UGVCL

QEE1.Fig. shows the single-line diagram of a power system. The % reactance value of the 11kV generators is calculated by taking their ratings as base values. Calculate the short-circuit MVA if a 3-phase fault occurs at the beginning of the feeder. Choose base MVA as 20 MVA.

1. 130 MVA
2. 45 MVA
3. 180 MVA
4. 90 MVA

Correct Ans: D

QEE2.Find GMR of a stranded conductor having seven identical strands each of radius r as shown in Fig.

1. 1.414 r
2. 1.732 r
3. 2.177 r
4. 3 r

Correct Ans: C

QEE3.In the network as shown in Fig, the marked parameters are p.u. impedances. The bus-admittance matrix of the network is

1. \(Y_{bus} = \begin{bmatrix}-j5 & j5 \\j5 & -j5 \end{bmatrix}\)
2. \(Y_{bus} = \begin{bmatrix}-j10 & j5 \\j5 & -j10 \end{bmatrix}\)
3. \(Y_{bus} = \begin{bmatrix}-j10 & j5 \\j5 & -j5 \end{bmatrix}\)
4. \(Y_{bus} = \begin{bmatrix}-j10 & j10 \\j10 & -j5 \end{bmatrix}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE4.The value of \(\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{x^2}{e^x}\) is

1. 0
2. -1
3. 1
4. 2

Correct Ans: A

QEE5.If \(W=f(z) \) is analytic, \(\frac{d^2 W}{dz d \bar{z}}\) is equal to

1. -1
2. 1
3. 2
4. 0

Correct Ans: D

QEE6.Three generators are connected in parallel whose ratings are as follows:
\(G_1: 100 MVA, 12 kV, X_{g1} = 0.1 pu\)
\(G_2: 200 MVA, 12 kV, X_{g2} = 0.15 pu\)
\(G_3: 150 MVA, 15 kV, X_{g3} = 0.15 pu\)
Find the equivalent per unit reactance of the system on 200 MVA, 15 kV system base.

1. 0.43 pu
2. 0.043 pu
3. 0.19 pu
4. 0.019 pu

Correct Ans: B

QEE7.If \(A\) is a singular matrix, then the product of eigen value of \(A^2+3A\) is

1. 4
2. 0
3. 2
4. 1

Correct Ans: B

QEE8.In \(SF_6\) circuit breaker, the current chopping tendency is minimized by using the \(SF_6\) gas at __________ pressure and ________ velocity.

1. low, low
2. low, high
3. high, low
4. high, high

Correct Ans: A

QEE9.The Unified Power Flow Controller (UPFC) is a combination of _______.

1. TSSC and TCR
2. STATCOM and SSSC
3. STATCOM and TCSC
4. SSSC and TSC

Correct Ans: B

QEE10.Open circuit and short circuit tests on a 3 kVA, 230 / 230 V, 50 Hz, single phase transformer gave the following results:

OC test: 230 V, 2 A, 100 W

SC test: 15 V, 13 A, 120 W

Determine the efficiency of the transformer at full load and 0.80 power factor lagging.

1. 96.60%
2. 91.60%
3. 98.60%
4. 94.60%

Correct Ans: B

QEE11.The photovoltaic array comprises of 16 modules each with a rating of 160 W peak. Taking the derating of array as 0.77, and daily sunshine hours of 6, the DC energy output of the array is

1. 23.38 kWh
2. 19.95 kWh
3. 32.85 kWh
4. 11.83 kWh

Correct Ans: D

QEE12.The per unit impedance of the circuit element is j0.2. If the base kV is doubled and base MVA is halved, then the new value of the per unit impedance of the circuit element will be

1. j 0.025
2. j 0.1
3. j 0.4
4. j 1.6

Correct Ans: A

QEE13.Temperature rise test is carried out for all relays

1. To ascertain correct relay characteristic
2. To ensure integrity of the relay
3. To check the withstand capability of insulation used in relays
4. All of the Above

Correct Ans: C

QEE14.If \(f(x)=(\pi -x)^2\) is a Fourier series of period \(2 \pi\) in the interval \((0,2 \pi)\), then the value of \(a_o\) is

1. \(\frac{-2 \pi^{2}}{3}\)
2. \(\frac{3 \pi^{2}}{2}\)
3. \(\frac{2 \pi^{2}}{3}\)
4. \(\frac{-3 \pi^{2}}{2}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE15.Consider the symmetrical component complex operator, \( a = 1 \angle 120^\circ\)
Consider the following relations:
1. \( 1 + a + a^2 = 0 \)
2. \( 1 + a^4 + a^5 = 0 \)
3. \( 1 - a^3 = 0 \)
Choose the correct option.

