.
૩. સરખાવવામાં આવેલ બે શબ્દોની વચ્ચે જ્યારે જેવો', જેવી' જેવા શબ્દો આવે ત્યારે રૂપક અલંકાર બને.
4. જ્યારે ટીકા કે નિંદા કે વ્યંગના રૂપે પ્રશંસા કરાય ત્યારે અતિશયોક્તિ અલંકાર બને.
ઉપરોક્ત વિધાનોમાંથી કયું/ ક્યા વિધાનો સાચા છે.

1. માત્ર 4
2. 1,3
3. માત્ર 1
4. 2,4

Correct Ans: C

Q01.In the measurement of 3-phase power by two wattmeter method, if the two wattmeter readings were equal, then the power factor angle of the circuit would be:

1. \(0^\circ\)
2. \(60^\circ\)
3. \(90^\circ\)
4. \(45^\circ\)

Correct Ans: A

Q03.Low pass filter will reject________ frequency.

1. 1 MHz
2. 1 KHZ
3. 1 Hz
4. 0.01 Hz

Correct Ans: A

Q5.In a series R-L-C circuit, setting \(R = 0\) will produce

1. An over damped response
2. A critically damped response
3. An under damped response
4. An undamped response

Correct Ans: D

Q06.A network is said to be nonlinear if it does not satisfy

1. superposition condition
2. homogeneity condition
3. both superposition and homogeneity conditions
4. associative condition

Correct Ans: C

Q7.A potentiometer may be used for

1. Measurement of resistance
2. Calibration of ammeter and voltmeter
3. Measurement of current
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q8.A static charge can be eliminated by

1. Disconnecting the mains supply
2. Switching off the supply at an isolator
3. Bonding surfaces together
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q9.To avoid the effect of stray magnetic field in A.C. bridges one can be used

1. Magnetic screening
2. Wave filter
3. Wagner earthing device
4. Insulator

Correct Ans: A

Q10.Hay’s bridge is particularly useful for measuring

1. inductive impedance with large phase angle
2. mutual inductance
3. self-inductance
4. capacitance and dielectric loss

Correct Ans: A

Q11.An ammeter may have resistance in the range of________ Ω while measuring amperes

1. Mega
2. Kilo
3. Hundred
4. Mili

Correct Ans: D

Q12.The instrument used for measurement of 100 mV at 30 MHz is

1. Moving coil
2. Moving iron
3. Hot wire
4. CRO

Correct Ans: D

Q15.The temperature coefficient of resistance is negative in case of

1. Insulator
2. Conductors
3. Electrolytes
4. Both (A) and (C)

Correct Ans: D

Q16.Kirchhoff's Voltage law is concerned with

1. IR drops
2. Junction voltages
3. Battery EMF
4. Both (A) and (C)

Correct Ans: D

Q18.The direction of magnetic field produced by linear current is given by

1. Amperer's low
2. Fleming left hand rule
3. Right Hand Thumb Rule
4. Lenz's law

Correct Ans: C

Q21.The effect of armature reaction in DC Generator is

1. Weaken the main flux
2. Increase the demagnetization
3. Increase the cross magnetization
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q22.Shunt generator running at 800 R.P.M. as the generated E.M.F. as 200 V. If the speed increases to 1000 R.P.M.(assuming other conditions to remain same). The generated E.M.F. will be

1. More than 200 V
2. Less than 200 V
3. Remain unchanged
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q23.The speed of the DC shunt motor can be increased by

1. Reducing the field current
2. Reducing the armature resistance
3. Increase in field current
4. Reducing the supply voltage

Correct Ans: A

Q24.The Eddy current loss in the D.C. machine is ________ the thickness of the Stamping.

1. Directly proportional to
2. Directly proportional to square of
3. Inversely proportional to
4. Inversely proportional to square of

Correct Ans: B

Q25.Coil wound magnetic core is excited from A.C. voltage source. The source voltage and its frequency are both doubled, the Eddy current loss in the core will become

1. Half
2. Remain same
3. Doubles
4. Four times

Correct Ans: D

Q26.Under balanced operating conditions, on the two sides of star/delta transformer

1. The voltage and current are in phase
2. The voltages differ in phase by 30˚ but currents are in phase
3. The voltage and current both differ in phase by 30˚
4. The current differ in phase by 30 ˚ but voltages are in phase

Correct Ans: C

Q28.The distribution transformers have core losses_________.

1. More than full load copper loss
2. Less than full load copper loss
3. Negligible compared to full load copper loss
4. Equal to full load copper loss

Correct Ans: B

Q29.The peak value of phase MMF is Fmax, the peak value of rotating field caused by three phase is

1. 0.5 Fmax
2. Fmax
3. 1.5 Fmax
4. 2 Fmax

Correct Ans: C

Q30.A 3-phase, 8 pole induction motor has slip of 4% at full load. The full load speed of the motor is _____ r.p.m.

1. 750
2. 730
3. 725
4. 720

Correct Ans: D

Q31.The SCR is turned off, when the anode current fall below

1. Forward current rating
2. Holding current
3. Latching current
4. Load current

Correct Ans: B

Q32.The most common Gate triggering signal is

1. A short duration pulse
2. A high frequency pulse for train
3. A low frequency pulse train
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q33.When the cathode voltage of a thyristor is made more positive than its anode

1. All junctions are reverse biased
2. All junctions are forward biased
3. Outer junctions are reverse biased
4. Outer junctions are forward biased

Correct Ans: C

Q36.The uncontrolled power electronics converter may contain following switching device

1. Thyristor
2. MOSFET
3. Diode
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q37.In a thyristorised converter, a freewheeling diode is used to

1. To protect the device by providing shunt path
2. Oppose the thyristor conduction
3. Add to conduction current of thyristor
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q38.In a three-phase controlled rectifier, with an increase of overlap angle the output D.C. voltage will

1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Does not change
4. Depends upon load

Correct Ans: B

Q39.The frequency of ripple in the output voltage of a three-phase half controlled bridge rectifier depends on the

1. Firing angle
2. Load resistance
3. Load current
4. Supply frequency

Correct Ans: D

Q40.The best method for speed control of 3-phase induction motor is

1. Pole changing method
2. Frequency control method
3. Slip control method
4. Cascade connection

Correct Ans: B

Q41.If a machine is designed to operate at full load is physically heavier and costlier, if the operating power factor is

1. Leading
2. Lagging
3. Size and cost are independent of power factor
4. Unity

Correct Ans: B

Q42.For a 3-phase induction motor, the increase in the air gap will mainly results in

1. Speed reduction
2. Power factor reduction
3. Improvement in efficiency
4. Reduction in the friction

Correct Ans: B

Q43.The direction of rotation of three phase induction motor can be reversed by changing

1. Direction of current
2. Number of pole
3. Phase sequence
4. Frequency

Correct Ans: C

Q44.The rated voltage of three phase transmission line is 66 KV, the 66 KV is the

1. RMS phase value
2. Instantaneous phase value
3. Instantaneous line to line value
4. RMS line to line value

Correct Ans: D

Q45.For induction motor, operating at slip of 3% the ratio of gross power output to air gap power is equal to

