UGVCL

QEE1.Which is a Controlled turn on and uncontrolled turn off device ?

1. SCR
2. MOSFET
3. BJT
4. DIODE

Correct Ans: A

QEE2.Minimum number of NAND gates used for representing EX OR and EX NOR gates are __________, ________ respectively.

1. 5,4
2. 4,3
3. 4,5
4. 3, 4

Correct Ans: C

QEE3.In microprocessor 8085, CALL instruction have ______.

1. 2 bytes, 16 T states
2. 2 bytes, 10 T states
3. 3 bytes, 16 T states
4. 3 bytes, 18 T state

Correct Ans: D

QEE4.A distance relay measures ______

1. Difference in voltage
2. Difference in current
3. Difference in impedance
4. Difference in phase

Correct Ans: C

QEE5.The time constant of a series RC circuit with \(R=2 \:\Omega \) and \(C=1 \:F\) is

1. 1 Sec
2. 2 Sec
3. 2.5 Sec
4. 0.5 Sec

Correct Ans: B

QEE6.The active power of 10W consumed by the pure resistive load (R=5 \(\Omega\)), what is its apparent power

1. 10 W
2. 3 W
3. 5 W
4. 6 W

Correct Ans: A

QEE7.The transfer function of the system \(\frac{C(s)}{R(s)}\) is _______.

1. \(\frac{GH}{1 - GH}\)
2. \(\frac{GH}{1 + GH}\)
3. \(\frac{G}{1 - GH}\)
4. \(\frac{G}{1 + GH}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE8.Infinite surface charge sheets are placed with surface charge density \(+ \rho_s \: C/m^2 \)
and \(- \rho_s \: C/m^2 \)
respectively along the Z -axis. The electric field intensity between the sheets will be

1. 0
2. \( \frac{\rho_s}{\epsilon_0} \)
3. \( \frac{\rho_s}{4 \epsilon_0} \times k \)
4. \( \frac{\rho_s}{2 \epsilon_0} \times k \)

Correct Ans: B

QEE9.For solving electric circuits, nodal voltage method is based on

1. KVL and ohms law
2. KCL, KVL and ohms law
3. KCL and KVL
4. KCL and ohms law

Correct Ans: D

QEE10.Non conventional method of power generation is

1. Diesel
2. Wind
3. Nuclear
4. Thermal

Correct Ans: B

QEE11.The input current distortion factor of a two pulse converter is ______.

1. \(\sqrt{2}/ \pi \)
2. \(2 \sqrt{2}/ \pi \)
3. \(2/ \pi \)
4. \(1/\pi\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE12.The bode plot is applicable to _____ network.

1. minimum phase
2. non-minimum phase
3. non-linear
4. all phase

Correct Ans: A

QEE13.A 25KW,125V separately excited machine is running at constant speed of 3000 RPM with open circuit terminal voltage of 125V (consider field current as constant).The armature resistance and terminal voltage are 0.02 ohm and 128V respectively. Hence the armature current and terminal power will be

1. 120A ,19.20KW
2. 120A,18.75KW
3. 150A,18.75KW
4. 150A,19.20KW

Correct Ans: D

QEE14.V and inverted V curves are obtained for _______.

1. Synchronous motor
2. Induction motor
3. Stepper motor
4. DC motor

Correct Ans: A

QEE15.A 400V/100V , 20KVA two winding transformer is reconnected as an autotransformer, the maximum rating of that autotransformer is

1. 40KVA
2. 100KVA
3. 20KVA
4. 50KVA

Correct Ans: B

QEE16.What is voltage across \(2\:Ω\) ?

1. 4.6 V
2. 1.6 V
3. 2.6 V
4. 3.6 V

Correct Ans: B

QEE17.What is the mutual inductances between two coaxial solenoids of radius \(R_1\) and \(R_2\) with \(n_1\) and \(n_2\) turns/m carrying currents \(I_1\) and \(I_2\) \((R_2 > R_1)\)

1. \(M_{12} = (μ_0)(n_1)(n_2)π(R^2_1)\)
   
2. \(M_{12} = (μ_0)(n_1)(n_2)π(R^2_2)\)
3. \(M_{12} = (μ_0)(n_2)π(R^2_1)\)
4. \(M_{12} = (μ_0)(n_1)π(R^2_1)\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE18.When 10 V DC is given to an inductor L for long period, it act as ___________.

1. 0.5 H inductor
2. Open circuit
3. Short circuit
4. 1 H inductor

Correct Ans: C

QEE19.The concept of changing magnetic field produces an electric field in the surrounding space was developed by

1. Hertz
2. Faraday
3. Maxwell
4. Gauss

Correct Ans: B

QEE20.In hartley oscillator, tank circuit consists of

1. 2 capacitor with one inductor
2. 3 inductors
3. 3 capacitors
4. 2 inductor with one capacitor

Correct Ans: D

QEE21.__________condition is the reciprocity of transmission parameters.

1. AD-BC=1
2. BA-DC=1
3. AB-CD=1
4. AC-BD=1

Correct Ans: A

QEE22.A closed loop system is said to be stable only when

1. gain crossover frequency is less than phase crossover frequency
2. gain crossover frequency is equal to phase crossover frequency
3. gain crossover frequency is greater than or equal to phase crossover frequency
4. gain crossover frequency is greater than phase crossover frequency

Correct Ans: A

QEE23.In a transmission line, power transfer capability is increased by _______.

1. Installing shunt reactors
2. Installing series capacitos
3. Installing shunt capacitors
4. Installing series reactors

Correct Ans: B

QEE24.The 440V is applied to 3 phase AC to DC diode rectifier with resistive load circuit. The average dc voltage across the load will be ______V

1. 594
2. 954
3. 495
4. 945

Correct Ans: A

QEE25.The amplifier shown in the circuit connected in_____

1. Current shunt feedback configuration
2. Voltage shunt feedback configuration
3. Voltage series feedback configuration
4. Current series feedback configuration

Correct Ans: D

QEE26.What is voltage across \(6\:Ω\) ?

1. 6 V
2. 2 V
3. 4 V
4. 3 V

Correct Ans: A

QEE27._______ is a high frequency switch operated under low voltage condition.

1. SCR
2. Diode
3. TRIAC
4. MOSFET

Correct Ans: D

QEE28.When AC flows through a capacitance then the current

1. leads emf by \(90^\circ\)
2. lags emf by \(90^\circ\)
3. inphase with emf
4. leads emf by \(180^\circ\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE29.The input frequency used in half wave and full wave rectifier is 50 HZ. Then the output has a frequency of ____ Hz, ____ Hz.

1. 50, 50
2. 100, 100
3. 50, 100
4. 100, 50

Correct Ans: C

QEE30.Automatic Reset Control action is done by ____________.

1. Integral Controller
2. Derivative controller
3. On-off controller
4. Proportional Controller

Correct Ans: A

QEE31.The Differentially compounded generator is used for _______.

1. Arc welding
2. Lift
3. Battery charging
4. Elevator

Correct Ans: A

QEE32.Which is a bidirectional current capability device ?

1. TRIAC
2. BJT
3. MOSFET
4. SCR

Correct Ans: A

QEE33.In transformers, cores are laminated to reduce the effect of

1. stray loss
2. Hysteresis loss
3. core loss
4. Eddy current loss

Correct Ans: D

QEE34.KCL is valid for _____.

1. Non-linear circuits
2. Both AC and DC circuits
3. DC circuits only
4. AC circuits only

Correct Ans: B

QEE35.Considering any closed path in a magnetic field ,the line integral of tangential component of the magnetic field around the closed path is equal to \(\mu_o \) times current enclosed. This statement is related to

1. Gauss law
2. Amperes law
3. Faradays law
4. Coulombs law

Correct Ans: B

QEE36.The output voltage of a chopper is varied by ___________.

1. Gate pulse
2. Conduction angle
3. Firing angle
4. Duty cycle

Correct Ans: D

QEE37.Based on the operation of op amp and diodes, the below circuit is called as ________.

1. Positive clipper circuit
2. Clamper circuit
3. Negative clipper circuit
4. V to I converter circuit

Correct Ans: A

QEE38.Which circuit breaker is used for easy capacitor switching?

1. airblast circuit breaker
2. vacuum circuit breaker
3. oil circuit breaker
4. \(SF_6\) circuit breaker

Correct Ans: B

QEE39.In DC shunt motor by armature voltage and field current speed control methods the speed could be_____, and ____respectively.

1. Above base speed,Below base speed
2. Below base speed, Below base speed
3. Below base speed, Above base speed
4. Above base speed, Above base speed

Correct Ans: C

QEE40.What happens to output voltage when the capacitor \(C_3\) is open.

1. No change in output voltage
2. Output voltage increases
3. Output voltage is equal to zero
4. Output voltage decreases

Correct Ans: D

QEE41.Asynchronous inputs are ____________

1. S,R
2. SET,RESET
3. J,K
4. S,R,J,K

Correct Ans: B

QEE42.A non inverting amplifier is nulled at 25 ºC with a gain of 100. Calculate the output voltage when the temperature rises to 50 ºC for an offset drift voltage of 0.15 mV/ ºC.

1. 3.75mV
2. 2.75mV
3. 37.5mV
4. 375mV

Correct Ans: D

QEE43.A single phase half wave diode rectifier with RE load is supplied by a source voltage of 230 V, 50 Hz and for R=18 ohm , E=100 V. Find the peak inverse voltage(PIV) of diode

1. 130.18 V
2. 425.26 V
3. 560.21 V
4. 330 V

Correct Ans: B

QEE44.In which type of faults, all the three (positive, negative and zero) sequence currents are equal

1. Double line to ground fault
2. Three phase fault
3. Line to line fault
4. Single line to ground fault

Correct Ans: D

QEE45.The per unit impedance of the line for 100 MVA, 132 KV base is 0.3. The per unit impedance for a 200 MVA,132 KV base will be

1. 0.3
2. 0.09
3. 0.15
4. 0.6

Correct Ans: D

QEE46.The characteristic equation for closed loop system is given as \(s^3+3s^2+4s+k=0\). The value of k for
which system is stable

1. \(0< k< 12\)
2. \(k< 12\)
3. \(k> 12\)
4. \(k= 12\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE47.Which law explain about the force between the two electric charges?

1. Gauss
2. Coulomb
3. Faraday
4. Ampere

Correct Ans: B

QEE48.In control system, the Mason's gain formula is used to find _____.

1. Observability
2. Transfer Function
3. Stability
4. Controllability

Correct Ans: B

QEE49.The restriction on the parameter k to guarantee the stability of the system will be


\(\dot{X} =\begin{bmatrix}-4k & 4k \\ 2k & -6k \end{bmatrix}X\)

1. \(k> 0\)
2. \(k< 0\)
3. \(k= 0\)
4. \(k \geq 0\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE50.The characteristic equation of the system is \(s^3+2s^2+4s-2=0\), the system will be_____.

1. stable
2. unstable
3. not defined
4. limitedly stable

Correct Ans: A

QEE51.In two watt meter method, when both the meters shows equal magnitude then what is the power factor angle of the load current

1. less than \(45^\circ\)
2. \(0^\circ\)
3. \(90^\circ\)
4. \(45^\circ\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE52.Starting torque and maximum torque of 3 phase induction motor varies as_____,____respectively.

1. \(\frac{1}{f^3},\: \frac{1}{f^2}\)
2. \(\frac{1}{f^2},\: \frac{1}{f}\)
3. \(\frac{1}{f^2},\: \frac{1}{f^3}\)
4. \(\frac{1}{f},\: \frac{1}{f^2}\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE53.Three phase induction generator is commonly used in __________.

1. Thermal power station
2. Wind power station
3. Hydro power station
4. Nuclear power station

Correct Ans: B

QEE54.In microprocessor 8085, LDA 2000H is_____________.

1. Immediate addressing mode
2. Implied addressing mode
3. Indirect addressing mode
4. Direct addressing mode

Correct Ans: D

QEE55.The total time response of the system

1. depends on steady state and transient responses
2. only depends on transient response
3. does not depends on steady state and transient responses
4. only depends on steady state response

Correct Ans: A

QEE56.The inductance and capacitance measurement can be done by __________,___________respectively.

1. Schering bridge, Anderson bridge
2. Anderson bridge, Schering bridge
3. Schering bridge, Desauty bridge
4. Desauty bridge, Schering bridge

Correct Ans: B

QEE57.Find the correct statement:

1. Cannot compare AC load line with DC load line
2. AC load line is same as DC load line
3. DC load line is steeper than AC load line
4. AC load line is steeper than DC load line

Correct Ans: D

QEE58.In load flow studies of a power system, a voltage control bus is specified by

1. Real power and reactive power
2. Real power and voltage magnitude
3. Voltage and voltage phase angle
4. Reactive power and voltage magnitude

Correct Ans: B

QEE59.In power measurement, two Watt meter readings are \(W_1=600 W\); \(W_2=0 W\), then the power factor will be

1. unity (=1)
2. 0.866
3. 0.0707
4. 0.5

Correct Ans: D

QEE60.The damping system and damping ratio of the following closed loop system are,


\(\frac{C(s)}{R(s)}=\frac{100}{s^2+12s+100}\)

1. under damped and 0.6
2. under damped and 0.06
3. critically damped system and 1
4. over damped system and 6

Correct Ans: A

QGL1.નીચે પૈકી કઈ જોડણી ખોટી છે?

1. દુરાચાર
2. અભિવાદન
3. પરિશ્રમ
4. અધિરાઈ

Correct Ans: d

QGL2.કયો વિકલ્પ ' દરિયામાં ડૂબકી મારવી' નો અર્થ દર્શાવે છે.

1. બહુ સરળ કાર્ય કરવું
2. કોઈ પણ કાર્યમાં સફળ થવું
3. સફળ થવાની ખાતરી વિના કામની શરૂઆત કરવી
4. મહાન કાર્યનો અંત કરવો

Correct Ans: c

QGL3.અપૂર્ણ વર્તમાનકાળનાં વાક્યનું આપેલા વિકલ્પોમાંથી ચયન કરો.

1. હું ક્યારેક-ક્યારેક કસરત કરું
2. હું નિયમિત સવારે કસરત કરું છું
3. હું કસરત કરતો
4. હું કસરત કરવાનો હતો.

Correct Ans: b

QGL4.પ્રિયજનની પગલીઓ ............. વન ફુલની ઢગલીઓ!'

રિક્ત સ્થાન માટે કયા વિકલ્પનું ચયન કરવાથી વાક્ય ઉત્પ્રેક્ષા અલંકારનાં ઉપયોગથી પૂર્ણ થઇ શકે.

1. માફક
2. મહેકે
3. જેવી
4. જાણે

Correct Ans: d

QGL5.નીચેના પૈકી 'શર્વરી' શબ્દનો સમાનાર્થી વિકલ્પ કયો છે?

1. શરમ
2. દયા
3. લલના
4. રજની

Correct Ans: d

QGL6." સૌ ગયાં સગેવગે, વહુ રહ્યાં ઊભે પગે" નો અર્થ,નીચે પૈકી કયા વિકલ્પમાં દર્શાવાયો છે?