1. Only 1 is correct
2. Only 2 is correct
3. Only 3 is correct
4. All are correct

Correct Ans: D

QEE16.A 3-phase, 20 MVA, 11 KV alternator has 10% sub-transient reactance. Find short circuit MVA and current, if a symmetrical fault occurs at its terminals.

1. 200 MVA and 9.09 kA
2. 200 MVA and 10.5 kA
3. 100 MVA and 18.18 kA
4. 100 MVA and 10.5 kA

Correct Ans: B

QEE17.The feeder lines that interconnect two sub-stations in a given area are sometimes called as ____________

1. Tie Lines
2. Transmission Lines
3. Distribution Lines
4. All of the Above

Correct Ans: A

QEE18.The value of \(L^{-1}\lbrace\frac{s+2}{s^2-6s+13}\rbrace\) is

1. \(\frac{e^{3t}}{2}[5\cos2t-2\sin2t]\)
2. \(\frac{e^{3t}}{2}[2\cos2t+5\sin2t]\)
3. \(\frac{e^{3t}}{2}[5\cos2t+2\sin2t]\)
4. \(\frac{e^{-3t}}{2}[2\cos2t+5\sin2t]\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE19.The complete integral of \(p^2 + q^2 =1\) is

1. \(z=ax - (1+a^2)y +c\)
2. \(z=ax + (1+a^2)y +c\)
3. \(z=ax + \sqrt{(1-a^2)} \: y +c\)
4. \(z=ax - \sqrt{(1-a^2)} \: y +c\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE20._______ is the amount of electric power that can be transferred reliably over the inter-control area transmission system under a given set of operating conditions considering the effect of occurrence of the worst credible contingency.

1. Total Transfer Capability
2. Available Transfer Capability
3. Transmission Availability Margin
4. Transmission Reliability Margin

Correct Ans: A

QEE21.Consider the following statements about feeding 3-phase loads from a balanced 3-phase supply and choose the correct option.

Statement 1: In an unbalanced delta-connected load, the sum of the three-phase voltages is zero.
Statement 2: In a four-wire system, the voltages are always balanced irrespective of balanced or unbalanced load.

1. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE
2. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE
4. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE

Correct Ans: A

QEE22.What should be the kVA rating of a capacitor which would raise the power factor of a single phase load of 100 kW from 0.5 lagging to 0.9 lagging with constant supply voltage?

1. 100 kVA
2. 250 kVA
3. 175 kVA
4. 125 kVA

Correct Ans: D

QEE23.Determine the power and power factor (pf) of a three-phase load if the two wattmeters used for power measurement by Two Wattmeter method read 500 W each of positive sign.

1. 1000 W, pf = 0
2. 1000 W, pf = 1
3. 0 W, pf = 1
4. 0 W, pf = 0

Correct Ans: B

QEE24.The particular integral of \((D^2+5) y = x^2 + x +1\) is

1. \(\frac{1}{5} (x^2 - x +\frac{3}{5})\)
2. \(-\frac {1}{5} (x^2 + x +1)\)
3. \(\frac {1}{5} (x^2 - x +1)\)
4. \(\frac{1}{5} (x^2 + x +\frac{3}{5})\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE25.In Two Wattmeter method, each of two wattmeters connected to measure the power input to a three-phase circuit read 10 kW on a balanced load, when the power factor is unity. What does the instruments read when the power factor falls to 0.866 lagging, the total three-phase power remaining unaltered?