1. 0.97
2. 0.94
3. 0.03
4. 1

Correct Ans: A

Q46.A Pump induction motor is switched on to 70% of supply voltage. The pump runs at 70% of the rated voltage. What will eventually happen? It will

1. Stall after sometime
2. Stall immediately
3. Get heated and subsequently damaged
4. Continue to run at low speed without damage

Correct Ans: C

Q47.The wattage rating of the normal ceiling fan motor is in the range of

1. 150 to 250 watt
2. 250 to 500 watt
3. 65 to 120 watt
4. Less than 65 watt

Correct Ans: C

Q48.Maximum torque of the induction motor depends on

1. Frequency
2. Inductive reactance
3. Square of supply voltage
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q49.Which of the following test will be suitable for testing to similar DC series motor of large capacity

1. Swinburne's test
2. Hopkinson's test
3. Field test
4. Brake test

Correct Ans: C

Q50.What will happen if the back EMF of a DC motor vanishes

1. The motor will stop
2. Motor will continue to run
3. The motor will not run smoothly
4. The armature May Burn

Correct Ans: D

Q52.The type of a transfer function denotes the number of

1. Poles at origin
2. Zeros at origin
3. Finite poles
4. Poles at infinity

Correct Ans: A

Q56.For the force current analogous system, Mass equals to _______.

1. Inductance
2. Resistance
3. Capacitance
4. Voltage

Correct Ans: C

Q57.Signal flow graph is used to find

1. stability of the system
2. controllability of the system
3. transfer function of the system
4. poles of the system

Correct Ans: C

Q58.The final value theorem is used to find the_________ of the system.

1. Steady state value
2. Damping
3. Transient behaviour
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q59.Laplace transforming (Laplace transform and its inverse) a differential equation gives

1. Steady state response
2. Transient response
3. Both (A) and (B)
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q60.For stability, the coefficient of the exponential terms in the transient response must be

1. Negative real numbers
2. Complex numbers with negative real parts
3. Positive real numbers
4. Both (A) and (B)

Correct Ans: D

Q61.The rate of rise of restriking (RRRV) voltage depends on

1. both inductance and capacitance of the system
2. the type of circuit breaker
3. the inductance of the system only
4. the capacitance of the system only

Correct Ans: A

Q62.The Per unit system is not applicable to

1. Voltage magnitude
2. Impedance
3. Power
4. Phase shift

Correct Ans: D

Q63.The rating of a circuit breaker is usually determined on the basis of ____ fault

1. Symmetrical
2. line to line
3. single line to ground
4. double line to ground

Correct Ans: A

Q64.Distance relays operation is dependent upon the ratio of

1. Voltage to current
2. Current to current
3. Current to voltage
4. Voltage to voltage

Correct Ans: A

Q65.Only positive sequence component of current is present in case of _________ fault.

1. Line to ground
2. Line-line to ground
3. Line to line
4. Line-Line-Line to ground

Correct Ans: D

Q66.The swing equation gives the variation of__________ with respect to time.

1. Power
2. Mechanical power
3. Torque angle
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q67.The most appropriate operating speeds in rpm of generators used in thermal, nuclear and hydro power plants would respectively be

1. 3000, 3000 and 1500
2. 3000, 3000 and 300
3. 1500, 1500 and 500
4. 1000, 900 and 750

Correct Ans: B

Q68.The circuit breaker is rated at 1200 A, 1500MVA, 33KV, 3-phase OCB then the making and breaking current is _________ respectively

1. 26.25 KA and 67 KA
2. 67 KA and 26.25 KA
3. 45.45 KA and 63 KA
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q69.The line current in three phase supply to an unbalanced load respectively \(I_r = 4 + j6, \: I_y = 2 + j2 \: and \: I_b = -3 - j2\). Then the zero sequence current is

1. 9 + j18
2. 1 + j2
3. 3 + j6
4. 3 - j6

Correct Ans: B

Q70.An 11KV alternator with 8% reactance will have 2% reactance at the base of

1. 44 KV
2. 22 KV
3. 121 KV
4. 33 KV

Correct Ans: B

Q71.Zero power factor method for an alternator is generally used to determine

1. Synchronous impedance of alternator
2. Efficiency of alternator
3. Voltage regulation of alternator
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q72.When the spacing between the conductors is increased, the inductance of the transmission line will

1. Increase
2. Remain same
3. Decrease
4. Can't say

Correct Ans: A

Q73.V curves for synchronous motor represent relation between

1. Field current and speed
2. Power factor and speed
3. Armature current and field current
4. Terminal voltage and load current

Correct Ans: C

Q74.The power transfer capacity of the transmission line is always limited by

1. \(I^2 R\) losses in the line
2. Stability consideration
3. Voltage rating of the line
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q75.The insulation strength of 400 KV EHV line is generally governed by

1. Switching overvoltage
2. Transient overvoltage
3. Power frequency overvoltage
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q76.The GS method of load flow study has the following drawback over NR method

1. More memory requirement
2. More programming effort
3. Application to large power system only
4. More iteration

Correct Ans: D

Q77.For optimum generator scheduling for different power plants, the minimum fuel cost is obtained when

1. The incremental fuel cost of each plant is the same.
2. The penalty factor of each plant is same
3. The incremental fuel cost of each plant multiplied by the penalty factor is the same
4. The ratio of the incremental fuel cost of each plant to the penalty factor is the same.

Correct Ans: C

Q78.Identify the correct statement

1. Steady state stability limit is greater than the transient stability limit
2. Steady state stability limit is equal to transient stability limit
3. Steady state stability limit is less than the transient stability limit
4. No generalization can be made for both types of limits

Correct Ans: A

Q79.The main Criterion for selection of size of the distribution line for radial distributor is

1. Voltage drop
2. Insulation
3. Corona loss
4. Capital cost

Correct Ans: A

Q80.In the load flow analysis, when the reactive power limit is hit at the generator

1. The PQ bus is converted to PV bus
2. The PV bus is converted to PQ bus
3. The load flow does not converge
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q81.Which of the following is the maximum size of memory for 12 address line 8 bit microprocessor

1. 10KB
2. 64KB
3. 4KB
4. 100KB

Correct Ans: C

Q82.Conductors and semiconductors can be easily classified according to

1. Conductivity
2. Band gap energy
3. Melting point
4. Temperature coefficient of resistance

Correct Ans: B

Q83.The lowest input impedance is obtained by_________ configuration.

1. CE
2. CB
3. CC
4. CE & CB

Correct Ans: B

Q84.The input impedance of good Op amp is expected to be of the order of

1. A few Ω
2. 1 KΩ
3. 10 KΩ
4. More than 100 KΩ

Correct Ans: D

Q85.In a BJT forward characteristics, for normal function as an amplifier the BJT should be operated in

1. Saturation
2. Active region
3. Cut off
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q87.2's complement can be obtained from 1's complement by

1. Adding 1
2. Subtracting 1
3. Replacing all 1 and 0 by 0 and 1 respectively
4. Putting 1 as leading bit

Correct Ans: A

Q88.For a logical circuit there are 3 binary inputs. A truth table for the inputs and output is constructed, the number of different inputs in the truth table is

1. 3
2. 7
3. 9
4. 8

Correct Ans: D

Q89.In the microprocessor 8085, the address of the next instruction to be executed is stored in

1. Stack pointer
2. Address latch
3. Special function resistor
4. Program counter

Correct Ans: D

Q91.For the circuit breakers, recovery voltage across the breaker poles depends on

1. Circuit conditions
2. Armature reaction
3. Power factor
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q92.Synchronous motor can operate at________ power factor.