1. સ્વાર્થ ભરી નજર હોવી
2. સુખમાં સૌ ભાગ પડાવે
3. જે સહિયારું એની સંભાળ કોઈ રાખતું નથી
4. સૌ જતાં રહ્યાં, માત્ર વહુ આનંદથી વંચિત રહી.

Correct Ans: d

QGL7.પશ્વાત્ય' શબ્દનો વિરુદ્ધાર્થી શબ્દ કયો છે?

1. પ્રસન્ન
2. સંવત્સર
3. પૌરસ્ત્ય
4. ઉત્તરાંગ

Correct Ans: c

QGL8.નિચેમાંથી કયો શબ્દ 'પાણી'નો પર્યાય નથી?

1. અંબુ
2. સરસી
3. ઉદક
4. સલિલ

Correct Ans: b

QGL9.મોટા કે નાના દરવાજા આપમેળે ઉઘડી ન જાય એ માટે અટકાવાતો લાંબો આડો દંડ અથવા આગળો

1. કડી
2. સાંકળ
3. ભોગળ
4. મેરુદંડ

Correct Ans: c

QGL10.ગુરૂ શિષ્ય પાસે સેવા કરાવે છે તે એની ભક્તિ ખિલાવવા માટે; એનું નાનામોટાપણાનું અભિમાન ટાળવા માટે, એને વિદ્યાની કેટલી ગરજ છે તે તપાસવા માટે હોય છે.

ઉપરોક્ત વાક્યમાં કયા કયા ભાગમાં ભૂલ છે?
1. ગુરૂ શિષ્ય પાસે સેવા કરાવે છે

2. તે એની ભક્તી ખિલાવવા માટે; એનું

3. નાનામોટાપણાનું અભિમાન ટાળવા માટે, એને

4. વિદ્યાની કેટલી ગરજ છે તે તપાસવા માટે હોય છે.

1. ૩,4
2. 1,2
3. 2,3
4. 1 ,4

Correct Ans: c

QGK1.who was the first chairman of Rajya Sabha?

1. Dr Rajendra Prasad
2. V V Giri
3. Dr.S.Radhakrishnan
4. C. Rajagopalachari

Correct Ans: C

QGK2.Chittaranjan Electrical Locomotive' workshop is located in state of ______________.

1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Bihar
4. West Bengal

Correct Ans: d

QGK3.Battle of Imphal' took place in the year_____

1. 1946
2. 1944
3. 1940
4. 1945

Correct Ans: b

QGK4.Which country is the largest producer of coffee in the world?

1. Vietnam
2. Brazil
3. Indonesia
4. South Africa

Correct Ans: b

QGK5.Which of the following organizations has its headquarters in Geneva?

1. United Nations Population Fund
2. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
3. United Nations Industrial Development Organisation
4. United Nations Educational Scientific Organisation

Correct Ans: b

QGK6.Who is the present governer of Hariyana?

1. Draupadi Murmu
2. Vajubhai Vala
3. Acharya Devvrat
4. Satya Dev Narayan Arya

Correct Ans: d

QGK7.Who was the first President of India?

1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
2. R Venkataraman Prasad
3. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
4. Dr. S Radhakrishnan

Correct Ans: a

QGK8.The famous epic Mahabharata was written by ________

1. Bhavabhuti
2. Ved Vyasa
3. Valmiki
4. Patanjali

Correct Ans: b

QGK9.In which year RBI commenced its operations?

1. 1937
2. 1931
3. 1935
4. 1930

Correct Ans: c

QGK10.Jinson Johnson claimed Gold Medal in which event of Asian Games, 2018?

1. 5000m Track event
2. 10000 m Track event
3. 1500 m Track event
4. 800 m Track event

Correct Ans: c

QEK1.Fill in the blanks with suitable Preposition from the given alternatives.

The day was so hot. I stood _____a cold shower for fifteen minutes.

1. into
2. on
3. below
4. under

Correct Ans: d

QEK2.Fill in the blanks with suitable Preposition from the given alternatives.

Ram speaks English and Hindi _______ his mother tongue.

1. in
2. besides
3. for
4. beside

Correct Ans: b

QEK3.Choose the word which expresses nearly the opposite meaning of the given word "CLEFT"

1. Broken
2. Parted
3. Fixed
4. Breached

Correct Ans: c

QEK4.In the following questions, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the option corresponding to it. If the sentence cantains no error, Select " No error" option. (Avoid punctuation errors)

(A) My Son is

(B) repeating the mistake

(C) again and again in the examination.

(D) NO ERROR.

1. B
2. A
3. D
4. C

Correct Ans: D

QEK5.Fill in the blanks with suitable Idiom/Phrase from the given alternatives.

Everything costs _________ in the exhibition organized by a famous builder.

1. Hard pressed
2. An Arm and a Leg
3. To pour oil in troubled water
4. A Jaundiced eye

Correct Ans: b

QEK6.Fill in the blanks with suitable Article from the given alternatives.

My friend narrated_______ comic story to me.

1. a
2. An
3. the
4. No article

Correct Ans: a

QEK7.Choose the best option from the given alternatives which can be substitude for the given word/sentence.
A sentence or phrase whose meaning is not clear

1. Extempore
2. Ambigous
3. Notorious
4. Abbreviation

Correct Ans: b

QEK8.Choose the best option from the given alternatives which can be substitude for the given word/sentence.

A Government by new or inexperienced

1. Democracy
2. Gerontocracy
3. Thearchy
4. Neocracy

Correct Ans: d

QEK9.Fill the blanks with suitable Word from the given alternatives.

The indian Scientists planned to ________ the Planet MARS in 2020.

1. Hunt
2. Explore
3. Overlook
4. Suspect

Correct Ans: b

QEK10.Choose the word which best expresses the similar meaning of the given word "MISCHIEF"

1. Advantage
2. Help
3. Behavior
4. Prank

Correct Ans: d

QCK1.What does HTTP stands for?

1. Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
2. Hyper Text Transmit Protocol
3. Hyper Transfer Text Protocol
4. Hyper Transmit Text Protocol

Correct Ans: A

QCK2.Which folder receives all the emails by default?

1. Draft
2. Inbox
3. Personal Folder
4. Outbox

Correct Ans: B

QCK3.Which one of these is called as the fastest memory?

1. CD/DVD
2. Cache Memory
3. Floppy Disk
4. External Hard Disk

Correct Ans: B

QCK4.What is debugging defined as?

1. Check for errors in the program
2. Compiling the program
3. Deploying the program
4. Designing the program

Correct Ans: A

QCK5.Which of the following Operating System doesn’t support multi-tasking?

1. Windows Server
2. MS DOS
3. Windows 8
4. Windows NT

Correct Ans: B

QCK6.What is UNIX?

1. Utility
2. Application
3. Server
4. Operating System

Correct Ans: D

QCK7.Which of these pages opens first of any web page?

1. About Us
2. Home Page
3. Help Page
4. Contact Us

Correct Ans: B

QCK8.Which of these is the feature to display text in rows and columns?

1. Table
2. Header/Footer
3. Footnote/Endnote
4. Autoshape

Correct Ans: A

QCK9.Which of these is executable file of MS PowerPoint?

1. Presentation.exe
2. Power.exe
3. PowerPoint.exe
4. Powerpnt.exe

Correct Ans: D

QCK10.What was the first generation language?

1. Machine Language
2. Assembly Language
3. PASCAL
4. BASIC

Correct Ans: A

QEE1.Fig. shows the single-line diagram of a power system. The % reactance value of the 11kV generators is calculated by taking their ratings as base values. Calculate the short-circuit MVA if a 3-phase fault occurs at the beginning of the feeder. Choose base MVA as 20 MVA.

1. 130 MVA
2. 45 MVA
3. 180 MVA
4. 90 MVA

Correct Ans: D

QEE2.Find GMR of a stranded conductor having seven identical strands each of radius r as shown in Fig.

1. 1.414 r
2. 1.732 r
3. 2.177 r
4. 3 r

Correct Ans: C

QEE3.In the network as shown in Fig, the marked parameters are p.u. impedances. The bus-admittance matrix of the network is

1. \(Y_{bus} = \begin{bmatrix}-j5 & j5 \\j5 & -j5 \end{bmatrix}\)
2. \(Y_{bus} = \begin{bmatrix}-j10 & j5 \\j5 & -j10 \end{bmatrix}\)
3. \(Y_{bus} = \begin{bmatrix}-j10 & j5 \\j5 & -j5 \end{bmatrix}\)
4. \(Y_{bus} = \begin{bmatrix}-j10 & j10 \\j10 & -j5 \end{bmatrix}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE4.The value of \(\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{x^2}{e^x}\) is

1. 0
2. -1
3. 1
4. 2

Correct Ans: A

QEE5.If \(W=f(z) \) is analytic, \(\frac{d^2 W}{dz d \bar{z}}\) is equal to

1. -1
2. 1
3. 2
4. 0

Correct Ans: D

QEE6.Three generators are connected in parallel whose ratings are as follows:
\(G_1: 100 MVA, 12 kV, X_{g1} = 0.1 pu\)
\(G_2: 200 MVA, 12 kV, X_{g2} = 0.15 pu\)
\(G_3: 150 MVA, 15 kV, X_{g3} = 0.15 pu\)
Find the equivalent per unit reactance of the system on 200 MVA, 15 kV system base.

1. 0.43 pu
2. 0.043 pu
3. 0.19 pu
4. 0.019 pu

Correct Ans: B

QEE7.If \(A\) is a singular matrix, then the product of eigen value of \(A^2+3A\) is

1. 4
2. 0
3. 2
4. 1

Correct Ans: B

QEE8.In \(SF_6\) circuit breaker, the current chopping tendency is minimized by using the \(SF_6\) gas at __________ pressure and ________ velocity.

1. low, low
2. low, high
3. high, low
4. high, high

Correct Ans: A

QEE9.The Unified Power Flow Controller (UPFC) is a combination of _______.

1. TSSC and TCR
2. STATCOM and SSSC
3. STATCOM and TCSC
4. SSSC and TSC

Correct Ans: B

QEE10.Open circuit and short circuit tests on a 3 kVA, 230 / 230 V, 50 Hz, single phase transformer gave the following results:

OC test: 230 V, 2 A, 100 W

SC test: 15 V, 13 A, 120 W

Determine the efficiency of the transformer at full load and 0.80 power factor lagging.

1. 96.60%
2. 91.60%
3. 98.60%
4. 94.60%

Correct Ans: B

QEE11.The photovoltaic array comprises of 16 modules each with a rating of 160 W peak. Taking the derating of array as 0.77, and daily sunshine hours of 6, the DC energy output of the array is

1. 23.38 kWh
2. 19.95 kWh
3. 32.85 kWh
4. 11.83 kWh

Correct Ans: D

QEE12.The per unit impedance of the circuit element is j0.2. If the base kV is doubled and base MVA is halved, then the new value of the per unit impedance of the circuit element will be

1. j 0.025
2. j 0.1
3. j 0.4
4. j 1.6

Correct Ans: A

QEE13.Temperature rise test is carried out for all relays

1. To ascertain correct relay characteristic
2. To ensure integrity of the relay
3. To check the withstand capability of insulation used in relays
4. All of the Above

Correct Ans: C

QEE14.If \(f(x)=(\pi -x)^2\) is a Fourier series of period \(2 \pi\) in the interval \((0,2 \pi)\), then the value of \(a_o\) is

1. \(\frac{-2 \pi^{2}}{3}\)
2. \(\frac{3 \pi^{2}}{2}\)
3. \(\frac{2 \pi^{2}}{3}\)
4. \(\frac{-3 \pi^{2}}{2}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE15.Consider the symmetrical component complex operator, \( a = 1 \angle 120^\circ\)
Consider the following relations:
1. \( 1 + a + a^2 = 0 \)
2. \( 1 + a^4 + a^5 = 0 \)
3. \( 1 - a^3 = 0 \)
Choose the correct option.

1. Only 1 is correct
2. Only 2 is correct
3. Only 3 is correct
4. All are correct

Correct Ans: D

QEE16.A 3-phase, 20 MVA, 11 KV alternator has 10% sub-transient reactance. Find short circuit MVA and current, if a symmetrical fault occurs at its terminals.

1. 200 MVA and 9.09 kA
2. 200 MVA and 10.5 kA
3. 100 MVA and 18.18 kA
4. 100 MVA and 10.5 kA

Correct Ans: B

QEE17.The feeder lines that interconnect two sub-stations in a given area are sometimes called as ____________

1. Tie Lines
2. Transmission Lines
3. Distribution Lines
4. All of the Above

Correct Ans: A

QEE18.The value of \(L^{-1}\lbrace\frac{s+2}{s^2-6s+13}\rbrace\) is

1. \(\frac{e^{3t}}{2}[5\cos2t-2\sin2t]\)
2. \(\frac{e^{3t}}{2}[2\cos2t+5\sin2t]\)
3. \(\frac{e^{3t}}{2}[5\cos2t+2\sin2t]\)
4. \(\frac{e^{-3t}}{2}[2\cos2t+5\sin2t]\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE19.The complete integral of \(p^2 + q^2 =1\) is

1. \(z=ax - (1+a^2)y +c\)
2. \(z=ax + (1+a^2)y +c\)
3. \(z=ax + \sqrt{(1-a^2)} \: y +c\)
4. \(z=ax - \sqrt{(1-a^2)} \: y +c\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE20._______ is the amount of electric power that can be transferred reliably over the inter-control area transmission system under a given set of operating conditions considering the effect of occurrence of the worst credible contingency.

1. Total Transfer Capability
2. Available Transfer Capability
3. Transmission Availability Margin
4. Transmission Reliability Margin

Correct Ans: A

QEE21.Consider the following statements about feeding 3-phase loads from a balanced 3-phase supply and choose the correct option.

Statement 1: In an unbalanced delta-connected load, the sum of the three-phase voltages is zero.
Statement 2: In a four-wire system, the voltages are always balanced irrespective of balanced or unbalanced load.

1. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE
2. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE
4. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE

Correct Ans: A

QEE22.What should be the kVA rating of a capacitor which would raise the power factor of a single phase load of 100 kW from 0.5 lagging to 0.9 lagging with constant supply voltage?

1. 100 kVA
2. 250 kVA
3. 175 kVA
4. 125 kVA

Correct Ans: D

QEE23.Determine the power and power factor (pf) of a three-phase load if the two wattmeters used for power measurement by Two Wattmeter method read 500 W each of positive sign.

1. 1000 W, pf = 0
2. 1000 W, pf = 1
3. 0 W, pf = 1
4. 0 W, pf = 0

Correct Ans: B

QEE24.The particular integral of \((D^2+5) y = x^2 + x +1\) is

1. \(\frac{1}{5} (x^2 - x +\frac{3}{5})\)
2. \(-\frac {1}{5} (x^2 + x +1)\)
3. \(\frac {1}{5} (x^2 - x +1)\)
4. \(\frac{1}{5} (x^2 + x +\frac{3}{5})\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE25.In Two Wattmeter method, each of two wattmeters connected to measure the power input to a three-phase circuit read 10 kW on a balanced load, when the power factor is unity. What does the instruments read when the power factor falls to 0.866 lagging, the total three-phase power remaining unaltered?