1. \(P_1=10\: kW and\: P_2= 10\:kW\)
2. \(P_1=6.66\: kW and\: P_2= 13.34\:kW\)
3. \(P_1=3.33\: kW and\: P_2= 16.67\:kW\)
4. \(P_1=0\: kW and\: P_2= 20\:kW\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE26.Two generators of the ratings 50 MW and 500 MW, respectively are supplying power to a system. The frequency is 50 Hz and each generator is half loaded. The system load increases by 110 MW and as a result the frequency drops to 49.5 Hz. What must be the individual regulations if the two generators should increase their turbine powers in proportion to their ratings?

1. \(R_1 = 5 \% \: \& \: R_2 = 5 \%\)
2. \(R_1 = 0 \% \: \& \: R_2 = 5 \%\)
3. \(R_1 = 5 \% \: \& \: R_2 = 0 \%\)
4. \(R_1 = 2.5 \% \: \& \: R_2 = 2.5 \%\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE27.Individual Voltage distortion based on IEEE 519 standard in 11 kV system must be limited to ______ % of fundamental component.

1. 4
2. 2
3. 1
4. 3

Correct Ans: D

QEE28.In the translay system of protection of three phase transmission lines, the required number of pilot wire is ________.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 6
4. 4

Correct Ans: A

QEE29.Generally in transmission lines, the zero sequence impedance is __________ positive and negative sequence impedances.

1. negligible compared to
2. slightly smaller than
3. equal to
4. larger than

Correct Ans: D

QEE30.Three similar resistors are connected in star across 400V, three-phase lines. The line current is 5A. Calculate the value of each resistor.

1. 56.568 \(\Omega\)
2. 46.188 \(\Omega\)
3. 138.56 \(\Omega\)
4. 80 \(\Omega\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE31.The GTO Controlled Series Capacitor (GCSC) consists of a ______ capacitor in ______with a GTO thyristor.

1. fixed, series
2. variable, series
3. fixed, parallel
4. variable, parallel

Correct Ans: C

QEE32.Calculate the inductance per conductor of the single-phase double circuit line shown in Fig. The diameter of each conductor is 2 cm.

1. 0.12 mH/km
2. 0.52 mH/km
3. 1.32 mH/km
4. 0.75 mH/km

Correct Ans: B

QEE33.In a system of 132 kV, the circuit phase to ground capacitance is 0.01 μF and the inductance is 6 H. Calculate the voltage appearing across the pole of a circuit breaker if a magnetizing current of 5 A (instantaneous value) is interrupted.

1. 130.5 kV
2. 128.5 kV
3. 122.5 kV
4. 115.5 kV

Correct Ans: C

QEE34.Fig. shows currents in a 3-phase conductor. The ends of the system on the sides of the fault are identified as F, F′, while the conductor ends are identified as aa′,bb′ and cc′. For one conductor open fault, the symmetrical components can be represented as

1. \(V_{aa^{'}1} = V_{aa^{'}2} = V_{aa^{'}0} = \frac{1}{3}V_{aa^{'}}\)
   
   \(I_{a1} + I_{a2} +I_{a0} = 0\)
2. \(V_{aa^{'}1} = V_{aa^{'}2} = V_{aa^{'}0} = 0\)
   
   \(I_{a1} = I_{a2} =I_{a0} = \frac{I_a}{3} \)
3. \(V_{aa^{'}1} = V_{aa^{'}2} = V_{aa^{'}0} = 0\)
   
   \(I_{a1} = I_{a2} =I_{a0} = 3 I_a \)
4. \(V_{aa^{'}1} = V_{aa^{'}2} = V_{aa^{'}0} = \frac{V_{aa'}}{3}\)
   
   \(I_{a1} = I_{a2} =I_{a0} = \frac{I_a}{3} \)

Correct Ans: A

QEE35.Determine the magnitudes of the symmetrical components \(IR_1, IR_2, IR_0\) of the currents in a three phase (RYB) three wire system, when a short circuit occurs between R and Y phase wires, the fault current being 200 A.

1. \(\lvert I_{R1}\rvert= \frac{100}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R2}\rvert= \frac{100}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R0}\rvert= \frac{100}{\sqrt{3}}A\)
2. \(\lvert I_{R1}\rvert= \frac{100}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R2}\rvert= \frac{100}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R0}\rvert=0A\)
3. \(\lvert I_{R1}\rvert= \frac{200}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R2}\rvert= \frac{200}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R0}\rvert=0A\)
4. \(\lvert I_{R1}\rvert= \frac{200}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R2}\rvert= \frac{200}{\sqrt{3}}A\), \(\lvert I_{R0}\rvert=\frac{200}{\sqrt{3}}A\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE36.The capacitance (F) per phase per meter of a double circuit 3-phase transmission line in regular hexagonal spacing arrangement is given by, ______ where D is conductor spacing and r is the radius of the conductor.