1. Lagging
2. Leading
3. Unity
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q93.In a power system, the maximum number of buses are

1. P-Q bus
2. P-V bus
3. Slack bus
4. Infinite bus

Correct Ans: A

Q94.Synchronous motor is switched on to supply with its field winding shorted on themselves. It will

1. Not start
2. Start and run as an induction motor
3. Start and run as a synchronous motor
4. Burn immediately

Correct Ans: B

Q95.The function of Steel wire in an ACSR conductor is to

1. Compensate for skin effect
2. Take care of surges
3. Provide additional mechanical strength
4. Reduce inductance

Correct Ans: C

Q96.Synchronous generator is feeding power to an infinite bus via a transmission line. At the middle of the line a shunt capacitor is connected. The stability limit will

1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Remains same
4. Depends on the voltage magnitude

Correct Ans: D

Q97.The voltages at the two different buses in the system is given by \(V_1=0.9∠10˚\) and \(V_2=1.0∠0˚\). The direction of real power transfer will be from

1. Bus 1 to 2
2. Bus 2 to 1
3. Depend on load
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q98.The \(Y_{bus}\) matrix is a sparse matrix because

1. It is a mathematical reason
2. Number of PQ buses are less
3. Number of PV buses are less
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q99.For good voltage profile at the no load for a long transmission line________ is required.

1. Shunt resistance
2. Shunt reactor
3. Shunt capacitor
4. Series capacitor

Correct Ans: B

Q100.The equal area Criterion is used in the ________ stability studies.

1. Steady state
2. Transient
3. Dynamic
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q1.A series motor is best suited for driving

1. Lathes
2. Cranes and hoists
3. Shears and punches
4. Machine tools

Correct Ans: B

Q2.What is the phenomenon of rise in voltage at the receiving end of the open circuited or lightly loaded line is called ?

1. Ferranti effect
2. Skin effect
3. Raman effect
4. none

Correct Ans: A

Q3.An unsaturated shunt motor runs at its rated speed when rated voltage is applied to it. If the supply voltage to the motor is reduced by 25% the speed of the motor

1. increases by 25%
2. remains the same
3. decreases by 25%
4. increases slightly

Correct Ans: B

Q4.An over current relay having a current setting of 125% is connected to a supply circuit through a current transformer of ratio 400/5. The pick up value is

1. 6.25 A
2. 15 A
3. 10A
4. 12.5 A

Correct Ans: A

Q5.A 50 Hz, 4-pole single-phase induction motor will have a synchronous speed of

1. 1500 r.p.m.
2. 750 r.p.m.
3. 1200 r.p.m.
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q6.The chances of corona are maximum in

1. domestic wiring
2. distribution lines
3. transmission lines
4. all of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q7.Water hammer occurs in

1. penstock
2. surge tank
3. turbine casing
4. draft tube

Correct Ans: A

Q8. Which one of the following load would be best driven by a d.c. compound motor ?

1. Reciprocation pump
2. Centrifugal pump
3. Electric locomotive
4. Fan

Correct Ans: A

Q9.A power plant operates at an annual load factor of 80% with an average load of 120 MW. If the load factor falls to 60%, the average load on the plant would be

1. 200 MW
2. 160 MW
3. 90 MW
4. 72 MW

Correct Ans: C

Q10.The following electrical measuring instrument depend on chemical effect for its action

1. Ammeter
2. Voltmeter
3. D.C. Ampere - Hour meter
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q12.Following parameter(s) may affect the performance of a motor

1. Voltage unbalance & Voltage variation
2. System harmonics
3. Altitude & Ambient temperature
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q13.A 3-phase induction motor is running at 2% slip. If the input to rotor is 1000 W, then mechanical power developed by the motor is

1. 20 W
2. 980 W
3. 500 W
4. 200 W

Correct Ans: B

Q14. The opposite of susceptibility is

1. Immunity
2. Emission
3. Interference
4. Electromagnetic compatibility

Correct Ans: A

Q15.Load factor of a power station is defined as

1. \(maximum \: demand / average \: load\)
2. \(average \: load \times maximum \: demand\)
3. \(average \: load / maximum \: demand\)
4. \(\sqrt{average \: load \times maximum \: demand}\)

Correct Ans: C

Q16.When load is removed ______________motor will run at the highest speed.

1. Series
2. Shunt
3. Cumulative compound
4. Differential compound

Correct Ans: A

Q17.High-speed alternators are driven by

1. diesel engines
2. hydraulic turbines
3. steam turbines
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q18.If the capacitance of a system is doubled, then its energy stored becomes

1. 2 times
2. Unaltered
3. 4 times
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q19. As compared to underground system, the overhead system is

1. more expensive
2. less flexible
3. more flexible
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q20. In a single phase induction motor running at a slip of 5 % with reference to forward field, the slip with reference to backward field is

1. 0
2. 0.95
3. 1.95
4. 2

Correct Ans: C

Q22.Ideal voltage source have

1. zero internal resistance
2. infinite internal resistance
3. low value of current
4. large value of e.m.f.

Correct Ans: A

Q23.Any electrical signal present in a circuit other than the desired signal is known as

1. Noise
2. Distortion
3. Interference
4. All of these

Correct Ans: A

Q24.The string efficiency of a string of suspension insulators is dependent on

1. size of insulators
2. number of discs in the string
3. size of tower
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q25.An electric iron drawing 9 A from 120 V supply mains is operated for 20 minutes, the energy consumed is

1. 1080 W
2. 3 Ah
3. 0.6 kWh
4. 360 Wh

Correct Ans: D

Q26.The arc voltage in a circuit breaker is

1. in the phase with the arc current
2. lagging the arc current by 90°
3. leading the arc current by 90°
4. lagging the arc current by 180°

Correct Ans: A

Q27.A circuit breaker is a

1. current controlling device
2. circuit interrupting device
3. current limiting device
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q28.The electrical conductivity of metals is typically of the order of (in \(ohm^{-1}\)\(m^{-1}\))

1. \(10^7\)
2. \(10^5\)
3. \(10^{-4}\)
4. \(10^{-6}\)

Correct Ans: A

Q29.The following contact is largely used for low-voltage oil circuit breaker

1. Tulip type contacts
2. Finger and wedge contacts
3. Butt Contact
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q30.The normal current in a power line is 100 A. If a short-circuit fault occurs on the line, then one can expect the short-circuit current to be

1. 200 A
2. 300 A
3. more than 1000 A
4. 100 A

Correct Ans: C

Q31.A short circuit between one line and ground, very often caused by physical contact is known as

1. Single-Line-to-Ground Fault
2. Line-to-line Fault
3. Double line-to- Ground Fault
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q32.The no. of turns in a secondary coil is twice the number of turns in the primary. A cell of 1.5 V is connected across the primary. The voltage across the secondary is

1. 1.5 V
2. 3 V
3. 0.75 V
4. Zero

Correct Ans: D

Q33.A.C. Potentiometer can be used for the following

1. Voltmeter calibration
2. Ammeter calibration
3. Testing of energy meters and wattmeter
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q34.A parallel plate air capacitor has a capacitance of 100 pF. A Potential difference of 50 V is applied. The stored energy is__________ joules.