1. \(P_1=10\: kW and\: P_2= 10\:kW\)
2. \(P_1=6.66\: kW and\: P_2= 13.34\:kW\)
3. \(P_1=3.33\: kW and\: P_2= 16.67\:kW\)
4. \(P_1=0\: kW and\: P_2= 20\:kW\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE26.Two generators of the ratings 50 MW and 500 MW, respectively are supplying power to a system. The frequency is 50 Hz and each generator is half loaded. The system load increases by 110 MW and as a result the frequency drops to 49.5 Hz. What must be the individual regulations if the two generators should increase their turbine powers in proportion to their ratings?

1. \(R_1 = 5 \% \: \& \: R_2 = 5 \%\)
2. \(R_1 = 0 \% \: \& \: R_2 = 5 \%\)
3. \(R_1 = 5 \% \: \& \: R_2 = 0 \%\)
4. \(R_1 = 2.5 \% \: \& \: R_2 = 2.5 \%\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE27.Individual Voltage distortion based on IEEE 519 standard in 11 kV system must be limited to ______ % of fundamental component.

1. 4
2. 2
3. 1
4. 3

Correct Ans: D

QEE28.In the translay system of protection of three phase transmission lines, the required number of pilot wire is ________.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 6
4. 4

Correct Ans: A

QEE29.Generally in transmission lines, the zero sequence impedance is __________ positive and negative sequence impedances.

1. negligible compared to
2. slightly smaller than
3. equal to
4. larger than

Correct Ans: D

QEE30.Three similar resistors are connected in star across 400V, three-phase lines. The line current is 5A. Calculate the value of each resistor.

1. 56.568 \(\Omega\)
2. 46.188 \(\Omega\)
3. 138.56 \(\Omega\)
4. 80 \(\Omega\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE31.The GTO Controlled Series Capacitor (GCSC) consists of a ______ capacitor in ______with a GTO thyristor.

1. fixed, series
2. variable, series
3. fixed, parallel
4. variable, parallel

Correct Ans: C

QEE32.Calculate the inductance per conductor of the single-phase double circuit line shown in Fig. The diameter of each conductor is 2 cm.

1. 0.12 mH/km
2. 0.52 mH/km
3. 1.32 mH/km
4. 0.75 mH/km

Correct Ans: B

QEE33.In a system of 132 kV, the circuit phase to ground capacitance is 0.01 μF and the inductance is 6 H. Calculate the voltage appearing across the pole of a circuit breaker if a magnetizing current of 5 A (instantaneous value) is interrupted.

1. 130.5 kV
2. 128.5 kV
3. 122.5 kV
4. 115.5 kV

Correct Ans: C

QEE34.Fig. shows currents in a 3-phase conductor. The ends of the system on the sides of the fault are identified as F, F′, while the conductor ends are identified as aa′,bb′ and cc′. For one conductor open fault, the symmetrical components can be represented as

1. \(V_{aa^{'}1} = V_{aa^{'}2} = V_{aa^{'}0} = \frac{1}{3}V_{aa^{'}}\)
   
   \(I_{a1} + I_{a2} +I_{a0} = 0\)
2. \(V_{aa^{'}1} = V_{aa^{'}2} = V_{aa^{'}0} = 0\)
   
   \(I_{a1} = I_{a2} =I_{a0} = \frac{I_a}{3} \)
3. \(V_{aa^{'}1} = V_{aa^{'}2} = V_{aa^{'}0} = 0\)
   
   \(I_{a1} = I_{a2} =I_{a0} = 3 I_a \)
4. \(V_{aa^{'}1} = V_{aa^{'}2} = V_{aa^{'}0} = \frac{V_{aa'}}{3}\)
   
   \(I_{a1} = I_{a2} =I_{a0} = \frac{I_a}{3} \)

Correct Ans: A

QEE35.Determine the magnitudes of the symmetrical components \(IR_1, IR_2, IR_0\) of the currents in a three phase (RYB) three wire system, when a short circuit occurs between R and Y phase wires, the fault current being 200 A.

1. \(\lvert I_{R1}\rvert= \frac{100}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R2}\rvert= \frac{100}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R0}\rvert= \frac{100}{\sqrt{3}}A\)
2. \(\lvert I_{R1}\rvert= \frac{100}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R2}\rvert= \frac{100}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R0}\rvert=0A\)
3. \(\lvert I_{R1}\rvert= \frac{200}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R2}\rvert= \frac{200}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R0}\rvert=0A\)
4. \(\lvert I_{R1}\rvert= \frac{200}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R2}\rvert= \frac{200}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R0}\rvert=\frac{200}{\sqrt{3}}A\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE36.The capacitance (F) per phase per meter of a double circuit 3-phase transmission line in regular hexagonal spacing arrangement is given by, ______ where D is conductor spacing and r is the radius of the conductor.

1. \(C = \frac{\pi \varepsilon_0}{ln(\frac{D}{\sqrt{2 }r})}\)
2. \(C = \frac{\pi \varepsilon_0}{ln(\frac{\sqrt{3}D}{2r})}\)
3. \(C = \frac{4\pi \varepsilon_0}{ln(\frac{D}{r})}\)
4. \(C = \frac{4\pi \varepsilon_0}{ln(\frac{\sqrt{3} D}{2r})}\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE37.If the real power flow through the uncompensated line is 1 pu and the degree of series compensation ‘K’ is 0.5, the power flow through the series compensated line is

1. 2 pu
2. 0.5 pu
3. 1 pu
4. 4 pu

Correct Ans: A

QEE38.Statement 1: The string efficiency of a DC system is 100%.

Statement 2: Suspension insulators are made up of porcelain.

1. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
2. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE
3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE
4. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE

Correct Ans: D

QEE39.If \(w=u^2 e^v , where, \: u=\frac{x}{y}, v=y \:log x \), then the value of \(\frac{dw}{dx}\) is

1. \(\frac{x^y x}{y^2} (2-y)\)
2. \(\frac{y^x y}{x^2} (2+y)\)
3. \(\frac{y^x y}{x^2} (2-y)\)
4. \(\frac{x^y x}{y^2} (2+y)\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE40.If the circuit breaker has assigned rated breaking current of 25 kA, the breaker can be used for locations where the RMS value of short circuit current is

1. more than 50 kA
2. less than 25 kA
3. more than 25 kA but less than 50 kA
4. zero

Correct Ans: B

QEE41.The power circuit diagram of the load-commutated chopper consists of four thyristors T1-T4 and one commutating capacitor C is shown in Fig. If the maximum chopping frequency is \('f_{max}'\), the value of commutating capacitor C is given by

1. \(C = \frac{2I_0}{V_sf_{max}}\)
2. \(C = \frac{2I_0}{3V_sf_{max}}\)
3. \(C = \frac{I_0}{\sqrt 2V_sf_{max}}\)
4. \(C = \frac{I_0}{2V_sf_{max}}\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE42.A 50 kVA, 4400/220 V transformer has primary winding and secondary winding resistance are R1 = 3.45 \(\Omega\) and R2 = 0.009 \(\Omega\) respectively. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the transformer as referred to primary side.

1. 17.62 \(\Omega\)
2. 13.80 \(\Omega\)
3. 3.45 \(\Omega\)
4. 7.05 \(\Omega\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE43.A string of eight suspension insulators is to be fitted with a grading ring as shown in Fig. If the pin to earth capacitances are all equal to \(C\), find the value of line to pin capacitance \(C_1\) that would give a uniform voltage distribution over the string.

1. \(C_1 = 3C\)
2. \(C_1 = C\)
3. \(C_1 = \frac{3C}{5}\)
4. \(C_1 = \frac{C}{7}\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE44.Which biomass feedstock has the least environmental risk?

1. Corn
2. Palm oil
3. Forest residues
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: C

QEE45.Which of the following states produce maximum wind energy in India?

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Gujarat
3. Maharashtra
4. Rajasthan

Correct Ans: A

QEE46.If \(w=u^2 e^v , where, \: u=\frac{x}{y}, v=y \:log x \), then the value of \(\frac{dw}{dx}\) is

1. \(\frac{1}{2} e\)
   
2. \(\frac{1}{2} (e-1)\)
3. \(\frac{1}{2} (2e+1)\)
4. \(\frac{1}{2} (e+1)\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE47.The Fourier transform of \(f(x) = F(s)\), then for \(a>0\), \(F[f(ax)] \) is

1. \(-\frac{1}{a} F(\frac{s}{a})\)
2. \(\frac{1}{a} F(\frac{s}{a})\)
3. \(aF(\frac{s}{a})\)
4. \(-aF(\frac{s}{a})\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE48.Three capacitors of 100 \(\mu F\) each are connected in delta to a 400V, three-phase, 50 Hz supply. What will be the capacitance of each of the three capacitors if the same three capacitors are connected in star across the same supply to draw the same line current?

1. 100 \(\mu F\)
2. 33.33 \(\mu F\)
3. 300 \(\mu F\)
4. 200 \(\mu F\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE49.In a load flow problem solved by Newton-Raphson method with polar coordinates, the size of the Jacobian is 75 x 75. If there are 25 PV buses in addition to PQ buses and a slack bus, the total number of buses in the system is ________.

1. 75
2. 51
3. 76
4. 50

Correct Ans: B

QEE50.In HRC fuse, the term ‘HRC’ stands for

1. High Rating Capacity
2. High Rating of Current
3. High Rupturing Capacity
4. High Resistance Capability

Correct Ans: C

QEE51.Statement 1: The percentage of energy saved at the current rate of use, compared to the reference year rate of use, is called energy utilization.
Statement 2: Pipelines is the most common and economical way of transporting natural gas over land for a distance less than 1500 km.

1. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE
2. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE
4. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE

Correct Ans: A

QEE52.Which of the following statements regarding bundled conductors is true?

1. They increase both corona loss and reactance
2. They decrease corona loss and increases reactance
3. They increase corona loss and decreases reactance.
4. They decrease both corona loss and reactance

Correct Ans: D

QEE53.For a generating unit, the fuel input in millions of \(Btu/hr\) is expressed as a function of output \(P_G\) in MW by \(0.035P_G^2 + 6.5 P_G +150\). Determine the equation for incremental fuel cost in \(Rs/MWhr\) as a function of \(P_G\) in MW based on fuel cost of \(Rs. 2 \: per \: million \:Btu\).

1. \(\frac{dF}{dP_G} = 0.07 P_G +26\)
2. \(\frac{dF}{dP_G} = 0.07 P_G +13\)
3. \(\frac{dF}{dP_G} = 0.14 P_G +13\)
4. \(\frac{dF}{dP_G} = 0.14 P_G +26\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE54.Statement 1: The transient stability of the power system can be effectively improved by phase shifting transformer.

Statement 2: The steady state stability of a power system is improved by single pole switching.

1. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE
2. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE
4. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE

Correct Ans: D

QEE55.A three phase 50 Hz overhead line has regularly transposed conductors equilaterally placed at 4 m spacing. The capacitance is 0.01 μF/km. Recalculate the capacitance per km to neutral when conductors are in the same horizontal plane with successive spacing of 4m and are regularly transposed.

1. 0.096 μF/km
2. 9.6 μF/km
3. 0.96 μF/km
4. 0.0096 μF/km

Correct Ans: D

QEE56.A power system network consists of three elements as shown in Fig. All values are in per unit. It’s bus impedance matrix is given by

1. \(Z_{bus}=\begin{bmatrix}j0.3 & j0.12 \\j0.12 & j0.75 \end{bmatrix}\)
2. \(Z_{bus}=\begin{bmatrix}j0.3 & j0.45 \\j0.45 & j0.75 \end{bmatrix}\)
   
3. \(Z_{bus}=\begin{bmatrix}j0.18 & j0.12 \\j0.12 & j0.18 \end{bmatrix}\)
4. \(Z_{bus}=\begin{bmatrix}j0.18 & j0.45 \\j0.45 & j0.18 \end{bmatrix}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE57.In wind turbine design, the term Tip Speed Ratio (TSR) is defined as

1. TSR = 1 - (wind speed / Tip speed of blade)
2. TSR =wind speed / Tip speed of blade
3. TSR =Tip speed of blade / wind speed
4. TSR = 1 - (Tip speed of blade / wind speed )

Correct Ans: C

QEE58.A composite conductor consists of three conductors of radius R each. The conductors are arranged as shown below. The geometric mean radius (GMR) (in cm) of the composite conductor is kR. The value of k is ___________.

1. 0.75
2. 1.9
3. 3
4. 2.5

Correct Ans: B

QEE59.Which of the following Fig. represent the connection of sequence networks for two conductors open?

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Correct Ans: B

QEE60.A shunt reactor at 200 MVAr is operated at 99% of its rated voltage and at 97% of its rated frequency. The reactive power absorbed by the reactor is

1. 197.94 MVAr
2. 202.08 MVAr
3. 204.12 MVAr
4. 195.96 MVAr

Correct Ans: B

QGL1.એક સાંધે ત્યાં તેર તૂટે' - કહેવત નો અર્થ આપેલા વિકલ્પમાંથી જણાવો.

1. એક ટાંકો મારે ત્યાં તેર ટાંકા તૂટે
2. એક જગ્યાએ સાંધે ત્યાં બીજી તેર જગ્યાએ તૂટે
3. એક મુશ્કેલી ટળે ત્યાં બીજી દસ મુશ્કેલી પેદા થાય
4. એક જ સાંધાથી તેર મુશ્કેલી દૂર થાય

Correct Ans: C

QGL2.આ બંને વાક્યો સાચાં છે કે ખોટાં? વિકલ્પ પસંદ કરીને જણાવો.

૧) નાટકમાં ગોવર્ધન ગોપી બનીને નાચી.

૨) ગામમાં બધાં કૂતરા ભસતાં હતા.

1. વાક્ય ૧ ખોટું છે અને વાક્ય ૨ સાચું છે
2. વાક્ય ૧ અને વાક્ય ૨ બંને ખોટાં છે
3. વાક્ય ૧ સાચું અને વાક્ય ૨ ખોટું છે
4. વાક્ય ૧ અને વાક્ય ૨ બંને સાચાં છે

Correct Ans: A

QGL3.યોગ્ય દ્વિરુક્ત શબ્દજોડી ગોઠવો. ક્યાં વિકલ્પમાં સાચી જોડી છે તે જણાવો.
(૧) કેટકેટલું \(\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\quad \quad \quad \quad\) (અ) ટપટપ ટપટપ
(૨) ભાગંભાગ \(\:\:\:\:\:\quad \quad \quad\quad\) (બ) પાણીબાણી
(૩) ઘરબર \(\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\quad \quad \quad\quad\)(ક) આટઆટલું
(૪) ધડધડ ધડધડ \(\:\quad \quad \quad\quad\)(ડ) વારંવાર

1. (૧)-(ડ), (૨)-(ક),(૩)-(અ),(૪)-(બ)
2. (૧)-(ડ), (૨)-(ક), (૩)-(બ), (૪)-(અ)
3. (૧)-(બ), (૨)-(ક), (૩)-(અ), (૪)-(ક)
4. (૧)-(ક), (૨)-(ડ), (૩)-(બ), (૪)-(અ)

Correct Ans: D

QGL4.સમજ' નો વિરોધી અર્થ આપતું વાક્ય જણાવો.