1. \(C = \frac{\pi \varepsilon_0}{ln(\frac{D}{\sqrt{2 }r})}\)
2. \(C = \frac{\pi \varepsilon_0}{ln(\frac{\sqrt{3}D}{2r})}\)
3. \(C = \frac{4\pi \varepsilon_0}{ln(\frac{D}{r})}\)
4. \(C = \frac{4\pi \varepsilon_0}{ln(\frac{\sqrt{3} D}{2r})}\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE37.If the real power flow through the uncompensated line is 1 pu and the degree of series compensation ‘K’ is 0.5, the power flow through the series compensated line is

1. 2 pu
2. 0.5 pu
3. 1 pu
4. 4 pu

Correct Ans: A

QEE38.Statement 1: The string efficiency of a DC system is 100%.

Statement 2: Suspension insulators are made up of porcelain.

1. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
2. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE
3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE
4. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE

Correct Ans: D

QEE39.If \(w=u^2 e^v , where, \: u=\frac{x}{y}, v=y \:log x \), then the value of \(\frac{dw}{dx}\) is

1. \(\frac{x^y x}{y^2} (2-y)\)
2. \(\frac{y^x y}{x^2} (2+y)\)
3. \(\frac{y^x y}{x^2} (2-y)\)
4. \(\frac{x^y x}{y^2} (2+y)\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE40.If the circuit breaker has assigned rated breaking current of 25 kA, the breaker can be used for locations where the RMS value of short circuit current is

1. more than 50 kA
2. less than 25 kA
3. more than 25 kA but less than 50 kA
4. zero

Correct Ans: B

QEE41.The power circuit diagram of the load-commutated chopper consists of four thyristors T1-T4 and one commutating capacitor C is shown in Fig. If the maximum chopping frequency is \('f_{max}'\), the value of commutating capacitor C is given by

1. \(C = \frac{2I_0}{V_sf_{max}}\)
2. \(C = \frac{2I_0}{3V_sf_{max}}\)
3. \(C = \frac{I_0}{\sqrt 2V_sf_{max}}\)
4. \(C = \frac{I_0}{2V_sf_{max}}\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE42.A 50 kVA, 4400/220 V transformer has primary winding and secondary winding resistance are R1 = 3.45 \(\Omega\) and R2 = 0.009 \(\Omega\) respectively. Calculate the equivalent resistance of the transformer as referred to primary side.

1. 17.62 \(\Omega\)
2. 13.80 \(\Omega\)
3. 3.45 \(\Omega\)
4. 7.05 \(\Omega\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE43.A string of eight suspension insulators is to be fitted with a grading ring as shown in Fig. If the pin to earth capacitances are all equal to \(C\), find the value of line to pin capacitance \(C_1\) that would give a uniform voltage distribution over the string.

1. \(C_1 = 3C\)
2. \(C_1 = C\)
3. \(C_1 = \frac{3C}{5}\)
4. \(C_1 = \frac{C}{7}\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE44.Which biomass feedstock has the least environmental risk?

1. Corn
2. Palm oil
3. Forest residues
4. All of the above

Correct Ans: C

QEE45.Which of the following states produce maximum wind energy in India?

1. Tamil Nadu
2. Gujarat
3. Maharashtra
4. Rajasthan

Correct Ans: A

QEE46.If \(w=u^2 e^v , where, \: u=\frac{x}{y}, v=y \:log x \), then the value of \(\frac{dw}{dx}\) is

1. \(\frac{1}{2} e\)
   
2. \(\frac{1}{2} (e-1)\)
3. \(\frac{1}{2} (2e+1)\)
4. \(\frac{1}{2} (e+1)\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE47.The Fourier transform of \(f(x) = F(s)\), then for \(a>0\), \(F[f(ax)] \) is

1. \(-\frac{1}{a} F(\frac{s}{a})\)
2. \(\frac{1}{a} F(\frac{s}{a})\)
3. \(aF(\frac{s}{a})\)
4. \(-aF(\frac{s}{a})\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE48.Three capacitors of 100 \(\mu F\) each are connected in delta to a 400V, three-phase, 50 Hz supply. What will be the capacitance of each of the three capacitors if the same three capacitors are connected in star across the same supply to draw the same line current?