1. \(1.25 \times10^{-7}\)
2. \(2.50 \times 10^{-7}\)
3. \(40 \times 10^{-9}\)
4. \(20 \times 10^{-9}\)

Correct Ans: A

Q35. What is the efficiency of a power plant if the efficiencies of the boiler, turbine and generator are 88 %, 40 % and 98 % respectively ?

1. 88%
2. 40%
3. 35%
4. 98%

Correct Ans: C

Q36.Merz-Price circulating current principles is more suitable for

1. Generators
2. Transformers
3. Both (A) & (B)
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: \(\mathbf{Question \: was \: cancelled \: by \: authority}\)

Q37.A 100 MW power station delivers 100 MW for 2 hours. 50 MW for 6 hours and is shut down for the rest of each day. It is also shut down for maintenance for 45 days each year. Energy supplied per year is

1. \(12 \times 10^4 \: MWh\)
2. \(8 \times 10^4 \: MWh\)
3. \(6 \times 10^5 \: MWh\)
4. \(16 \times 10^4 \: MWh\)

Correct Ans: D

Q38.A power plant with a load factor of 0.5 produces energy of 16,000 MWh with a maximum demand of 8000 kW over a time period. For how many hours has the plant been in operation ?

1. 8000 hrs.
2. 4000 hrs.
3. 8760 hrs.
4. 1000 hrs.

Correct Ans: B

Q39.An RLC circuit has a resonance frequency of 160 kHz and a Q-factor of 100. Its band width is

1. 1.6 kHz
2. 0.625 kHz
3. 16 MHz
4. None of these

Correct Ans: A

Q40.An inverter circuit is employed to convert

1. a.c. voltage into d.c. voltage
2. d.c. voltage into a.c. voltage
3. high frequency into low frequency
4. low frequency into high frequency

Correct Ans: B

Q41.A thermal generating station has an installed capacity of 15 MW and supplies a load of 10 MW for 12 hours and 5 MW for remaining 12 hours. The plant capacity factor for this station is

1. 0.5
2. 0.75
3. 0.67
4. 1

Correct Ans: A

Q42.A 132 kV transmission line uses strings of insulators, each insulator rated at 25 kV. The string efficiency can be maximum of 60%. The least number of insulators required in a string is

1. 10
2. 9
3. 8
4. 6

Correct Ans: D

Q43. The meter that is suitable for only direct current measurements is

1. Moving-iron type
2. Permanent-magnet type
3. Electrodynamic type
4. Hot-wire type

Correct Ans: B

Q44.A 3-phase induction motor draws a current of 50 A from mains when started by direct switching. If an auto transformer with 60% tapping is used for starting, the current drawn from the mains will be

1. 50 A
2. 18 A
3. 36 A
4. 83.3 A

Correct Ans: B

Q45.Brass will have relative permeability, \(\mu_r\) equal to

1. 2000
2. 0
3. 1
4. 1000

Correct Ans: C

Q46.In the following Bus active and reactive powers are not specified

1. Load Bus
2. Generator Bus
3. Slack Bus
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q47.A generating station has an installed capacity of 50,000 kW and delivers \(220 \times 10^6\) units per annum. If the annual fixed charges are Rs.160 per kW installed capacity and running charges are 4 paise per kWh, the cost per unit generated is

1. 4.38 paise
2. 5.92 paise
3. 7.64 paise
4. 11.72 paise

Correct Ans: C

Q49.An electromagnetic field is radiated from

1. a stationery point charge
2. a capacitor with a d.c. voltage
3. a conductor carrying a d.c. current
4. an oscillating dipole

Correct Ans: D

Q50.A delta-delta, 3-phase transformer bank will have a phase shift between the primary and secondary voltages of

1. 0°
2. 30°
3. 90°
4. -30°

Correct Ans: A

Q51.If the fault current is 2000 A, the relay setting is 50% and CT ratio is 400:5, the plug setting multiplier is

1. 25
2. 15
3. 50
4. 10

Correct Ans: D

Q52.If the insulation resistance of a cable of length 10 Km is 1 M\(\Omega\), its insulation resistance for 50 Km length will be

1. 1 M\(\Omega\)
2. 5 M\(\Omega\)
3. 0.2 M\(\Omega\)
4. 2 M\(\Omega\)

Correct Ans: C

Q54.An energy meter having a meter constant of 1200 rev. per kWh is found to make 5 revolutions in 75 seconds. The load power is

1. 500 W
2. 100 W
3. 200 W
4. 1000 W

Correct Ans: C

Q55.In a 3-wire d.c. system, the load on the \( + \: ve\) side is 400 A and on \( - \: ve\) side it is 300 A. Then current in neutral wire is

1. 50 A
2. 100 A
3. 350 A
4. 150 A

Correct Ans: B

Q57.An industrial installation has a power factor of 0.8 lagging. It would be economical to improve pf to

1. Unity
2. about 0.8 lagging
3. about 0.95 lagging
4. about 0.95 leading

Correct Ans: C

Q58. An alternator is supplying a load of 300 kW at a p.f. of 0.6 lagging. If the p.f. is raised to unity, how many more kW can alternator supply?

1. 200 kW
2. 100 kW
3. 300 kW
4. 150 kW

Correct Ans: A

Q60.A low oil circuit breaker has the following advantage over a bulk oil circuit breaker

1. It requires a small space
2. The degree of carbonization is increased
3. Maintenance problems are increased
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q61.The pitch of Arc with 96 stator slots and 6 pole is

1. 36
2. 16
3. 48
4. 32

Correct Ans: B

Q64.For Bulk power transmission over long distance HVDC is preffered because of

1. minimum line losses
2. of low cost
3. no harmonic problems
4. simple protection schemes

Correct Ans: A

Q65.A distribution transformer costing Rs. 50,000 has a salvage value of Rs. 5000. If annual depreciation charge is Rs. 3000 on straight line method, the useful life of the transformer is

1. 10 years
2. 15 years
3. 5 years
4. 25 years

Correct Ans: B

Q66. If the percentage reactance of the system up to the fault point is 20 % and base KVA is 10000, then short circuit KVA is

1. 10000 KVA
2. 50000 KVA
3. 500 KVA
4. 30000 KVA

Correct Ans: B

Q66.If the percentage reactance of the system up to the fault point is 20 % and base kVA is 10000, then short circuit kVA is

1. 10,000 kVA
2. 50,000 kVA
3. 500 kVA
4. 30,000 kVA

Correct Ans: B

Q67. Which of the following is moderator in a nuclear power reactor?

1. Beryllium
2. Plutonium
3. Cadmium
4. Thorium

Correct Ans: A

Q68.The following is not a basic element of a transformer

1. Primary winding
2. Secondary winding
3. Mutual flux
4. Core

Correct Ans: C

Q69.The time-current graph of a fuse

1. has linear characteristic
2. is a circle
3. has inverse characteristic
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q70.The medium used for arc extinction in ABCB is

1. Oil
2. Air
3. \(SF_6\)
4. Vacuum

Correct Ans: B

Q71.Which of the following relays is used on long transmission lines ?