1. તે વાત સમજી શકતો નથી
2. તે સાવ નાસમજ છે
3. તેનામાં હજુ અણસમજ છે.
4. તેને ગેરસમજ થઈ લાગે છે.

Correct Ans: C

QGL5.અમારે એક/સારા વિજ્ઞાનના/ શિક્ષકની/ જરૂર છે. આ વાક્યમાં ક્યા ભાગમાં ભૂલ છે?

1. અમારે એક
2. સારા વિજ્ઞાનના
3. શિક્ષકની
4. જરૂર છે

Correct Ans: B

QGL6.સમાન જણાતા આ શબ્દોમાંથી કોના અર્થ ખોટાં છે?

(1) અનુસાર: તે મુજબ (2) અનુસ્વાર: લિપિચિહ્ન (3) અનલ: પવન (4) અનિલ: અગ્નિ

1. (1) અને (2) સાચાં અને (3) અને (4) ખોટાં
2. (1), (2), (3) અને (4) ચારેય સાચાં
3. (1), (2), (3) અને (4) ચારેય ખોટાં
4. (1) અને (2) ખોટાં અને (૩) અને (૪) સાચાં

Correct Ans: A

QGL7.માણસથી મનોરથ સેવાય છે'. આ વાક્યનું કર્તરિ વાક્ય વિકલ્પોમાંથી પસંદ કરો.

1. માણસથી મનોરથ સેવાતા હોય છે.
2. કર્તરિ રચના શક્ય નથી.
3. માણસ મનોરથ સેવે છે.
4. માણસથી મનોરથ સેવાશે.

Correct Ans: C

QGL8.લોહી' શબ્દ પર આધારીત કયો એક રૂઢિપ્રયોગ નથી?

1. લોહી ચઢાવવું
2. લોહીનું પાણી થવું
3. લોહી ઊકળવું
4. લોહી પીવું

Correct Ans: A

QGL9.નીચેનામાંથી કયું સમાનાર્થી જોડકું યોગ્ય નથી?

1. નિરામય-નીરોગી
2. પ્રથમી-પાણી
3. તોખાર-અશ્વ
4. શોણિત-રક્ત

Correct Ans: B

QGL10.નીચેના વાક્યોના પ્રકાર જણાવો.

1. વિદ્વાનો અને વડીલો સાથે વાતો કરવાથી જ્ઞાન મળે છે.

૨. જો શિક્ષક હા પડે તો જ રજા મળે.

1. વાક્ય ૧ અને વાક્ય ૨ બંને સંયુક્ત વાક્યો છે.
2. વાક્ય ૧ સાદું વાક્ય અને વાક્ય ૨ સંકુલ વાક્ય છે.
3. વાક્ય ૧ અને વાક્ય ૨ બંને સંકુલ વાક્યો છે.
4. વાક્ય ૧ સંયુક્ત અને વાક્ય ૨ સંકુલ વાક્ય છે.

Correct Ans: B

QGK1.Who among the following sports persons was awarded "Sports Person of the Year 2020" by Federation of Indian Commerce and Industry (FICCI India Sports Awards 2020)?

1. Shagun Chowdary
2. Deepali Deshpande
3. Elizabeth Koshy
4. Elavenil Valarivan

Correct Ans: D

QGK2.Recently, the ruler Mohammed Hosni Mubarak passed away. He belongs to which country?

1. Egypt
2. Jordan
3. Iraq
4. Syria

Correct Ans: A

QGK3.Which of the following productions refers to 'Brown Revolution' in Indian Economy?

1. Agriculture
2. Cocoa
3. Oil Seeds
4. Wool

Correct Ans: B

QGK4.What is the full form of 'CVC', an apex Indian governmental body?

1. Control Vigilance Commission
2. Central Voluntary Commission
3. Crime Vigilance Commission
4. Central Vigilance Commission

Correct Ans: D

QGK5.Which place was an emporium of western trade during the Mughal period?

1. Madras
2. Hampi
3. Surat
4. Delhi

Correct Ans: C

QGK6.Which apex development bank is set up by the Government of India in the field of credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas in India?

1. SIDBI
2. FCI
3. DRDO
4. NABARD

Correct Ans: D

QGK7.Which is the world's largest inhabited riverine island?

1. Srirangam
2. Lulu Island
3. Majuli
4. Csepel

Correct Ans: C

QGK8.Who has won the 'Global Child Prodigy Award 2020' in the category of fitness and martial arts?

1. Anubhav Seth
2. Ishwar Sharma
3. Alpesh Patwari
4. Ajay Tokas

Correct Ans: B

QGK9.When was the British East India company formed?

1. 1571
2. 1602
3. 1532
4. 1600

Correct Ans: D

QGK10.Which of the following states does not share International border with Bhutan?

1. Sikkim
2. Manipur
3. West Bengal
4. Assam

Correct Ans: B

QEK1.Fill in the correct prepositions.

The team's late arrival was ______ the train.

1. within
2. owing to
3. at
4. instead of

Correct Ans: B

QEK2.Choose the word which means most nearly the same as the given word " INDEFATIGABLE"

1. Vigorous
2. Wavering
3. Lazy
4. Idle

Correct Ans: A

QEK3.Select the one word which can substitute the given phrase/sentence.

A false written statement to damage a person's repute.

1. Universal
2. Flounder
3. Protocol
4. Libel

Correct Ans: D

QEK4.\(\color{blue}{Case \: Study}\)
\(\color{blue}{Read\: the\: following \: passage \: and \: answer \: the \: question \: that\: follow.}\)
Targeting risk factors is key to reducing deaths due to cardiovascular diseases. The reinvention of the wheel can be painful. Taking lessons from those who have already run the wheel several revolutions and tweaking those lessons for domestic conditions might not be a bad idea. For India, there is indeed valuable learning from the results of the Prospective Urban Rural Epidemiology (PURE) study published in The Lancet this week. Studying the situation in 21 countries across five continents, categorised by income levels, researchers showed that while cardiovascular disease (CVD) is the leading cause for death overall, there have been some transitions, particularly in the high-income countries, which have managed to reduce the number of deaths from CVD. In low income countries, including India, however, CVD is still the top killer, with death three times more frequent than that due to cancer. What flies in the face of logic is that the risk burden of CVD linked mortality is inversely proportional — lower risk but higher mortality in low-income countries, and higher risk but lower mortality in high-income countries. PURE’s analysis concluded that the higher mortality in poorer countries was likely due to other factors, including ‘lower quality and less health care’. Access to affordable, quality health care is still a dream in many pockets in India. A great amount of out-of-pocket expenditure (according to Health Ministry data for 2014-15, nearly 62.6 \(\%\) of India’s total health expenditure) often frustrates continuation of treatment, or adherence to drug regimens. While some States have shown limited successes with government-sponsored health insurance schemes, the Centre’s Ayushman Bharat Yojana will have to take much of the burden of hospitalisation for complications of non-communicable diseases. National and State schemes running on mission mode, including the National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD and Stroke will have to step up efforts to target people at risk with life saving interventions. While most of the \(\color{blue}{predominant}\) risk factors for cardiovascular disease present no startling medical revelation, it is significant that the single largest risk factor is a low education level. It is no doubt part of the job description of the National Programme to modify this risk factor. However, governments will have to muscle up to tackle a rather startling finding — ambient air pollution and indoor air pollution have an impact on CVD and mortality. Household air pollution is the third top risk factor in low-income countries, according to the study. The need of the hour is out-of-the-box solutions combined with inspiration from models of those who seem to have belled this particular cat. Any plans that target the risk factors and prevent the onset of non communicable diseases will clearly have to be truly game-changing, and incorporate the environmental angle as well.

What is the conceptual meaning of the highlighted word 'Predominant'?

1. Casual
2. Inferior
3. Important
4. Trivial

Correct Ans: C

QEK5.Case Study

Read the following passage and answer the question that follow.

Targeting risk factors is key to reducing deaths due to cardiovascular diseases. The reinvention of the wheel can be painful. Taking lessons from those who have already run the wheel several revolutions and tweaking those lessons for domestic conditions might not be a bad idea. For India, there is indeed valuable learning from the results of the Prospective Urban Rural Epidemiology (PURE) study published in The Lancet this week. Studying the situation in 21 countries across five continents, categorised by income levels, researchers showed that while cardiovascular disease (CVD) is the leading cause for death overall, there have been some transitions, particularly in the high-income countries, which have managed to reduce the number of deaths from CVD. In low income countries, including India, however, CVD is still the top killer, with death three times more frequent than that due to cancer. What flies in the face of logic is that the risk burden of CVD linked mortality is inversely proportional — lower risk but higher mortality in low-income countries, and higher risk but lower mortality in high-income countries. PURE’s analysis concluded that the higher mortality in poorer countries was likely due to other factors, including ‘lower quality and less health care’. Access to affordable, quality health care is still a dream in many pockets in India. A great amount of out-of-pocket expenditure (according to Health Ministry data for 2014-15, nearly 62.6 \(\%\) of India’s total health expenditure) often frustrates continuation of treatment, or adherence to drug regimens. While some States have shown limited successes with government-sponsored health insurance schemes, the Centre’s Ayushman Bharat Yojana will have to take much of the burden of hospitalisation for complications of non-communicable diseases. National and State schemes running on mission mode, including the National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD and Stroke will have to step up efforts to target people at risk with life saving interventions. While most of the predominant risk factors for cardiovascular disease present no startling medical revelation, it is significant that the single largest risk factor is a low education level. It is no doubt part of the job description of the National Programme to modify this risk factor. However, governments will have to muscle up to tackle a rather startling finding — ambient air pollution and indoor air pollution have an impact on CVD and mortality. Household air pollution is the third top risk factor in low-income countries, according to the study. The need of the hour is out-of-the-box solutions combined with inspiration from models of those who seem to have belled this particular cat. Any plans that target the risk factors and prevent the onset of non communicable diseases will clearly have to be truly game-changing, and incorporate the environmental angle as well.




Read the following statements and select the option as per the passage given above.

Statement A : In India, CVD is the top killer as compared to Cancer.

Statement B : The number of deaths due to CVD in the low-income countries is more than the number of deaths in the high-income countries.

1. Statement A is True and Statement B is False
2. Both the statements A and B are True
3. Statement A is False and Statement B is True
4. Both the Statement A and B are False

Correct Ans: B

QEK6.Case Study

Read the following passage and answer the question that follow.

Targeting risk factors is key to reducing deaths due to cardiovascular diseases. The reinvention of the wheel can be painful. Taking lessons from those who have already run the wheel several revolutions and tweaking those lessons for domestic conditions might not be a bad idea. For India, there is indeed valuable learning from the results of the Prospective Urban Rural Epidemiology (PURE) study published in The Lancet this week. Studying the situation in 21 countries across five continents, categorised by income levels, researchers showed that while cardiovascular disease (CVD) is the leading cause for death overall, there have been some transitions, particularly in the high-income countries, which have managed to reduce the number of deaths from CVD. In low income countries, including India, however, CVD is still the top killer, with death three times more frequent than that due to cancer. What flies in the face of logic is that the risk burden of CVD linked mortality is inversely proportional — lower risk but higher mortality in low-income countries, and higher risk but lower mortality in high-income countries. PURE’s analysis concluded that the higher mortality in poorer countries was likely due to other factors, including ‘lower quality and less health care’. Access to affordable, quality health care is still a dream in many pockets in India. A great amount of out-of-pocket expenditure (according to Health Ministry data for 2014-15, nearly 62.6 \(\%\) of India’s total health expenditure) often frustrates continuation of treatment, or adherence to drug regimens. While some States have shown limited successes with government-sponsored health insurance schemes, the Centre’s Ayushman Bharat Yojana will have to take much of the burden of hospitalisation for complications of non-communicable diseases. National and State schemes running on mission mode, including the National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD and Stroke will have to step up efforts to target people at risk with life saving interventions. While most of the predominant risk factors for cardiovascular disease present no startling medical revelation, it is significant that the single largest risk factor is a low education level. It is no doubt part of the job description of the National Programme to modify this risk factor. However, governments will have to muscle up to tackle a rather startling finding — ambient air pollution and indoor air pollution have an impact on CVD and mortality. Household air pollution is the third top risk factor in low-income countries, according to the study. The need of the hour is out-of-the-box solutions combined with inspiration from models of those who seem to have belled this particular cat. Any plans that target the risk factors and prevent the onset of non communicable diseases will clearly have to be truly game-changing, and incorporate the environmental angle as well.



Which is still a dream in India as per the above passage?

1. Quality Education
2. Free Transport
3. Affordable petrol rates
4. Affordable and quality health care

Correct Ans: D

QEK7.Choose the correct article to complete the following sentence.

Russian policies are thought by many to be among ______ best in the world.

1. an
2. No article
3. the
4. a

Correct Ans: C

QEK8.Choose the correct article to complete the following sentence.

Australia's jobless rate unexpectedly increased in ______ January despite a surge in full-time employment.

1. the
2. No article
3. a
4. an

Correct Ans: B

QEK9.Choose the word express nearly the opposite meaning of the given word "SMUTTY".

1. Foul
2. Clean
3. Nasty
4. Rough

Correct Ans: B

QEK10.Fill in the correct prepositions.

The world should be ______ animal experimentation.

1. by
2. across
3. against
4. to

Correct Ans: C

QCK1.Microsoft Excel automatically adjusts the cell reference when the formula is copied and paste into the rest of the cell locations in the column, this process is called __________.

1. ABSOLUTE REFERENCES
2. RELATIVE REFERENCES
3. VARIABLE REFERENCES
4. CONSTANT REFERENCES

Correct Ans: B

QCK2.________ enable/s Excel to dynamically produce new outputs when one or more inputs in the referenced cells are changed.

1. Wordwrap
2. Pastespecial
3. Queries
4. Cell References

Correct Ans: D

QCK3.Statement A: Flash memory is slower than DRAM but needs no power to retain its contents.

Statements B: Solid-state disks have several variants but in general are faster than magnetic disks and nonvolatile.

1. Statement A is false and Statement B is true
2. Both the statements are false
3. Both the statements are true
4. Statements A is true and Statements B is false

Correct Ans: C

QCK4.Which of the following computers belongs to Second generation of computers?

1. CDC 6600
2. ENIAC
3. TRADIC
4. IBM 360

Correct Ans: C

QCK5."Which of the following is a primary method of VLAN hopping?<br>
A) Switch spoofing <br>
B) Double tagging <br>
C) DNS spoofing <br>"

1. B & C
   
2. A & B
   
3. only B
   
4. A & C
   

Correct Ans: B

QCK6.A color code "FFFFFF" refers to white color. Which number system is used to denote this value?

1. Decimal
2. Hexadecimal
3. Octal
4. Binary

Correct Ans: B

QCK7.Device driver is defined as_______.

1. a shell and is essential if human interaction is to be supported.
2. a memory management technique that provides an "idealized abstraction of the storage resources that are actually available on a given machine" which "creates the illusion to users of a very large (main) memory".
3. a specific type of computer software developed to allow interaction with hardware devices.
4. an abstract layer on top of a more concrete file system.

Correct Ans: C

QCK8.Which type of section break is used when your document is set up with double sided printing and mirror margins?