1. 100 \(\mu F\)
2. 33.33 \(\mu F\)
3. 300 \(\mu F\)
4. 200 \(\mu F\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE49.In a load flow problem solved by Newton-Raphson method with polar coordinates, the size of the Jacobian is 75 x 75. If there are 25 PV buses in addition to PQ buses and a slack bus, the total number of buses in the system is ________.

1. 75
2. 51
3. 76
4. 50

Correct Ans: B

QEE50.In HRC fuse, the term ‘HRC’ stands for

1. High Rating Capacity
2. High Rating of Current
3. High Rupturing Capacity
4. High Resistance Capability

Correct Ans: C

QEE51.Statement 1: The percentage of energy saved at the current rate of use, compared to the reference year rate of use, is called energy utilization.
Statement 2: Pipelines is the most common and economical way of transporting natural gas over land for a distance less than 1500 km.

1. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE
2. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE
4. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE

Correct Ans: A

QEE52.Which of the following statements regarding bundled conductors is true?

1. They increase both corona loss and reactance
2. They decrease corona loss and increases reactance
3. They increase corona loss and decreases reactance.
4. They decrease both corona loss and reactance

Correct Ans: D

QEE53.For a generating unit, the fuel input in millions of \(Btu/hr\) is expressed as a function of output \(P_G\) in MW by \(0.035P_G^2 + 6.5 P_G +150\). Determine the equation for incremental fuel cost in \(Rs/MWhr\) as a function of \(P_G\) in MW based on fuel cost of \(Rs. 2 \: per \: million \:Btu\).

1. \(\frac{dF}{dP_G} = 0.07 P_G +26\)
2. \(\frac{dF}{dP_G} = 0.07 P_G +13\)
3. \(\frac{dF}{dP_G} = 0.14 P_G +13\)
4. \(\frac{dF}{dP_G} = 0.14 P_G +26\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE54.Statement 1: The transient stability of the power system can be effectively improved by phase shifting transformer.

Statement 2: The steady state stability of a power system is improved by single pole switching.

1. Statement 1 is FALSE and Statement 2 is TRUE
2. Statement 1 is TRUE and Statement 2 is FALSE
3. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are TRUE
4. Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are FALSE

Correct Ans: D

QEE55.A three phase 50 Hz overhead line has regularly transposed conductors equilaterally placed at 4 m spacing. The capacitance is 0.01 μF/km. Recalculate the capacitance per km to neutral when conductors are in the same horizontal plane with successive spacing of 4m and are regularly transposed.

1. 0.096 μF/km
2. 9.6 μF/km
3. 0.96 μF/km
4. 0.0096 μF/km

Correct Ans: D

QEE56.A power system network consists of three elements as shown in Fig. All values are in per unit. It’s bus impedance matrix is given by

1. \(Z_{bus}=\begin{bmatrix}j0.3 & j0.12 \\j0.12 & j0.75 \end{bmatrix}\)
2. \(Z_{bus}=\begin{bmatrix}j0.3 & j0.45 \\j0.45 & j0.75 \end{bmatrix}\)
   
3. \(Z_{bus}=\begin{bmatrix}j0.18 & j0.12 \\j0.12 & j0.18 \end{bmatrix}\)
4. \(Z_{bus}=\begin{bmatrix}j0.18 & j0.45 \\j0.45 & j0.18 \end{bmatrix}\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE57.In wind turbine design, the term Tip Speed Ratio (TSR) is defined as

1. TSR = 1 - (wind speed / Tip speed of blade)
2. TSR =wind speed / Tip speed of blade
3. TSR =Tip speed of blade / wind speed
4. TSR = 1 - (Tip speed of blade / wind speed )

Correct Ans: C

QEE58.A composite conductor consists of three conductors of radius R each. The conductors are arranged as shown below. The geometric mean radius (GMR) (in cm) of the composite conductor is kR. The value of k is ___________.