1. Mho's relay
2. Impedance relay
3. Reactance relay
4. none

Correct Ans: A

Q73.In a hydroelectric project, catchment area \(= 5 \times 10^9 m^2\); annual rainfall = 1.25 m and yield factor = 80%. The volume of water which can be utilized per annum is

1. \(2.5 \times 10^7 \: m^3\)
2. \(5 \times 10^9 \: m^3\)
3. \(6.5 \times 10^8 \: m^3\)
4. \(7.5 \times 10^6 \: m^3\)

Correct Ans: B

Q74.During a test on 6 kVA transformer it is found that iron losses are 120 W, full load copper losses are 200. The total losses at half full load will be

1. 80 W
2. 160 W
3. 320 W
4. 170 W

Correct Ans: D

Q75.A d-c shunt motor runs at rated speed. If its field circuit gets open circuited, the motor speed

1. decreases drastically
2. remains unchanged
3. increases dangerously
4. fluctuates around its previous speed

Correct Ans: C

Q76.Compared to steam engines, the internal combustion engines have

1. much higher thermal efficiency
2. almost same thermal efficiency as that of steam engines
3. much lower thermal efficiency
4. can have lower or higher thermal efficiency

Correct Ans: A

Q77. A wave winding must go at least ________around the armature before it closes back where it started.

1. Once
2. Twice
3. Thrice
4. four times

Correct Ans: B

Q78.In a series circuit, under resonant condition, the following quantities are maximum

1. Voltage and Current
2. Current and Power factor
3. Impedance and Current
4. Impedance and Power factor

Correct Ans: B

Q79.A transformer gives maximum efficiency when it operates at full load. Total losses at full load are 400 W. Copper losses at half load are

1. 200 W
2. 400 W
3. 100 W
4. 50 W

Correct Ans: D

Q80.The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, is known as:

1. Permeability
2. unsymmetrical fault
3. skin effect
4. corona

Correct Ans: C

Q81.The most efficient form of damping employed in electrical instruments is

1. Air friction
2. Fluid friction
3. Eddy currents
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q82.Lenz's law is consequence of the law of conservation of

1. induced current
2. charge
3. energy
4. induced e.m.f.

Correct Ans: C

Q83.An over-excited synchronous motor behaves as ……….

1. a resistor
2. an inductor
3. a capacitor
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q84.A 1000 KVA transformer has reactance of 5%. Its reactance at 2000 KVA base is

1. 5%
2. 2.5%
3. 20%
4. 10%

Correct Ans: D

Q85.A steam power station has an overall efficiency of 20% and 0.6 kg of coal is burnt per kWh of electrical energy generated. The calorific value of fuel is

1. 7166 kcal/kg
2. 5152 kcal/kg
3. 2458 kcal/kg
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q86.The voltage drop is the main consideration while designing a

1. Radial system
2. Feeder
3. Service mains
4. Distributor

Correct Ans: D

Q87.The transient phenomenon lasts in a power system for a period ranging from

1. few ms to 1 s
2. 1 s to 2 s
3. 2 s to 3 s
4. greater than 3 s

Correct Ans: A

Q88.Hay’s bridge is particularly useful for measuring

1. inductive impedance with large phase angle
2. mutual inductance
3. self-inductance
4. capacitance and dielectric loss

Correct Ans: A

Q89.Feeder is designed mainly from the point of view of

1. its current carrying capacity
2. voltage drop in it
3. operating voltage
4. operating frequency

Correct Ans: A

Q91.Transmission efficiency increases as

1. voltage increases but
   power factor decreases
2. voltage decreases but power factor increases
3. voltage and power factor both increase
4. voltage and power factor both decrease.

Correct Ans: C

Q93.The circuit breaker must have the following rating(s)

1. breaking capacity
2. making capacity
3. short-time capacity
4. all of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q94.A voltmeter gives 120 oscillations per minute when connected to the rotor of an induction motor. The supply frequency is 50 Hz. The slip of the motor is

1. 0.02
2. 0.05
3. 0.25
4. 0.04

Correct Ans: D

Q95.The rotor voltage of a slip-ring induction motor gives 120 oscillations per minute when the motor is connected to 3-phase, 50Hz supply. The percentage slip of the rotor is

1. 2
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

Correct Ans: B

Q96.A four-speed squirrel cage induction motor uses ………… stator windings.

1. Four
2. Three
3. One
4. Two

Correct Ans: D

Q97.A network is said to be nonlinear if it does not satisfy

1. superposition condition
2. homogeneity condition
3. both superposition and homogeneity conditions
4. associative condition

Correct Ans: C

Q99.An overhead line conductor has a cross sectional area of \(3.2 \: cm^2\). It is supported on level supports of a span of \(150 \: m\). The specific weight of the conductor is \(7800 \: kg/m^3\), and the working stress is \(1050 \: kg/cm^2\). What is the working tension?

1. 1560 kg
2. 2416 kg
3. 3360 kg
4. 986 kg

Correct Ans: C

QEE2.Consider the following statements associated with Buchholz's relays.
Statement 1: Buchholz's relay is a current operated device.
Statement 2: Buchholz's relay is placed between the transformer tank and the conservator.

1. Both statement 1 and statement 2 are FALSE
2. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE
3. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
4. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE

Correct Ans: B

QEE3.A circuit breaker is rated 2500 A, 2000 MVA, 33 kV, 3 sec, 3-phase oil circuit breaker. Determine the breaking current.

1. 350 kA
2. 35 kA
3. 2500 kA
4. 25 kA

Correct Ans: B

QEE4.Interposing current-tansformer (CT) is used differential protection of a transformer to

1. increase the sensitivity of the relay
2. limit the main CT secondary current
3. match the standerd ratio of CTs used on both sided of the transformer
4. mainimize the effect of saturation of the main CTs

Correct Ans: C

QEE5.In a typical DC micro grid, hybrid storage system is a combination of

1. Lead acid battery and Lithium ion battery
2. Lead acid battery and capacitor
3. Lead acid battery and ultra capacitor / super capacitor
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

QEE6.In a power network, 400 kV is recorded at a 415 kV bus. A 50 MVAR, 415 kV shunt reactor is connected to the bus. What is the reactive power absorbed by the shunt reactor?

1. 66.45 MVAR
2. 46.45 MVAR
3. 76.45 MVAR
4. 56.45 MVAR

Correct Ans: B

QEE7.A circular loop has its radius increasing at a rate of 2 m/s. The loop is placed perpendicular to a constant magnetic field of 0.1 Wb/\(m^2\) . When the radius of the loop is 2m, the emf induced in the loop will be

1. 0.4\(\pi\) V
2. 0.2\(\pi\) V
3. 0.8\(\pi\) V
4. zero

Correct Ans: C

QEE8.A single phase 240 V, 1 kW heater is connected across single phase 240 V, 50 Hz supply through an SCR. For firing angle delay of 90°, calculate the power absorbed in the heater element.

1. 275 W
2. 225 W
3. 300 W
4. 250 W

Correct Ans: D

QEE10.The expression for voltage regulation of a short transmission line for leading Power factor is given by: ……………….., where, 'I' is the line current, \(V_R\) is the receiving end voltage, 'R' is the line resistance and 'X' is the line reactance.