1. Next page section breaks
2. Newspaper section breaks
3. New page section breaks
4. Odd page and Even page section breaks

Correct Ans: D

QCK9.Statement A: Distributed Operating System manages a group of distinct, networked computers and makes them appear to be single computer, as all computations are distributed ( divided amongst the constituent computers).

Statement B: In the distributed and cloud computing context of an OS, templating refers to creating a single virtual machine image as a guest operating system, then saving it as a tool for multiple running virtual machines.

1. Statement A is false and Statement B is true
2. Both the statement are true
3. Both the statements are false
4. Statements A is true and Statements B is false

Correct Ans: B

QCK10.________ is used where the company's telephone system meets its computer system with PBX.

1. Computer Telephony Integration
2. Print server
3. Network Controller
4. Database

Correct Ans: A

Q01.The purpose of providing a choke in a tube light is

1. To eliminate corona effect
2. To avoid radio interference
3. To improve the power factor
4. To limit the current to an appropriate value

Correct Ans: D

Q2.An over current relay having a current setting of 125% is connected to a supply circuit through a current transformer of ratio 400/5. The pick up value is

1. 6.25 A
2. 15 A
3. 10A
4. 12.5 A

Correct Ans: A

Q3.Which of the following distribution system is more reliable?

1. Radial
2. tree system
3. Ring main system
4. all above

Correct Ans: C

Q5.From the stability point of view, what type of grounding is preferred for the star point of the generator?

1. Resistance
2. Resistance and reactance
3. Reactance
4. Peterson coil

Correct Ans: D

Q6.The advantage of cables over overhead lines is

1. Low cost
2. Can be used in high voltage circuits
3. Easy maintenance
4. Can be used in congested areas

Correct Ans: D

Q7.As load factor of plant increases cost of energy generation

1. Increases
2. Decrease
3. May increase or decrease
4. remains same

Correct Ans: B

Q9.The fact that a conductor carries more current on the surface as compared to core, is known as:

1. Permeability
2. unsymmetrical fault
3. skin effect
4. corona

Correct Ans: C

Q10.Long distance railways use which of the following?

1. 200 V DC
2. 25 KV single phase A.C
3. 25 KV two phase A.C
4. 25 KV three phase A.C

Correct Ans: B

Q11.HRC fuses provide best protection against

1. Short circuits
2. Lightening
3. Sparking
4. Fire

Correct Ans: A

Q12.Distribution transformers are usually designed to have maximum efficiency

1. Near full load
2. Near 50 % full load
3. Near 75 % full load
4. At no load

Correct Ans: B

Q13.A low value of the utilization factor for a plant indicates that

1. Plant is under maintenance
2. Plant is used for stand by purpose only
3. Plant is used for base load only
4. Plant is used for base load as well as peak load

Correct Ans: B

Q14.An R-L series circuit draws 15 mA current from a 120 V, 50 Hz supply. The current lags the voltage by 60°. The value of resistance R is

1. 1 k\(\Omega\)
2. 2 k\(\Omega\)
3. 4 k\(\Omega\)
4. 8 k\(\Omega\)

Correct Ans: C

Q15.It is difficult to interrupt a capacitive current because

1. The current has a leading power
2. The restriking voltage can be high
3. Current magnitude is very small
4. Stored energy in the capacitor is very high

Correct Ans: B

Q17.The illumination level on a surface is least affected by :

1. candle power of light source
2. ambient temperature
3. type of reflector used
4. distance of the light source

Correct Ans: B

Q19.A bus bar is rated by

1. Current only
2. Current and voltage only
3. Frequency only
4. Current, voltage and frequency

Correct Ans: D

Q20.Efficiency is the secondary consideration in which of the following power plants?

1. Base load plants
2. Peak load plants
3. Both base and peak load plants
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q21.Compared to Gauss-Seidal method of load flow, the Newton Raphson method takes

1. Less number of iterations and more time per iteration
2. More number of iterations and more time per iteration
3. Less number of iterations and less time per iteration
4. More number of iterations and less time per iteration

Correct Ans: A

Q22.When a line-to-ground fault occurs, the current in the faulted phase is 100A. The zero-sequence current in this case is

1. 33.3 A
2. zero
3. 66.6 A
4. 100 A

Correct Ans: A

Q23.Domestic supply of 220 V, 50 Hz signifies that the peak value of the voltage waveform is

1. 220 volt
2. 310 volt
3. 185 volt
4. 155 volt

Correct Ans: B

Q24.In 3 stepped distance protection, the reach of the three zones of the relay at the beginning of the first line typically extends into

1. 100% of the first line, 50% of the second line and 20% of the third line.
2. 80% of the first line, 50% of the second line and 10% of the third line.
3. 80% of the first line, 50% of the second line and 20% of the third line.
4. 50% of the first line, 50% of the second line and 20% of the third line.

Correct Ans: C

Q26.Power factor of a pure inductor is

1. Unity
2. Zero
3. Infinite
4. 0.707

Correct Ans: B

Q31.Sparking occurs when a load is switched off because the circuit has high

1. Inductance
2. Capacitance
3. Resistance
4. Magnetism

Correct Ans: A

Q33.For a fault at the terminals of a synchronous generator, the fault current is maximum for a

1. 3 phase fault
2. Line to ground fault
3. 3 phase to ground fault
4. Line to line fault

Correct Ans: B

Q35.Operating time of a Buchholz relay is of the order of

1. 0.1 micro second
2. 0.1 milli second
3. 0.1 second
4. 1 second

Correct Ans: C

Q37.Which circuit breaker is generally used for railway traction?

1. \(SF_6\) circuit breaker
2. Air break circuit breaker
3. Vacuum circuit breaker
4. Minimum oil circuit breaker

Correct Ans: B

Q38.The protection against over voltage due to lightning is provided by

1. Use of surge diverters
2. Use of overhead ground wires
3. Low tower footing resistance
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q39.The efficiency of transmission increases as

1. System voltage and load power factor both decrease
2. System voltage and load power factor both increase
3. System voltage decreases but load power factor increases
4. System voltage increases but load power factor decreases

Correct Ans: B

Q41.A generating station having a high investment cost and low operating cost is usually operated as a

1. Peak load station
2. Base load station
3. Medium load station
4. Fast load station

Correct Ans: B

Q44.For preventing the mal-operation of Merz- Price protection scheme on in-rush of magnetizing current,

1. Time lag is provided in the relay
2. The relay restraining coil is biased with the second harmonic current
3. CT mismatching is removed
4. Relay sensitivity is reduced by employing a shunt

Correct Ans: B

Q45.Masson's rule is applied to

1. signal flow graph
2. block reduction technique
3. rotational system
4. hydraulic system

Correct Ans: A

Q45.The arc voltage in a circuit breaker is

1. in the phase with the arc current
2. lagging the arc current by 90°
3. leading the arc current by 90°
4. lagging the arc current by 180°

Correct Ans: A

Q46.In over current protection, the setting of the earth fault relay is

1. More than the phase fault relay
2. The two settings are not related to each other
3. Equal to the phase fault relay
4. Less than the phase fault relay

Correct Ans: D

Q47.If the actual clearing angle is greater than the critical clearing angle. The system is

1. Marginally stable
2. Stable
3. Unstable
4. Conditionally stable

Correct Ans: C

Q48.Load frequency control is achieved by properly matching the individual machine's

1. Reactive powers
2. Generated voltages
3. Turbine inputs
4. Turbine and generator ratings

Correct Ans: C

Q50.Isolators are used to disconnect a circuit when

1. Line is on full load
2. Circuit breaker is not open
3. Line is energized
4. There is no current in the line

Correct Ans: D

Q52.The transfer of power between two stations is maximum when the phase displacement between the voltage of the two stations is

1. \(Zero\)
2. \(120^\circ\)
3. \(90^\circ\)
4. \(180^\circ\)

Correct Ans: C

Q53.MHO relay is normally used for the protection of

1. Short transmission lines
2. Medium transmission lines
3. Long transmission lines
4. Distribution lines

Correct Ans: C

Q56.If the inertial constant ‘H’ of a machine of 200 MVA is 2 p.u., its value corresponding to 400 MVA will be

1. 1 p.u.
2. 2 p.u.
3. 4 p.u.
4. 0.5 p.u.

Correct Ans: A

Q57.A line trap in carrier current relaying tuned to carrier frequency presents

1. Low impedance to both carrier and power frequency
2. High impedance to carrier frequency and low impedance to power frequency
3. High impedance to both carrier frequency and power frequency
4. Low impedance to carrier frequency and high impedance to power frequency

Correct Ans: B

Q59.In load flow study, a PV bus is treated as a PQ bus when

1. Voltage limit is violated
2. Active power limit is violated
3. Phase angle is high
4. Reactive power limit is violated

Correct Ans: D

Q60.Transposition of a transmission line is done to

1. Reduce line loss
2. Reduce skin effect
3. Balance line voltage drop
4. Reduce corona

Correct Ans: C

Q61.Read the following passage and answer the question

All who have gone before you have submitted to the stroke of death. All who come after you shall undergo the same fate. The great and the good, the prince and the peasant, the renowned and the obscure travel alike the road which leads to the grave. At the moment when you expire, thousands throughout the world shall, with you, be yielding up their breath. Can that be held to be a great calamity which is common to you with everything that lives on the earth – which is an event as much according to the course of the nature, as it is that leaves shall fall in autumn, or that fruit should drop from the tree when it is fully ripe.


Death is a natural phenomenon because:

1. It is as natural as the fall of leaves or fruits from the trees.
2. The moment you die, thousands of people all over the world die with you.
3. Many people have died in the past.
4. The great and the good, the prince and the peasat, the renowned and the obscure, all die

Correct Ans: A

Q62.Read the following passage and answer the question

All who have gone before you have submitted to the stroke of death. All who come after you shall undergo the same fate. The great and the good, the prince and the peasant, the renowned and the obscure travel alike the road which leads to the grave. At the moment when you expire, thousands throughout the world shall, with you, be yielding up their breath. Can that be held to be a great calamity which is common to you with everything that lives on the earth – which is an event as much according to the course of the nature, as it is that leaves shall fall in autumn, or that fruit should drop from the tree when it is fully ripe.


The author compares death with the fall of the ripe fruit from a tree to show that death:

1. Occurs in nature also.
2. Gives freedom from the ordeals of life.
3. Is a kind of fall from a great height.
4. Occurs with the achievement of fullness.

Correct Ans: A

Q63.Read the following passage and answer the question

All who have gone before you have submitted to the stroke of death. All who come after you shall undergo the same fate. The great and the good, the prince and the peasant, the renowned and the obscure travel alike the road which leads to the grave. At the moment when you expire, thousands throughout the world shall, with you, be yielding up their breath. Can that be held to be a great calamity which is common to you with everything that lives on the earth – which is an event as much according to the course of the nature, as it is that leaves shall fall in autumn, or that fruit should drop from the tree when it is fully ripe.


Which one of the following sentences shows that death is a great leveler?

1. All who come after you shall undergo the same fate.
2. The great and the good, the prince and the peasant, the renowned and the obscure travel alike the road which leads to the grave.
3. All who have gone before you have submitted to the stroke of death.
4. At the moment when you expire. thousands throughout the world shall, with you, be yielding up their breath.

Correct Ans: B

Q64.What improvement is to be made to the underlined part of the sentence.

The teacher asked me what is your name?

1. What your name is.
2. What was my name
3. What my name was.
4. No improvement

Correct Ans: D

Q65.The size of the address bus required to address 1MB memory for an 8 bit processor is

1. 16
2. 20
3. 24
4. 6

Correct Ans: B

Q65.Select the word which is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word.

'Plethora'

1. scarcity
2. Prevention
3. Prejudice
4. Generosity

Correct Ans: A

Q66.Explain the meaning of the idiom 'The heavens opened'.

1. Suddenly start to rain a lot
2. Suddenly start to cry
3. Suddenly start to dance
4. Suddenly start to shout

Correct Ans: A

Q67.Select the word that is most similar in meaning to the word 'Sparse'.

1. Extremely cold
2. Not dense
3. Redundant
4. Sparkling

Correct Ans: B

Q68.The word representing a group of ships is a

1. Federation
2. Curriculum
3. Convoy
4. Gallery

Correct Ans: C

Q69.Use appropriate article in the blank.

Ustad Amjad Ali Khan Plays _______ sarod.

1. The
2. An
3. A
4. Then

Correct Ans: A

Q70.Read the sentence which has been broken up into 4 parts, A,B,C and D. There is a grammatical error in one of these parts which will be the answer.


I am grateful to you(A)/ and to all your friends(B)/ by extending necessary help(C)/ in my hour of need(D).

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Correct Ans: B

Q71.The sentence given is split into four parts. These four parts are not given in proper sequence. Arrange them in sequence.

A). They were generally fed in the afternoon.

B). But father said that it was most interesting to see them being fed.

C). Gopal wanted to see the lions and tigers first.

D). When we entered the gate, it was difficult to decide which way to go first.

1. DCBA
2. ACDB
3. ABCD
4. CBAD

Correct Ans: A

Q72.The sentence given has two blanks. Fill in the blanks from the four alternatives given, After the board examinations, students are __________ up for the various entrance exams for next month.

1. Ready, timed
2. Prepared, programmed
3. Gearing, scheduled
4. Geared, kept

Correct Ans: B

Q73.Choose the appropriate filler from the alternatives given for the below mentioned sentence. The doctor warns him that unless he gives up smoking ____________.

1. Will he be able to recover
2. He will not recover
3. He will not suffer
4. His health will soon be recovered

Correct Ans: B

Q74.Three meanings of the word "lament' have been given below. One of them is different. Find this word.

1. Sorrow
2. Mourn
3. Grieve
4. Wise

Correct Ans: D

Q75.Find the wrongly spelt word.

1. Procession
2. Posession
3. Passion
4. Profession

Correct Ans: B

Q76.Who invented X-rays?

1. G. Marconi
2. Thomas Alva Edison
3. Wilhelm Roentgen
4. James Watt

Correct Ans: C

Q77.The purest form of carbon and the hardest natural known substance is

1. Graphite
2. Gold
3. Charcoal
4. Diamond

Correct Ans: D

Q78.The first Indian Prime Minister to resign from office was

1. Shri. Morarji Desai
2. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
3. Smt. Indira Gandhi
4. Shri V.V. Giri

Correct Ans: A

Q79.The headquarters of International Labour Organization (ILO) is in

1. Washington
2. Rome
3. Paris
4. Geneva

Correct Ans: D

Q80.The Dhanwantari award is given for contribution in the field of

1. Literature
2. Journalism
3. Medical science
4. Agriculture

Correct Ans: C

Q81.Who is the author of the book "Ignited Minds'?

1. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
2. Mani Shankar Aiyer
3. Jhumpa Lahiri
4. Vikram seth

Correct Ans: A

Q82.Study of insects is called

1. Ornithology
2. Opthalmology
3. Gerontology
4. Entomology

Correct Ans: D

Q83.The capital of Uganda is

1. Kampala
2. Kinshasa
3. Ankara
4. Lisbon

Correct Ans: A

Q84.Who among the following was given alternative name 'Patriot of Patriots'?