1. \(\frac{IXcos\phi_R\:-\:IRsin\phi_R}{V_R}\)
2. \(\frac{IRcos\phi_R\:+\:IXsin\phi_R}{V_R}\)
3. \(\frac{IRcos\phi_R\:-\:IXsin\phi_R}{V_R}\)
4. \(\frac{IXcos\phi_R\:+\:IRsin\phi_R}{V_R}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE11.A 1000 kVA ONAN cooled transformer has a load of 500 kVA throughout the day except for a period of 4 hours. What is the permissible overload for a duration of four hours. Assume the permissible load kVA as a fraction of rated kVA is 1.24.

1. 1240 kVA
2. 930 kVA
3. 620 kVA
4. 2480 kVA

Correct Ans: A

QEE12.A MOSFET rated for 15 A, carries a periodic current as shown in Fig. The ON state resistance of the MOSFET is 0.15 \(\Omega\). The average ON state loss in the MOSFET is

1. 15 W
2. 33.8 W
3. 7.5 W
4. 3.8 W

Correct Ans: C

QEE15.In a test by Murray loop for ground fault on 600 m of cable having a resistance of \(1.5 \Omega/km\), the faulty cable is looped with a sound cable of the same length and area of cross section. If the ratio of the other two arms of the testing network at balance is 3 : 1, find the distance of the fault from the testing end of cables.

1. 400 m
2. 200 m
3. 100 m
4. 300 m

Correct Ans: D

QEE16.In a single phase energy meter, the shunt electromagnet is energized by a ................. of ............

1. pressure coil, thick wire of few turns
2. current coil, thick wire of few turns
3. pressure coil, thin wire of more turns
4. current coil, thin wire of more turns

Correct Ans: C

QEE17.When different types of consumers are charged at different uniform per unit rates, it is called as .....................

1. two-part tariff
2. flat rate tariff
3. block rate tariff
4. maximum demand tariff

Correct Ans: B

QEE18.The voltage applied to a transformer primary is increased keeping V/f constant. With this, the core loss ………………. and the magnetizing current \(I_m\) …………

1. remains constant, decreases
2. increases, remains constant
3. increases, increases
4. decreases, increases

Correct Ans: B

QEE19.In a short circuit test on circuit breaker, time to reach the peak re-striking voltage is 50 \(\mu\)s with the peak restriking voltage of 100 kV. Determine average RRRV (Rate of rise re-striking voltage)?

1. 1 x \(10^6\) kV/sec
2. 4 x \(10^6\) kV/sec
3. 3 x \(10^6\) kV/sec
4. 2 x \(10^6\) kV/sec

Correct Ans: D

QEE20.In transformer, a Sweep Frequency Response Analysis (SFRA) test will help detect ................

1. Aging byproducts
2. Moisture in the windings
3. Movement / damage to internal components
4. Age of the insulation

Correct Ans: C

QEE21.The line currents in amperes in phases a, b and c respectively are 500 +j150, 100 – j600 and – 300 + j600 referred to the same reference vector with phase sequence of 'abc'. Find the symmetrical component of currents.

1. \(I_{a0} = (100 + j50)\) A
   
   \(I_{a1} = (546.41 + j165.47)\) A
   \(I_{a2} = (-146.41 - j65.47)\) A
2. \(I_{a0} = (100 + j50)\) A
   
   \(I_{a1} = (146.41 + j65.47)\) A
   
   \(I_{a2} = (546.41 - j165.47)\) A
3. \(I_{a0} = (100 + j50)\) A
   
   \(I_{a1} = (200 + j107.75)\) A
   
   \(I_{a2} = (200 - j107.75)\) A
4. \(I_{a0} = (100 + j50)\) A
   
   \(I_{a1} = (546.41 + j165.47)\) A
   \(I_{a2} = (546.41 - j165.47)\) A

Correct Ans: A

QEE23.A wire pilot is generally economical for distances up to

1. 30 km to 60 km
2. 20 to 25 km
3. 75 km to 100 km
4. 10 km to 15 km

Correct Ans: D

QEE24.In the context of smart meters, the term ' SMETS ' stand for

1. Smart Metering Equipment Technical Specifications
2. Smart Monitoring Equipment Technical Specifications
3. Standard Monitoring Equipment Technical Specifications
4. Standard Metering Equipment Technical Specifications

Correct Ans: A

QEE25.A short-shunt dc compound generator supplies 50 A at 300 V. If the shunt field resistance, series field resistance and armature resistance are 30 \(\omega\), 0.03 \(\omega\), and 0.05 \(\omega\) respectively, determine the e.m.f. generated.

1. 304.5 V
2. 306.5 V
3. 302.5 V
4. 308.5 V

Correct Ans: A

QEE26.A 50 Hz synchronous generator is connected to an infinite bus through a line. The p.u. reactances of generator and the line are j0.3 p.u. and j0.2 p.u. respectively. The generator no load voltage is 1.1 p.u. and that of infinite bus is 1.0 p.u. The inertia constant of the generator is 4 MW-sec/MVA. Determine the frequency of natural oscillations if the generator is loaded to 60% of its maximum power transfer capacity and small perturbation in power is given.

1. 1.42 Hz
2. 1.62 Hz
3. 1.32 Hz
4. 1.52 Hz

Correct Ans: C

QEE27.Which of the following does the term 'feeder automation' include?

1. automatic reclosing
2. substation reactive power control
3. feeder remote point voltage control
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

QEE28................... are long-term (hours-long) voltage sags caused by system overload.

1. Black outs
2. Voltage surges
3. Brownouts
4. Voltage dips

Correct Ans: C

QEE29.The wind speed increases with height because of

1. reduction of drag effect of the earth surface
2. reduction in lift effect of the air
3. enhancement of drag effect on the earth surface
4. reduction in the gravitational force

Correct Ans: A

QEE30.A power factor less than unity results in which of the following disadvantages?
(i) Large kVA rating of equipment
(ii)Poor voltage regulation
(iii) Greater conductor size

1. (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. (ii) and (iii) only
3. (i) and (iii) only
4. (i) and (ii) only

Correct Ans: A

QEE31.A THHN conductor will have a \(60^\circ C\) termination on one end and a \(75^\circ C\) termination on the other, which ampacity column will be used?

1. \(60^\circ\)C column
2. \(75^\circ\)C column
3. \(90^\circ\)C column
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: A

QEE32.A three-phase, 4-pole, 50 Hz induction motor runs at 1425 rpm. Find out the percentage slip of the induction motor.

1. 5%
2. 6%
3. 3%
4. 4%

Correct Ans: A

QEE33.According to Global Wind Energy Council in 2016, India ranked .............. in the Global Wind Power Installed Capacity Index with cumulative installed wind power generation.

1. Third
2. Second
3. First
4. Fourth

Correct Ans: D

QEE34.In a synchronous motor with field under excited, the power factor will be

1. unity
2. zero
3. lagging
4. leading

Correct Ans: C

QEE35.A sudden, non power frequency change in the steady state condition of voltage or current that is bidirectional in polarity is called as

1. Distortion
2. Harmonic
3. Oscillatory transients
4. Impulsive transient

Correct Ans: C

QEE36.A three-phase 400 V, 6-pole, 50 Hz squirrel-cage induction motor is running at a slip of 5%. The speed of rotor with respect to stator magnetic field and speed of the stator magnetic field with respect to rotor magnetic field are

1. 950 rpm, 1000 rpm
2. 950 rpm, zero
3. -50 rpm, 1000 rpm
4. -50 rpm, zero

Correct Ans: D

QEE38.Which one of these is not a monitoring and diagnostic test for transformer oil?