1. Lala Lajpatrai
2. Sardar Patel
3. Subhas Chandra Bose
4. Rabindra Nath Tagore

Correct Ans: C

Q85.The first Indian woman to go into space is

1. Bachendri Pal
2. Kalpana Chawla
3. Arati Saha
4. Sunita williams

Correct Ans: B

Q86.The system on which digital system usually operates is

1. Decimal
2. Octal
3. Hexadecimal
4. binary

Correct Ans: D

Q88.Which of the following memories is non-volatile and retains information even after the power is turned off

1. ROM
2. OMR
3. RAM
4. EEPROM

Correct Ans: A

Q90.A CD-ROM disk

1. Cannot be erased and rewritten
2. Hold less data than a floppy disk
3. Can be written to only once
4. Has more storage capacity than a CD-R

Correct Ans: A

Q1.A 4 pole, 50 Hz induction motor has a rotor resistance of 0.3 Ohm and standstill reactance of 1.2 Ohm. What is the value of the speed at maximum torque?

1. 1100 rpm
2. 1025 rpm
3. 1125 rpm
4. 112 rpm

Correct Ans: C

Q2.Basically the boosters are

1. capacitors
2. synchronous motors
3. inductors
4. transformers

Correct Ans: D

Q3.Power system stability is least affected by

1. input torque
2. losses
3. reactance of generator
4. reactance of transmission line

Correct Ans: B

Q4.Corona is likely to occur maximum in

1. transmission lines
2. domestic wiring
3. distribution lines
4. all of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q5.In induction motors, the length of air gap is kept as small as possible in order to have

1. high over load capacity
2. low power factor
3. high power factor
4. any of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q6.Power transformers have rating

1. equal to 100 KVA
2. equal to 50 KVA
3. above 200 KVA
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q7.Tap changing facility is generally provided on

1. distribution transformers
2. current transformers
3. high voltage transformers
4. power transformers

Correct Ans: A

Q8.Which of the following are integrating instruments?

1. voltmeters
2. ammeters
3. watt meters
4. ampere-hour and watt-hour meters

Correct Ans: D

Q9.Which of the following limits the output of a rotating electrical machine?

1. size of the machine
2. temperature rise
3. peripheral velocity
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q10. A large value of short circuit current indicates

1. a poor power factor
2. zero power factor
3. a good power factor
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q11.A potentiometer may be used for

1. measurement of current
2. calibration of ammeter and voltmeter
3. measurement of resistance
4. all of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q12.An ammeter is a

1. absolute instrument
2. recording instrument
3. integrating instrument
4. secondary instrument

Correct Ans: D

Q13.The function of shunt in an ammeter is to

1. by pass the current
2. increase the sensitivity of the ammeter
3. increase the resistance of ammeter
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q14.The initial response when the output is not equal to input is called

1. error response
2. transient response
3. dynamic response
4. either of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q15.________signal will become zero when the feedback signal and reference signal are equal.

1. feedback
2. input
3. actuating
4. reference

Correct Ans: C

Q16.The output of a stepper motor is in the form of

1. angular movements
2. linear movements
3. either (A) or (B)
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q17.________has least range of speed control.

1. dc shunt motor
2. synchronous motor
3. slip ring induction motor
4. Schrage motor

Correct Ans: B

Q18.________method can bring the locomotive to dead stop.

1. Rheostatic braking
2. Plugging braking
3. Regenerative braking
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q19.________method has leading power factor.

1. arc heating
2. induction heating
3. resistance heating
4. dielectric heating

Correct Ans: D

Q20.________welding is not a resistance welding process.

1. Seam
2. Flush
3. Carbon arc
4. Projection

Correct Ans: C

Q21.Filament lamps operates normally at a power factor of

1. unity
2. 0.5 lagging
3. 0.8 lagging
4. 0.8 leading

Correct Ans: A

Q22.The binary equivalent of decimal number 13 is

1. 1101
2. 1010
3. 1100
4. 1001

Correct Ans: A

Q23.For measuring a very high resistance, we should use

1. wheatstone bridge
2. Megger
3. Kelvin's double bridge
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q24.A power factor meter has _______control springs.

1. two
2. one
3. four
4. no springs

Correct Ans: D

Q25.Instrument transformers are

1. potential transformers
2. current transformers
3. Both (A) and (B)
4. power transformers

Correct Ans: C

Q26.Systematic errors are

1. environmental errors
2. instrumental errors
3. observational errors
4. all of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q27.For measurement of inductance having high value, we should use

1. Hay's bridge
2. Maxwell's bridge
3. Maxwell Wein bridge
4. any of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q28.________has the least value of starting torque to full load torque ratio.

1. d.c. series motor
2. d.c. shunt motor
3. slip ring induction motor
4. squirrel cage induction motor

Correct Ans: D

Q29.The use of Op amp is generally not preferred as

1. sub tractor
2. differentiator
3. divider
4. integrator

Correct Ans: B

Q30.The failure % of electric motor is higher due to

1. bearing failure
2. insulation failure
3. over loading
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q31. If three 10 \(\mu\)F capacitors are connected in parallel, the net Capacitance is

1. 10/3 \(\mu\)F
2. 30 \(\mu\)F
3. 3/10 \(\mu\)F
4. 60 \(\mu\)F

Correct Ans: B

Q32.The main purpose of performing open circuit test on a transformer is to measure its

1. Cu loss
2. Core loss
3. total loss
4. insulation resistance

Correct Ans: B

Q33.India's first nuclear power plant was installed at

1. Tarapore
2. Kota
3. Kalpakkam
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q34.Resistance of 220 V, 100 W lamp will be

1. 4.84 Ohm
2. 48.4 Ohm
3. 4840 Ohm
4. 484 Ohm

Correct Ans: D

Q35.The average thermal efficiency of a modern nuclear power plant is about

1. \(30 \%\)
2. \(60 \%\)
3. \(40 \%\)
4. \(80 \%\)

Correct Ans: A

Q36.The output of a solar cell is of the order of

1. 5W
2. 10 W
3. 1W
4. 20 W

Correct Ans: C

Q37.The load factor of domestic load is usually

1. \(10 \: to \: 15 \% \)
2. \(50 \: to \: 60 \% \)
3. \(30 \: to \: 40 \% \)
4. \(60 \: to \: 70 \% \)

Correct Ans: A

Q38.A consumer has to pay lesser fixed charges in

1. two part tariff
2. flat rate tariff
3. simple tariff
4. maximum demand tariff

Correct Ans: D

Q39.Direct conversion of heat into electric power is possible through

1. batteries
2. thermionic converter
3. fuel cell
4. all of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q40.Low power factor is usually not due to

1. arc lamps
2. induction motors
3. fluorescent tubes
4. incandescent lamp

Correct Ans: D

Q41.For a consumer the most economical power factor is generally

1. 0.5 lagging
2. 0.95 leading
3. 0.95 lagging
4. 0.5 leading

Correct Ans: C

Q42.Which of the following source of power is least reliable?

1. Solar energy
2. Geothermal power
3. MHD
4. Wind power

Correct Ans: D

Q43.Which lightening stroke is most dangerous?

1. direct stroke on line conductor
2. direct stroke on tower top
3. indirect stroke on conductor
4. direct stroke on ground wire

Correct Ans: A

Q44.Load shedding is done to

1. improve power factor
2. reduced peak demand
3. run the equipment efficiently
4. repair the machine

Correct Ans: B

Q45.Fault diverters are basically

1. fuses
2. circuit breakers
3. relays
4. fast switches

Correct Ans: D

Q46.Air blast circuit breaker is used for

1. short duty
2. over currents
3. repeated duty
4. intermittent duty

Correct Ans: C

Q47._________has zero temperature co-efficient of resistance.

1. Carbon
2. Aluminum
3. Porcelain
4. Manganin

Correct Ans: D

Q48.A star circuit has element of resistance R/2. The equivalent delta elements will be

1. R/6
2. 2R
3. 3R/2
4. 4R

Correct Ans: C

Q49.The peak value of a sine wave is 200 V. Its average value is

1. 141.4 V
2. 282.8 V
3. 200 V
4. 127.4 V

Correct Ans: D

Q50.The conductors of the overhead lines are

1. stranded
2. solid
3. both (A) and (B)
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q51.The power transmitted will be maximum when

1. reactance is high
2. corona losses are minimum
3. receiving end voltage is more
4. sending end voltage is more

Correct Ans: D

Q52.The current drawn by the line due to corona losses is

1. non-sinusoidal
2. sinusoidal
3. square
4. triangular

Correct Ans: A

Q53.In a tap changing transformer, the tapings are provided on

1. primary winding
2. high voltage winding
3. secondary winding
4. any of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q54.Load factor of a power station is generally

1. equal to unity
2. less than unity
3. more than unity
4. equal to zero

Correct Ans: B

Q55.The minimum dielectric stress in a cable is at

1. bedding
2. armour
3. conductor surface
4. lead sheath

Correct Ans: D

Q56.The surge resistance of cable is

1. 100 ohms
2. 5 ohms
3. 20 ohms
4. 50 ohms

Correct Ans: D

Q57.If the length of a cable is doubled, its capacitance

1. becomes double
2. becomes one-fourth
3. becomes one-half
4. remains unchanged

Correct Ans: A

Q58.A 6 pole lap wound armature has 1200 conductors and flux per pole of 0.01 Wb If the emf generated is 100 V, the machine is driven at a speed of

1. 1200 rpm
2. 100 rpm
3. 600 rpm
4. 500 rpm

Correct Ans: D

Q59.Corona results in

1. better regulation
2. radio interference
3. power factor improvement
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q60.Which of the following motors is inherently self starting ?

1. Split motor
2. Shaded-Pole motor
3. Reluctance motor
4. None of these

Correct Ans: B

Q61.In computing and electronics systems BCD is abbreviation of

1. Binary Coded Decimal
2. Binary Coded Digit
3. Bit Coded Decimal
4. Bit Coded Digit

Correct Ans: A

Q62.Which of the following is an important attribute of RAM memory?

1. Volatile
2. Non-Volatile
3. Random access
4. Sequential access

Correct Ans: A

Q63.Which of the following memories is an optical memory?

1. Floppy Disk
2. Bubble Memories
3. CD-ROM
4. Core Memories

Correct Ans: C

Q64.India's first super computer is

1. Saga 220
2. Eniac
3. Param 8000
4. Param 6000

Correct Ans: C

Q65.Which of the following is not operating system?

1. DOS
2. Unix
3. Window NT
4. Java

Correct Ans: D

Q66.A device that convert digital signals to analog signals is

1. A packet
2. A modem
3. A block
4. Both (A) and (B)

Correct Ans: B

Q67.CD-ROM is a/an

1. Optical device
2. Magnetic device
3. Electro Magnetive device
4. Mechanical device

Correct Ans: A

Q68.The term 'Operating System' means

1. A set of programs which control computer working
2. The way a user operates the computer system
3. Conversion of high level language to machine language
4. The way computer operator works

Correct Ans: A

Q69.What digits are representative of all binary numbers?

1. 0
2. 1
3. Both (A) and (B)
4. 3

Correct Ans: C

Q70.The basic unit of a worksheet into which you enter data in Excel is called a_________.

1. Tab
2. Cell
3. Box
4. Range

Correct Ans: B

Q71.__________is the process of dividing the disk into tracks and sectors.

1. Tracking
2. Formatting
3. Crashing
4. Allotting

Correct Ans: B

Q72.Who was the father of internet?

1. Chares Babbage
2. Vint Cerf
3. Denis Riche
4. Martin Coopers

Correct Ans: B

Q73.The _________enables you to simultaneously keep multiple web pages open in one browsing window.

1. Tab box
2. Pop-up help
3. Tab row
4. Address bar

Correct Ans: C

Q74.What is the shortcut key for spelling check in document ?

1. Shift + F7
2. Ctrl +F7
3. Alt + F7
4. F7

Correct Ans: D

Q75.Full form of URL is?

1. Uniform Resource Locator
2. Uniform Resource Link
3. Uniform Registered Link
4. Unified Resource Link

Correct Ans: A

Q76.Each girl and each boy ________ punished.

1. were
2. was
3. had
4. are

Correct Ans: B

Q77.She _____ in this collage since 2001.

1. is
2. was
3. has
4. has been

Correct Ans: B

Q78.We agreed ______ him _______ the all points.

1. to, with
2. to, by
3. with, to
4. with, by

Correct Ans: C

Q79.Tell me______ she is coming or not.

1. if
2. that
3. whether
4. otherwise

Correct Ans: B

Q80.What is the passive form of: Who has taken my purse?

1. My purse has been taken by whom?
2. By whom my purse has been taken?
3. By whom has my purse been taken?
4. By whom have my purse been taken?

Correct Ans: A

Q81.What is the synonym of 'abridge'?

1. Shorten
2. Strengthen
3. broaden
4. widen

Correct Ans: A

Q82.What is the opposite of 'mighty'?

1. strong
2. powerful
3. honest
4. feeble

Correct Ans: D

Q83.Which is the correct spelling?

1. comittee
2. committee
3. commitee
4. comitee

Correct Ans: B

Q84.What is ecology?

1. study of environment
2. study of flowers
3. study of plants
4. study of universe

Correct Ans: A

Q85.What is the meaning of 'apple of discord' ?

1. very precious
2. very costly
3. cause of dispute
4. a thing of beauty

Correct Ans: C

Q86. 'To put off ' means -

1. to cancel
2. to postpone
3. to oppose
4. to enjoy

Correct Ans: B

Q87.Which word is different in the group?

1. hate
2. despise
3. condemn
4. praise

Correct Ans: D

Q88.I am afraid _______ cats.

1. to
2. from
3. of
4. By

Correct Ans: C

Q89.My father is reading ________ newspaper.

1. today's
2. a today's
3. this day's
4. the today's

Correct Ans: A

Q90.______ staff members attended the meeting.

1. Few
2. A few
3. Any
4. The few

Correct Ans: B

Q91.The international court of justice is located in ______

1. New york
2. Washington
3. London
4. Hegg

Correct Ans: D

Q92.Who is the home minister of india?

1. Narendra Modi
2. Rajnathsinh
3. Sushma Swaraj
4. Arun jetly

Correct Ans: B

Q93.When was gujarat state established?

1. 1 , May 1960
2. 1 , May 1961
3. 1 , May 1963
4. 1 , April 1960

Correct Ans: A

Q94.Who is the finance minister of Gujarat?

1. Nitinbhai Patel
2. Bhupendrasinh Chudasma
3. Saurabhbhai Patel
4. Anandiben Patel

Correct Ans: C

Q95.The world's highest mountain is in ________

1. China
2. Nepal
3. Pakistan
4. India

Correct Ans: B

Q96.The United Nations was founded on _________

1. March 24, 1949
2. October 24 , 1945
3. March 24, 1949
4. October 24 , 1950

Correct Ans: B

Q97.Who is the chief justice of supreme court of india?

1. H.L.Dattu
2. B Altamas Kabir
3. P. Sathashivam
4. R.M.Lodha

Correct Ans: A

Q98.Which day is celebrated as science day?

1. 25, February
2. 21, February
3. 28, February
4. 16, February

Correct Ans: C

Q99.How many member can be nominated in Rajyasabha by the president?

1. 10
2. 17
3. 15
4. 12

Correct Ans: D

Q100.In which place, Dr. Vikram Sarabhai space centre is located?

1. Haidrabad
2. Thumba
3. ShriHarikota
4. Trivendram

Correct Ans: D

Q1.The distribution transformer is rated in

1. KW
2. KVAR
3. KVA
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q2.A circuit breaker, under normal conditions, should be inspected

1. every day
2. every week
3. every month
4. once in 6 months or 12 months

Correct Ans: D

Q3.A 3-phase induction motor is

1. essentially a constant-speed motor
2. a variable speed motor
3. very costly
4. not easily maintainable

Correct Ans: A

Q4.For higher efficiency of 3-phase induction motor, the slip should be

1. Large
2. very large
3. as small as possible
4. 1

Correct Ans: C

Q5.Which of the following inductors will have the least eddy current losses?

1. air-cored
2. iron-cored
3. wooden cored
4. laminated iron-cored

Correct Ans: A

Q6.When p.f. is improved, the kW capacity of alternator is

1. Increased
2. decreased
3. unaffected
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q7.The frequency of e.m.f. generated in an 8-pole alternator running at 900 r.p.m. is

1. 50 Hz
2. 60 Hz
3. 120 HZ
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q8.The initial cost of an equipment is \(Rs. \: 10,000.00 \) and its scrap value after useful life is zero. The annual rate of depreciation is \(10 \%\). Using diminishing value method, the depreciation charge for the second year is

1. Rs. 1000
2. Rs. 500
3. Rs. 900
4. Rs. 750

Correct Ans: C

Q9.A circuit component that opposes the change in circuit voltage is

1. capacitance
2. resistance
3. inductance
4. all

Correct Ans: A

Q10.The power factor of an ordinary electric bulb is

1. Zero
2. unity
3. slightly more than the unity
4. slightly less than the unity

Correct Ans: D

Q11.A transistor converts

1. d.c. power into a.c. power
2. a.c. power into d.c. power
3. high resistance into low resistance
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: D

Q12.Nichrome is an alloy of

1. silver, copper and nickel
2. aluminium, tin and copper
3. nickel, chromium and iron
4. chromium, aluminium and copper

Correct Ans: C

Q13.A 100 watt light bulb burns on average 10 hrs/day for one week. The weekly consumption of energy will be_______kwh.

1. 7
2. 70
3. 0.7
4. 0.07

Correct Ans: A

Q14.An isolator is designed to open a circuit under

1. full-load
2. normal condition
3. no-load
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q15.The purpose of the starter is to

1. limit the starting current
2. limit the speed
3. protect against over voltage
4. produce back emf

Correct Ans: A

Q16.The most commonly used material for insulator of overhead transmission line is

1. Porcelain
2. Glass
3. Steatite
4. None of above

Correct Ans: A

Q17.Sag is provided in overhead lines so that

1. safe tension is not exceeded
2. repair can be made
3. conductor material is saved
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q18.By increasing the clearance spacing between the phases of the transmission lines, Corona Discharge Effect

1. increases
2. reduces
3. remains the same
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q19.The diversity factor is always

1. equal to 1
2. less than 1
3. greater than 1
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q20.In a d.c. \(2-\) wire feeder, the voltage drop per wire is \(2.5 \%\). The transmission efficiency of the feeder is

1. \(97.5 \% \)
2. \( 95 \% \)
3. \(93.75 \% \)
4. \(98.75 \%\)

Correct Ans: B

Q21.Unit of reactive power is

1. VA
2. Watt
3. VAR
4. Ohm

Correct Ans: C

Q22.To increase the capacity of a transmission line for transmitting power, which of the following must be decreased?

1. Capacitance
2. Line inductance
3. Voltage
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q23.1 kWh = _________kcal.

1. 610
2. 746
3. 520
4. 860

Correct Ans: D

Q24._______will work only in d.c. supply.

1. Electric lamp
2. Refrigerator
3. Heater
4. Electroplating

Correct Ans: D

Q25.As a matter of economy, voltage for power transmission should be

1. low
2. medium
3. high
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q26.The resolution of an instrument is the

1. minimum quantity it can measure
2. maximum quantity it can measure
3. maximum non-linearity
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q27.The capital cost of a power plant depends on

1. total installed capacity only
2. total number of units only
3. total installed capacity and number of units as well
4. neither the installed capacity nor number units

Correct Ans: C

Q28.Which of the distribution system is used for balanced load?

1. 1-phase, 2-wires system
2. 3-phase, 4-wire system
3. 3-phase, 3-wire system
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q29.The principle of dynamically induced emf is utilized in

1. transformer
2. choke
3. generator
4. thermocouple

Correct Ans: C

Q30.The amount of copper in the primary is___________that of secondary.

1. about the same as
2. greater than
3. smaller than
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q31.The operating time of a fuse is about

1. 0.002 sec.
2. 1 sec
3. 0.8 sec.
4. 1.5 sec.

Correct Ans: A

Q32.A \(5^\circ C\) rise in temperature is observed in a conductor by passing a current. When the current is doubled, the rise in temperature will be

1. \(10^\circ C\)
2. \(12^\circ C\)
3. \(16^\circ C\)
4. \(20^\circ C\)

Correct Ans: D

Q33.If the back e.m.f. in a d.c. motor vanishes suddenly, the motor will

1. run at very high speed
2. run at very slow speed
3. have winding burnt
4. not run at all

Correct Ans: C

Q34.A distribution transformer is rated at 100 kVA. The maximum active power that it can supply is

1. 200 kW
2. 75 kW
3. 150 kW
4. 100 kW

Correct Ans: D

Q35.A 2 KVA transformer has iron loss of 150 W and full-load copper loss of 250 W. The maximum efficiency of the transformer would occur when the total loss is

1. 300 W
2. 400 W
3. 500 W
4. 275 W

Correct Ans: A

Q36.The two-part tariff is used for

1. domestic consumers
2. commercial consumers
3. agricultural consumers
4. industrial consumers

Correct Ans: D

Q37.In which part of the thermal power plant, the steam pressure is less than that of atmosphere?

1. Boiler
2. Turbine
3. Condenser
4. Superheater

Correct Ans: C

Q38.Stray losses consist of

1. magnetic and mechanical losses
2. magnetic and copper losses
3. mechanical & copper losses
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: A

Q39.If 3 MW power is to be transmitted over a distance of 30 km, the desirable transmission voltage will be

1. 33 kV
2. 132 kV
3. 66 kV
4. 220 kV

Correct Ans: A

Q40.Nuclear reactors utilize the process of

1. fusion
2. fission
3. both fusion and fission
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q41.In a two phase generator, the electrical displacement between the two phases or windings is_________electrical degrees.

1. 120
2. 90
3. 180
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q42.Ampere hour is the unit of

1. electric current
2. electric charge
3. electric energy
4. electric power

Correct Ans: B

Q43.An induction motor and synchronous motor are connected to a common feeder line. To operate the feeder line at unity pf, the synchronous motor should be

1. under-excited
2. over-excited
3. normally excited
4. disconnected from the common terminals

Correct Ans: B

Q44.Poles of dc machine are often laminated to

1. reduce pulsation loss
2. reduce armature reaction
3. reduce iron weight
4. dissipate more heat

Correct Ans: A

Q45.Sky appears blue because of

1. refraction
2. reflection
3. radiation
4. scattering of light over dust particles

Correct Ans: D

Q46.If voltage is increased by n times, the size of the conductor would

1. increase by \(n\) times
2. reduce by \(\frac{1}{n}\) times
3. increase by \(n^2\) times
4. reduce by \(\frac{1}{n^2}\) times

Correct Ans: D

Q47.The semiconductors and insulating material are having________ temperature coefficient of resistance. therefore, the resistance of semiconductors and insulators_________with rise in temperature.

1. positive, decrease
2. negative, increase
3. negative, decrease
4. positive, increase

Correct Ans: C

Q48.What type of magnetic behavior is observed in a type-I superconductor?

1. Perfect diamagnetism
2. Perfect paramagnetism
3. Perfect ferromagnetism
4. Perfect ferrimagnetism

Correct Ans: A

Q49.Shunt strips are usually made of

1. copper
2. aluminium
3. silver
4. manganin

Correct Ans: D

Q50.In houses the illumination is in the range of

1. 2-5 lumens/watt
2. 10-20 lumens/watt
3. 35-45 lumens/watt
4. 60-65 lumens/watt

Correct Ans: D

Q51.The transient stability limit of a power system can be appreciably increased by introducing

1. series inductance
2. shunt inductance
3. series capacitance
4. shunt capacitance

Correct Ans: C

Q52.If the length of a wire of resistance R is uniformly stretched to n times its original value, its new resistance is

1. \(nR\)
2. \(\frac{R}{n}\)
3. \(\frac{R^2}{n}\)
4. \(\frac{R}{n^2}\)

Correct Ans: C

Q53.In an a.c. series RLC circuit, the voltage across R and L is 20 V, voltage across L and C is 9 V and voltage across RLC is 15 V. What is the voltage across C?

1. 7V
2. 12 V
3. 16 V
4. 21 V

Correct Ans: A

Q54.In a bulk oil circuit breaker, the oil actually used for arc extinction is about

1. \(60 \% \) of total
2. \(40 \% \) of total
3. \(90 \% \) of total
4. \(10 \% \) of total

Correct Ans: D

Q55.When a line-to-ground fault occurs, the current in the faulted phase is 100A. The zero-sequence current in this case is

1. 33.3 A
2. zero
3. 66.6 A
4. 100 A

Correct Ans: A

Q56.Under dry conditions, the resistance offered by the human body may be as high as

1. \(200\:\Omega\)
2. \(100\:\Omega\)
3. \(100000\:\Omega\)
4. \(250\:\Omega\)

Correct Ans: C

Q57.An inductive circuit draws a line current of 10 A. If the reactive component of line current is 6 A, then power factor of the circuit is

1. 0.6 lagging
2. 0.8 lagging
3. 0.5 lagging
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q58.A charge of \(4.8 \times10^5 \:C\) passes through a solution of copper sulphate. The number of \(Cu^{++}\) ions liberated from the electrolyte is

1. \(2 \times 10^{12}\)
2. \(1.25 \times 10^{22}\)
3. \(3 \times 10^{19}\)
4. \(1.5 \times 10^{24}\)

Correct Ans: D

Q59.The transformer has a turns ratio of 4:1. The resistance of the HV winding is 8 ohms and that of the LV winding is 1 ohm. The total resistance on HV side in ohms is

1. 9
2. 8.25
3. 24
4. 9.5

Correct Ans: C

Q60.Two wires are of equal length. One is bent into square loop and the other circular loop. They are suspended in uniform magnetic field and the same current is passed through them. The torque will be

1. equal in two cases
2. more on square loop
3. more on circular loop
4. data incomplete

Correct Ans: C

Q61.A device which is used to connect a peripheral to bus is known as

1. communication protocols
2. control register
3. interface
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: C

Q62.What is meant by a dedicated computer?

1. Which is used by one person only
2. Which is assigned one and only one task
3. Which uses one kind of software
4. Which is meant for application software

Correct Ans: B

Q63.Human beings are referred to as Homosapinens, which device is called Sillicon Sapiens?

1. Monitor
2. Hardware
3. Computer
4. Robot

Correct Ans: C

Q64.The IP address code does not contain

1. name of the country
2. service provider
3. user name
4. network

Correct Ans: C

Q65.Semiconductor memories are

1. Volatile
2. non volatile
3. volatile as well as non-volatile
4. neither volatile nor non-volatile

Correct Ans: C

Q66.MDR stands for

1. Main divider register
2. Master delay register
3. Main demodulating register
4. Memory data register

Correct Ans: D

Q67.Permanent data like logarithmic tables are stored in a computer on a

1. ROM
2. Tape
3. Drum
4. Core

Correct Ans: A

Q68.Which of the following is used as a data selector?

1. Multiplexer
2. Demultiplexer
3. Decoder
4. Encoder

Correct Ans: A

Q69.A small or intelligent device is so called because it contains within it a

1. Computer
2. Microcomputer
3. Transistor
4. Sensor

Correct Ans: D

Q70._______is the sequence of instructions that tell the computer how to process the data.

1. Address
2. Program
3. Flow Chart
4. Control unit

Correct Ans: B

Q71.A microprocessor contains which of the following?

1. peripheral drivers
2. most of the ROM
3. most of the RAM
4. most of the control and arithmatic logic functions of a computer

Correct Ans: D

Q72.An error in a computer hardware and software is called a bug Another name for it is

1. Glitch
2. Genetics
3. Virus
4. Pixel

Correct Ans: A

Q73.RAM (Random Access Memory) is_________memory.

1. Fastest
2. slowest
3. random
4. read only

Correct Ans: A

Q74.A network which is used for sharing data, software and hardware among several users owning, microcomputers is called

1. WAN
2. MAN
3. LAN
4. VAN

Correct Ans: C

Q76.Correct the sentence: I don't believe in what he says.

1. I am not believing
2. I will not believe
3. I have not believing
4. No correction

Correct Ans: D

Q77.My sleepless nights became _______as the test approached.

1. So frequently
2. more frequent
3. much more frequently
4. far more frequent then

Correct Ans: B

Q78.Choose the appropriate meaning of the idiom. "Make up one's mind".

1. to be prepared
2. to make someone happy
3. make a decision
4. to criticize someone

Correct Ans: C

Q79.What is opposite of "ENORMOUS"?

1. Tiny
2. Soft
3. Weak
4. Fragile

Correct Ans: A

Q80.I don't have ________ much time for reading _____ I would like to.

1. as/as
2. more/than
3. too/that
4. such/that

Correct Ans: A

Q81.Do you remember________ girl that we saw last night?

1. a
2. an
3. the
4. no article

Correct Ans: C

Q82.Instead of firing ________ the terrorist, the guard fired ______the mob.

1. on, at
2. at, upon
3. on, on
4. to, at

Correct Ans: B

Q83.Select the correctly spelled word:

1. Guaranty
2. Gaurantee
3. Garantee
4. Guarantee

Correct Ans: D

Q84.Pick out the word closest in meaning to the given word: "Lenient".

1. Rigorous
2. Tender
3. Jolly
4. Restrictive

Correct Ans: B

Q85.Ornithologist : Birds then Anthropologist : __________

1. Environment
2. Mankind
3. Animals
4. Plants

Correct Ans: B

Q86.Change the Voice: They had not done their tasks.

1. Their tasks had not been done.
2. Their tasks had been not done.
3. Their tasks have not been done.
4. Their tasks have been not done .

Correct Ans: A

Q87.My uncle knew that his boss _______ to Nagpur.

1. went
2. gone
3. had gone
4. had been gone

Correct Ans: C

Q88.An examination of a dead body is called:

1. Amputate
2. Autopsy
3. Morgue
4. Crusade

Correct Ans: B

Q89.English is today the third ________ native language worldwide.

1. the more spoken
2. much spoken
3. the least spoken
4. most spoken

Correct Ans: D

Q90.Garima's mother had firm_______ in her.

1. believed
2. believing
3. belief
4. believes

Correct Ans: C

Q91.Who is the newly elected Prime Minister of Nepal?

1. Khadga Prasad Oil
2. Pushpa Kamal Dahal
3. Khil Raj Regmi
4. Baburam Bhattarai

Correct Ans: B

Q92.How much insurance cover has been offered by the Indian Railways for passengers?