1. Dissolved Metals Analysis
2. Furanic Compound Analysis
3. Volatility Level Analysis
4. Dissolved Gas Analysis

Correct Ans: C

QEE39.In circuit breaker, the term MCCB stands for

1. miniature compact circuit breaker
2. molded case circuit breaker
3. modern closed circuit breaker
4. miniature case circuit breaker

Correct Ans: B

QEE40.Which one of the following statement with respect to Aerial Bunched Cables (ABC) system is TRUE?

1. ABC system is not suitable for rural electrification which are situated in difficult terrain, hills, forests and coastal areas.
2. The overall cost of the ABC system is very high as compared to the bare conductor system.
3. ABC system totally eliminates the fault on lines and thereby improving the quality of supply.
4. ABC system requires more clearance, insulators and high maintenance.

Correct Ans: C

QEE41.A generating station having 'n' section busbars each rated at Q kVA with \(x \%\) reactance is connected on the tie-bars system through busbar reactances of b%. Determine the short-circuit kVA if a 3-phase fault takes place on one section.

1. \(Q[\frac{1}{x}+\frac{n+1}{bn-x}]\)
2. \(Q[\frac{1}{x}-\frac{n+1}{bn-x}]\)
3. \(Q[\frac{1}{x}+\frac{n+1}{bn+x}]\)
4. \(Q[\frac{1}{x}+\frac{n-1}{bn+x}]\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE42.If the velocity of electromagnetic wave in free space is \(3 \times10^8\: m/s\), then the velocity in a medium with \(\varepsilon_r\) of 4.5 and \(\mu_r\) of 2 would be

1. \(1\times10^8\:m/s\)
2. \(3\times10^8\:m/s\)
3. \(9\times10^8\:m/s\)
4. \(27\times10^8\:m/s\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE44.

1. A = (iii) & (2); B = (ii) & (1); C = (i) & (3)
2. A = (i) & (3); B = (iii) & (2); C = (ii) & (1)
3. A = (ii) & (1); B = (iii) & (2); C = (i) & (3)
4. A = (iii) & (2); B = (i) & (3); C = (ii) & (1)

Correct Ans: D

QEE45.Thermocouples can be connected in series/parallel to obtain greater sensitivity called as

1. Thermopile
2. Thermistor
3. Thermometer
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

QEE46.The miniature circuit breaker (MCB) with Class D trip characteristics trips instantaneously when the current flowing through it reaches ................. the rated current.

1. between 5 to 10 times
2. between 2 to 3 times
3. between 3 to 5 times
4. between 10 to 20 times

Correct Ans: D

QEE47.The necessary equation to be solved during the load flow analysis using Fast-Decoupled method is given below:
Where B' and B" are formed using the imaginary part of the bus admittance matrix, \(Y_{bus}\). If the system consists of 6 buses of which one of the bus is slack bus and 2 buses are voltage regulated buses, then the matrix B' is of order ........ and the matrix B" is order ....... respectively.


\(\frac{\Delta P}{|V_i|} = -B^{'} \Delta \delta\)


\(\frac{\Delta Q}{|V_i|} = -B^{"} \; \Delta |V|\)

1. 5 and 3
2. 3 and 6
3. 6 and 3
4. 3 and 5

Correct Ans: A

QEE48.Which one of the following statement is TRUE?

1. In the cables, sheaths are used to provide enough strength.
2. The current carrying capacity of cables in DC is less than that in AC.
3. In the cables, the location of fault is usually found out by comparing the capacitances of insulated conductors.
4. Underground cables are laid at sufficient depth to avoid being unearthed easily due to removal of soil.

Correct Ans: C

QEE49.The single line diagram of the simple power system is showing in Fig. The corresponding reactance diagram is

1. 
   
   
   
   
2. 
   
   
   
   
3. 
   
   
   
   
4. 
   
   
   
   

Correct Ans: A

QEE50.Which one of the following is the largest windfarm located in India?

1. Talcher
2. Mundra
3. Vindhayachal
4. Muppandal

Correct Ans: D

QEE51.In transformer, bushing failure occurs due to
(i) transformer vibrations
(ii) dielectric losses
(iii) partial discharge

1. (i) and (iii) only
2. (i) and (ii) only
3. (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. (ii) and (iii) only

Correct Ans: C

QEE52.If no load is connected to solar PV system,

1. its voltage will go on increasing till its breakdown
2. it will stop absorbing light
3. it will start reflecting the light
4. it will dissipate energy in the panel and increase its temperature

Correct Ans: D

QEE54.Calculate the inductance per meter of a 50 \(\Omega\) load cable that has a capacitance of 20 pF /m.

1. 25 mH
2. 25 nH
3. 50 nH
4. 50 mH

Correct Ans: C

QEE55.The operating time of an inverse definite minimum time (IDMT) overcurrent relay is ....................... proportional to the plug-setting multiplier (PSM) and ................. proportional to the time-multiplier setting (TMS).

1. inversely, inversely
2. directly, directly
3. directly, inversely
4. inversely, directly

Correct Ans: D

QEE56.A single phase motor connected to 415 V, 50 Hz supply takes 30 A at a power factor of 0.7 lagging. Calculate the capacitance required in parallel with the motor to raise the power factor to 0.9 lagging.

1. 96.32 \(\mu\)F
2. 76.32 \(\mu\)F
3. 86.32 \(\mu\)F
4. 66.32 \(\mu\)F

Correct Ans: C

QEE57.The magnitude of the generator earth-fault current is limited by

1. controlling field exciter
2. using higher rating CTs
3. inserting suitable resistance in neutral grounding circuit
4. inserting the stabilizing resistance in series with the relay

Correct Ans: C

QEE58.Consider a solar PV plant with the following specific conditions:
Analysis period\(: 1 \: year\)
Measured average solar irradiation intensity in 1 year\(: 120 kWh/ m^2\)
Generator area of the PV plant\(: 10 \: m^2\)
Efficiency factor of the PV modules\(: 15 \: \%\)
Electrical energy actually exported by plant to grid\(: 110 \: kWh\) Calculate the performance ratio.

1. 81.11%
2. 61.11%
3. 71.11%
4. 51.11%

Correct Ans: B

QEE59.A given solar cell has the following specifications:
Open-circuit voltage, \(V_{oc}: 0.7 \: V\)
Short-circuit current, \(I_{sc}: 3 \: A\)
Voltage at maximum power, \(V_{mp}: 0.5 \: V\)
Current at maximum power, \(I_{mp} : 2.65 \: A\)
Calculate the fill factor.

1. 0.63
2. 1.58
3. 1.23
4. 0.81

Correct Ans: A

QCK1.Transistors were used in _________________ of Computers.

1. Second Generation
2. Fourth Generation
3. First Generation
4. Third Generation

Correct Ans: D

QCK2.Encrypted security payload extension header is new in

1. IPv6
2. IPv4
3. IPv5
4. IP

Correct Ans: A

QCK3.Which of the following is linux operating system?

1. IBM - AIX
2. HP-UX
3. MacOS
4. Fedora

Correct Ans: D

QCK4.If all the devices are connected to a central hub, then the topology is called

1. Star Topology
2. Bus Topology
3. Tree Topology
4. Ring Topology

Correct Ans: A

QCK5.Landscape is a

1. Paper size
2. Web layout
3. Font style
4. Page Orientation

Correct Ans: D

QCK6.Which of the following is an application layer service?

1. Network virtual terminal
2. File transfer, access and management
3. Mail service
4. All the above

Correct Ans: D

QCK7.Operating system is

1. a program that runs for short duration
2. a layer between the user and the hardware
3. a program that runs during log off
4. a program that runs at the start of the computer system

Correct Ans: B

QCK8.Which of the following is not a Font style in Microsoft Word?

1. Regular
2. Bold
3. Italic
4. Superscript

Correct Ans: D

QCK9.Magnetic tape is not practical for applications where data must be quickly recalled because tape is a/an__________.

1. Random access medium
2. Sequential access medium
3. expensive storage medium
4. None of these

Correct Ans: B

QCK10.Which of the following is true regarding access lists applied to an interface?

1. You can place as many access lists as you want on any interface until you run out of memory.
2. One access list may be configured, per direction, for each layer 3 protocol configured on an interface
3. You can apply only one access list on any interface
4. You can apply two access lists to any interface

Correct Ans: B

QGK1.Recently which country has withdrawn the 'Generalized System of Preferences with india ?

1. Pakistan
2. United States of America
3. Russia
4. Peru

Correct Ans: B

QGK2.Nangal Wildlife Sanctuary is located in which state?

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Punjab
3. Mizoram
4. Sikkim

Correct Ans: B

QGK3.Who started the daily newspaper 'National Herald' in 1938?

1. Ram Mohan Roy
2. Dadabhai Naoroji
3. Jawaharlal Nehru
4. Subhash Chandra Bose

Correct Ans: C

QGK4.Which of the following is a national organisation monitoring the doping control programme in sports in india ?

1. International Anti-Doping Protocol
2. Primary Anti-Doping Agency
3. National Anti-Doping Agency
4. Indian Anti-Doping Agency

Correct Ans: C

QGK5.Vikram Seth is associated with which of the following fields ?

1. Literature
2. Sports
3. Politician
4. Music

Correct Ans: A

QGK6.Recently, India and Benin signed MoU's on education, health and _________

1. Trading
2. Defence
3. Against Corruption
4. e-visa facilities

Correct Ans: D

QGK7.What is the full form of the acronym 'AIDS' in diseases?

1. Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
2. Assert in Dander Syndrome
3. Acquire in Deficiency Syndrome
4. Amino Intersect Deficiency Syndrome

Correct Ans: A

QGK8.Which one of the following is the committee on poverty estimation ?

1. S.S Tarapore committee
2. Ad hoc committee
3. Tendulkar committee
4. Karve committee

Correct Ans: C

QGK9.What is the full form of UN in 'UN Human Rights Prize'?

1. Uniformed Nations
2. United Nations
3. Unity Nation
4. Uniform Nacional

Correct Ans: B

QGK10.The Great Barrier Reef is located in which country?

1. Germany
2. Canada
3. India
4. Australia

Correct Ans: D

QGL1.શિક્ષકે વિદ્યાર્થી ને વાર્તા કહી '
1.વાક્ય અકર્મક છે.
2. વાક્ય દ્વિકર્મક છે.
3. વાક્યમાં વિદ્યાર્થી ને 'પ્રધાન કર્મ' છે અને વાર્તા 'ગૌણ કર્મ' છે.
4. વાક્યમાં વાર્તા 'પ્રધાન કર્મ' છે અને વિધાર્થી ને 'ગૌણ કર્મ' છે.
આપવામાં આવેલ વિકલ્પો માંથી ક્યા કયા વિકલ્પ સાચા છે.

1. 2,4
2. 1,3
3. 2,3
4. 1,3

Correct Ans: A

QGL2.1. આપને મુખ્યમંત્રીએ ખાસ કામ માટે નિયુક્ત કર્યા છે.
2. તેનાથી આંખો ઝીણી કરાઈ.
3. પ્રધાનમંત્રી એ સ્કુલનું ઉદ્ઘાટન કર્યું.
4. આરોપીએ બધાં ગુના કબુલ કરી લીધાં.
ઉક્ત વાક્યોમાં કેટલા કર્મણિ વાક્ય પ્રયોગના છે?

1. કુલ 2
2. બધા જ કર્તરી વાક્ય પ્રયોગના છે.
3. કુલ 1
4. બધા જ વાક્યો કર્મણિ વાક્ય પ્રયોગના છે.

Correct Ans: C

QGL3.નીચે માંથી કયા રૂઢિપ્રયોગનો અર્થ ' છેતરવું ' એવો થાય

1. બે પાંદડે થવું
2. દમ મારવો
3. હથેળીમાં ચાંદ દેખાડવો
4. આડા ઉતરવું

Correct Ans: C

QGL4.સોહેલ ખાન : મલાયકા અરોરા :: સૈફઅલી ખાન :

1. અમૃતા સિંહ
2. કિરણ ખેર
3. માધુરી દીક્ષિત
4. પરવીન બાબી

Correct Ans: A

QGL5.પાણિ : પાણિગ્રહણ :: હસ્ત :

1. હસ્તમેળાપ
2. વિવાહ
3. છુટાછેડા
4. પ્રેમાલાપ

Correct Ans: A

QGL6.આપણે કાંઈ મશીન નથી કે અમુક ગોઠવણો પ્રમાણે કાર્ય કર્યાં જ કરીએ. - ઉપરોક્ત વાક્ય ને જુદાં પાડવા ક્યા સંયોજકો કાઢવા પડે.

1. કાંઈ
2. અમુક
3. જ
4. કે

Correct Ans: D

QGL7.હું ગીત ગાઈશ" ને કર્મણિમાં ફેરવો .

1. ગીતને હું ગાઈશ.
2. મારાથી ગીત ગવાશે.
3. હું ગીતને ગાઈશ.
4. ગીત તો હું જ ગાઈશ.

Correct Ans: B

QGL8.સ્વાધીન' નો વિરોધાભાસી શબ્દ કયો છે?

1. પરાધીન
2. નિસ્વાધીન
3. અસ્વાધીન
4. કુવાધીન

Correct Ans: A

QGL9.જે ક્રિયા દર્શાવે પણ વાક્યનો અર્થ પૂર્ણ કરે એ એને .............કહેવાય.- આપેલ વિકલ્પોમાંથી યોગ્યનું ચયન કરી વાક્ય પૂર્ણ કરો .

1. કૃદંત
2. ક્રિયા -વિશેષણ
3. વિભક્તિ
4. નિપાત

Correct Ans: A

QGL10.નીચે પૈકી કયો 'દાદ્દુર' નો સમાનાર્થી નથી

1. મેડક
2. દેડકો
3. સુમાર
4. દર્દુર

Correct Ans: C