1. Rs. 5 lakh
2. Rs. 2 lakh
3. Rs. 8 lakh
4. Rs. 10 lakh

Correct Ans: D

Q93.The 2016 SAARC Home Ministers' conference was held in which of the following cities?

1. New Delhi
2. Dhaka
3. Islamabad
4. Kathmandu

Correct Ans: C

Q94.Which Indian athlete bagged the First medal in Rio Olympic 2016?

1. M C Mary Kom
2. Sakshi Malik
3. Saina Nehwal
4. Karnam Maheshwari

Correct Ans: B

Q95.who has been sworn-in as the new Governor of Punjab?

1. Najma Heptulla
2. VP Singh Badnore
3. Jagdish Mukhi
4. Kaptan Singh Solanki

Correct Ans: B

Q96.which state has become the first Indian state to set up 'Happiness Department'?

1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Sikkim
4. Tripura

Correct Ans: B

Q97.Who is the newly appointed chairman of the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)?

1. Dilip Rath
2. Milind Rathore
3. T Nandakumar
4. K S Mishra

Correct Ans: A

Q98.Which Indian personality has been chosen for the coveted French honour of Chevalier Award?

1. Naseeruddin Shah
2. Sumitra Ghosh
3. Kamal Haasan
4. Amitabh Bachchan

Correct Ans: C

Q99.Mahasweta Devi, who recently passed away, was the well-known personality of which field?

1. Medical
2. Literature
3. Classical Dancer
4. Photography

Correct Ans: B

Q100.The Durand Cup is associated with which sports?

1. Football
2. Cricket
3. Basketball
4. Hockey

Correct Ans: A

Q1.Calculate the value of ∮ H.dl, for the currents and closed path of figure

1. 10 A
2. -70 A
3. 70 A
4. -10 A

Correct Ans: D

Q2.Which of the following relay is used to detect incipient faults which are initially minor but may cause major faults in due course of time in a transformer?

1. over current relays
2. thermal relays
3. temperature sensitive relays
4. Buchholz relay

Correct Ans: D

Q4.A synchronous motor has excitation emf of 0.6 pu. If it is operated from a bus voltage of 1.0 pu and drawing 1.0 pu zero power factor leading current, the synchronous reatance of the motor will be

1. 0.4
2. 2.6
3. 1
4. 1.6

Correct Ans: A

Q6.In a three phase unbalanced, four wire star connected system, the current in the neutral wire is given as

1. zero
2. vector sum of the currents in the three lines
3. \(\sqrt{3}\) times the current in each phase
4. three time the current in individual phase

Correct Ans: B

Q7.A 5 kVA transformer has iron losses and full load copper losses are 250 W, 350W respectively. The tranformer will deliver maximum efficiency when the total loss is

1. 250W
2. 600W
3. 350W
4. 500W

Correct Ans: D

Q9.The type of DC generator suitable for battery charging in automobiles is

1. DC shunt
2. DC differentially compound
3. DC cummulative compound
4. DC series

Correct Ans: A

Q11.For an EHV transmission line, to increase transmission capacity of the line which of the follwing is used

1. Series inductive compensation
2. Shunt inductive compensation
3. Shunt capacitive compensation
4. Series capacitive compensation

Correct Ans: D

Q12.The time taken to perform one iteration of the computation in GS method as compared to NR method is

1. indefinite
2. relatively small
3. relatively high
4. equal

Correct Ans: B

Q13.Point charges 50 nC, -40 nC, and 60 nC are located at (-1,0,8), (0,-1.5,0.5), and (1,1, -1), respectively. The total flux leaving a cube of side 4 m centered at the origin is:

1. -100 nC
2. -20 nC
3. 20 nC
4. 10 nC

Correct Ans: C

Q14.The range of wind speed suitable for wind power generator is

1. 25-50m/s
2. 5-25 m/s
3. 50-70 m/s
4. 0-5 m/s

Correct Ans: B

Q21.For a relay, whose relay setting is 50% and the CT ratio is 500/5. What will be the value of fault current when the plug setting multiplier is 8.

1. 3000A
2. 2000A
3. 4000A
4. 1000A

Correct Ans: B

Q24.Which of the following circuit breakers can be used in an indoor substation of 220 kV?

1. \(Air\)
2. \(Oil\)
3. \(SF_6\)
4. \(Vacuum\)

Correct Ans: C

Q26.The size of jacobian matrix of a 13 bus power system with 5 voltage controlled buses and a slack bus is

1. 21 * 21
2. 15 * 15
3. 19 * 19
4. 17 * 17

Correct Ans: C

Q28.A 220 V, 40 A DC shunt motor has Ra = 0.3 Ω. The resistance to be inserted in armature circuit during starting so that the starting current does not exceed twice the rated value is

1. 5.2Ω
2. 5.8Ω
3. 2.45Ω
4. 5.5Ω

Correct Ans: C

Q31.When the nature of fault in a power system is L-L-G, the three sequence voltages at the point of fault are found to be

1. zero
2. equal
3. not equal
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q32.Consider the following statements:

A three phase induction motor is connected to the grid. If P is active power and Q is reactive power, the signs of P and Q are respectively

1. positive and positive while operating as motor

2. positive and negative while operating as motor

3. negative and positive while operating as generator

4. positive and positive while operating as generator

1. 1,4 are corrrect
2. 2,4 are correct
3. 2,3 are correct
4. 1,3 are correct

Correct Ans: D

Q33.Which of the following is true with respect to bridges?

1. Schering's bridge is used to measure inductance of the coil

2. Heavside Campbell bridge is used to measure capacitance

3. Wien's bridge is used for measuring frequency of the coil

4.Hay's bridge is used to measure capacitance of the coil

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 2 and 4
3. 3 only
4. 1 only

Correct Ans: C

Q34.Which of the following is correct for an auto transformer for using it in transmission and distribution?

1. eddy current loss should be reduced
2. hysteresis loss should be reduced
3. efficiency considerations should ignored
4. transformation ratio should be small

Correct Ans: D

Q39.In a single phase transformer, which kind of load gives highest voltage regulation

1. unity power factor
2. 0.8 power factor lagging
3. 0.7 power factor leading
4. 0.8 power factor leading

Correct Ans: B

Q41.In an integrated power systems, pumped storage power plant is most suitable to meet

1. base load only
2. peak load only
3. peak load and base load
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

Q43.Point charges of 1.5 μC each are located at A(2, 0, 0), B(-2, 0,0), C(0, 2, 0), and D(0, −2, 0) in freespace. Find the total force on the charge at A.

1. 8.6 mN
2. 7.6 mN
3. 9.6 mN
4. 4.8 mN

Correct Ans: D

Q58.Rotating magnetic field is produced in a shaded pole motor using

1. damper winding
2. main winding
3. armature coil
4. shading coil

Correct Ans: D

QEE_60.A bidirectional 4-bit shift register is storing the nibble 1110. Its input is LOW. The nibble 0111 is waiting to be entered on the serial data-input line. After two clock pulses, the shift register is storing ________

1. 1110
2. 111
3. 1001
4. 1000

Correct Ans: C

QEE3.For a ramp input, the steady state error for \(G(s)=\frac{k(s+z_1)(s+z_2)}{s(s+p_1)(s+p_2)}\) is

1. \(\frac{1}{K_v}\)
2. Infinity
3. 0
4. \(K_v\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE5.Which controller is used for improving steady state performance?

1. Integral Controller
2. Proportional Controller
3. Derivative Controller
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

QEE8.single phase full wave thyristor converter is supplying an RL load. The supply voltage is 200 V, and triggering angle is 60º. If the load is drawing a constant current from the source the output voltage will be

1. 75 V
2. 90 V
3. 135 V
4. 110 V

Correct Ans: B

QEE15.In two Wattmeter method if one of the wattmeter reads twice that of the other, then

1. Power factor is unity
2. Phase angle is 30 degree lag
3. Power factor is zero
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

QEE16.The energy stored in an 10 m long solenoid with 4000 turns and cross section of 5 square meter which carries the current of 20 mA in the coil is

1. 2 mJ
2. 50 μ J
3. 2 μ J
4. 15 μ J

Correct Ans: A

QEE17.The Energy Conservative element in a mechanical system is

1. Mass
2. Spring
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Damper

Correct Ans: C

QEE18.Voltage shunt feedback amplifiers are also called as

1. Inverting amplifier without feedback
2. Non-inverting amplifier without feedback
3. Inverting amplifier with feedback
4. Non-inverting amplifier with feedback

Correct Ans: C

QEE19.In the circuit, the transistor has a large \(\beta\) value \((V_{BE} = 0.7V)\). Find the current through \(R_C\).

1. 2mA
2. 1.6mA
3. 1mA
4. 0.5mA

Correct Ans: C

QEE20.What is the purpose of Direct Memory Access (DMA) facility in microprocessor based system?

1. to increase the speed of data transfer between the microprocessor
   and the I/O device
2. to increase the speed of data transfer between the memory and the I/O device
3. to increase the speed of data transfer between the μP and the memory
4. to improve thr reliability of the system

Correct Ans: B

QEE22.Determine the current through all the parallel resistors

1. 5.5, 4.5, 1.5
2. 2.5, 1.67, 0.83
3. 3, 2, 1
4. 3.5, 2.7, 1.8

Correct Ans: B

QEE27.The ratio between the fundamental current component and the total current component is called

1. displacement factor
2. power factor
3. harmonic factor
4. distortion factor

Correct Ans: D

QEE29.What is the minimum number of NAND and NOR gates required to construct half adder sum ?

1. 5,5
2. 4,5
3. 5,4
4. 4,4

Correct Ans: B

QEE30.Which of the following flags is not a part of Flag register of 8085 microprocessor?

1. Auxillary Carry Flag
2. Sign Flag
3. Overflow Flag
4. Carry Flag

Correct Ans: C

QEE35.What happens if the potentiometer is connected to negative supply?

1. Output waveform below +V_ref will be clipped off
2. Output waveform below -V_ref will be clipped off
3. Output waveform above +V_ref will be clipped off
4. Output waveform above -V_ref will be clipped off

Correct Ans: B

QEE36.A 220 V DC supply is connected to a DC chopper which is operating on TRC control mode at a frequecy of 5 kHz. When the output is 110 V, the ON and OFF period of each cycle are respectively

1. 150 \(\mu s\),50 \(\mu s\)
2. 50 \(\mu s\),50 \(\mu s\)
3. 50 \(\mu s\),150 \(\mu s\)
4. 100 \(\mu s\),100 \(\mu s\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE37.Which of the following logic expressions represents the logic diagram shown?

1. X=AB’+A’B
2. X=(AB)’+AB
3. X=A’B’+AB
4. X=(AB)’+A’B’

Correct Ans: C

QEE38.For a transfer function \(G(s)=\frac{1}{s}\) , the bode plot will be

1. -20 db/decade and phase shift of \(-\frac{\pi}{2}\)
2. Constant magnitude and phase shift of \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
3. Zero magnitude and zero phase shift
4. Constant magnitude and constant phase shift angle

Correct Ans: A

QEE40.In a thyristor, the relation between the holding current I_H and the latching current I_L is

1. I_H ˃ I_L
2. I_H < I _L
3. I_H = I_L
4. both are zero

Correct Ans: B

QEE42.What is the barrier potential for the germanium diode ?

1. 1.45 V
2. 0.7 V
3. 0.9 V
4. 0.3 V

Correct Ans: D

QEE44.Which of the following determines the capacitance of a capacitor?

1. plate area, dielectric strength and plate seperation
2. plate area,dielectric constant and plate seperation
3. temperature co-efficient, plate area and plate seperation
4. voltage rating, dielectric constant and temperature co-efficient

Correct Ans: B

QEE45.A two port network is defined by the relations \(I_1=V_1+2V_2\) and \(I_2=3V_1+2V_2\). then \(Z_{12}\) is

1. -2
2. 2
3. 1/2
4. - 1/2

Correct Ans: C

QEE46.Find the centroid value for the open loop transfer function \(G(s)=\frac{K}{s(s+2)(s+4)}\)

1. -6
2. 4
3. -1
4. -2

Correct Ans: D

QEE48.For a single phase square wave inverter, what is the persentage of the third order harmonic component in relation to the fundamental component

1. 25%
2. 33.33%
3. 48%
4. 15.30%

Correct Ans: B

QEE49.Find the current through 3 \(\Omega\) resistor in the figure shown below

1. 2A
2. 1A
3. 5A
4. 3A

Correct Ans: B

QEE50.The collector current is \(2.945 \:mA\) and \(\alpha = 0.98\). The leakage current is \(2\:\mu A\). What is the emitter current and base current?

1. \(3\:mA\) and \(55 \:\mu A\)
2. \(2.945\:mA\) and \(55\:\mu A\)
3. \(3.64\:mA\) and \(33\:\mu A\)
4. \(5.89\:mA\) and \( 65\:\mu A\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE51.The change in collector emitter voltage from 6V to 9V causes increase in collector current from 6mA to 6.3mA. Determine the dynamic output resistance.

1. 20kΩ
2. 10kΩ
3. 60kΩ
4. 50kΩ

Correct Ans: B

QEE52.The power factor of a single phase full wave diode bridge rectifier is

1. 0.45 lagging
2. 0.707 lagging
3. 0.9 lagging
4. 0.707 leading

Correct Ans: C

QEE53.Time constant of a series RC circuit is equal to

1. \(CR\)
2. \(CR^2/2 \)
3. \(CR/2\)
4. \(CR^2\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE54.For the circuit below the inductor is initially relaxed. The switch is closed at \(t=0\). Find the value of voltage across \(2\:\Omega\) resister at \(t = 0_+\).

1. 0.5 V
2. 5 V
3. 3 V
4. 2 V

Correct Ans: B

QEE55.An active network is supplying a load. Rth and Vth at the terminals to which the load is connected is 15 Ω and 90 V respectively. Then maximum power supplied to the load is

1. 150 W
2. 1350 W
3. 1500 W
4. 135 W

Correct Ans: D

QEE57.Determine the value of R in the circuit shown in the figure

1. 14
2. 10
3. 7
4. 9

Correct Ans: A

QEE59.The step response of a system is \((1+e^{-3t})\). It is cascaded with another control block with impulse response of \(e^{-2t}\). The transfer function of the cascaded combination is

1. \(\frac{1}{s(s+3)}\)
2. \(\frac{2s+3}{(s+2)(s+3)}\)
3. \(\frac{2}{(s+1)(s+2)}\)
4. \(\frac{1}{s(s+2)}\)

Correct Ans: B

QCK1.How many layers do Network Communication have?

1. 8
2. 7
3. 6
4. 5

Correct Ans: B

QCK2.What is the shortcut key to select the whole document?

1. Ctrl+W
2. Ctrl+T
3. Ctrl+M
4. Ctrl+A

Correct Ans: D

QCK3.Which of these devices is not related to Magnets?

1. Magnetic Drum
2. Floppy Drive
3. Magnetic Disk
4. Pen Drive

Correct Ans: D

QCK4.What does RDBMS stand for?

1. Rational Database Management System
2. Relational Database Management System
3. Relational Database Management Software
4. Relational Database Managerial System