1. 0.75
2. 1.9
3. 3
4. 2.5

Correct Ans: B

QEE59.Which of the following Fig. represent the connection of sequence networks for two conductors open?

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Correct Ans: B

QEE60.A shunt reactor at 200 MVAr is operated at 99% of its rated voltage and at 97% of its rated frequency. The reactive power absorbed by the reactor is

1. 197.94 MVAr
2. 202.08 MVAr
3. 204.12 MVAr
4. 195.96 MVAr

Correct Ans: B

QGL1.એક સાંધે ત્યાં તેર તૂટે' - કહેવત નો અર્થ આપેલા વિકલ્પમાંથી જણાવો.

1. એક ટાંકો મારે ત્યાં તેર ટાંકા તૂટે
2. એક જગ્યાએ સાંધે ત્યાં બીજી તેર જગ્યાએ તૂટે
3. એક મુશ્કેલી ટળે ત્યાં બીજી દસ મુશ્કેલી પેદા થાય
4. એક જ સાંધાથી તેર મુશ્કેલી દૂર થાય

Correct Ans: C

QGL2.આ બંને વાક્યો સાચાં છે કે ખોટાં? વિકલ્પ પસંદ કરીને જણાવો.

૧) નાટકમાં ગોવર્ધન ગોપી બનીને નાચી.

૨) ગામમાં બધાં કૂતરા ભસતાં હતા.

1. વાક્ય ૧ ખોટું છે અને વાક્ય ૨ સાચું છે
2. વાક્ય ૧ અને વાક્ય ૨ બંને ખોટાં છે
3. વાક્ય ૧ સાચું અને વાક્ય ૨ ખોટું છે
4. વાક્ય ૧ અને વાક્ય ૨ બંને સાચાં છે

Correct Ans: A

QGL3.યોગ્ય દ્વિરુક્ત શબ્દજોડી ગોઠવો. ક્યાં વિકલ્પમાં સાચી જોડી છે તે જણાવો.
(૧) કેટકેટલું \(\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\quad \quad \quad \quad\) (અ) ટપટપ ટપટપ
(૨) ભાગંભાગ \(\:\:\:\:\:\quad \quad \quad\quad\) (બ) પાણીબાણી
(૩) ઘરબર \(\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\:\quad \quad \quad\quad\)(ક) આટઆટલું
(૪) ધડધડ ધડધડ \(\:\quad \quad \quad\quad\)(ડ) વારંવાર

1. (૧)-(ડ), (૨)-(ક),(૩)-(અ),(૪)-(બ)
2. (૧)-(ડ), (૨)-(ક), (૩)-(બ), (૪)-(અ)
3. (૧)-(બ), (૨)-(ક), (૩)-(અ), (૪)-(ક)
4. (૧)-(ક), (૨)-(ડ), (૩)-(બ), (૪)-(અ)

Correct Ans: D

QGL4.સમજ' નો વિરોધી અર્થ આપતું વાક્ય જણાવો.

1. તે વાત સમજી શકતો નથી
2. તે સાવ નાસમજ છે
3. તેનામાં હજુ અણસમજ છે.
4. તેને ગેરસમજ થઈ લાગે છે.

Correct Ans: C

QGL5.અમારે એક/સારા વિજ્ઞાનના/ શિક્ષકની/ જરૂર છે. આ વાક્યમાં ક્યા ભાગમાં ભૂલ છે?

1. અમારે એક
2. સારા વિજ્ઞાનના
3. શિક્ષકની
4. જરૂર છે

Correct Ans: B

QGL6.સમાન જણાતા આ શબ્દોમાંથી કોના અર્થ ખોટાં છે?

(1) અનુસાર: તે મુજબ (2) અનુસ્વાર: લિપિચિહ્ન (3) અનલ: પવન (4) અનિલ: અગ્નિ

1. (1) અને (2) સાચાં અને (3) અને (4) ખોટાં
2. (1), (2), (3) અને (4) ચારેય સાચાં
3. (1), (2), (3) અને (4) ચારેય ખોટાં
4. (1) અને (2) ખોટાં અને (૩) અને (૪) સાચાં

Correct Ans: A

QGL7.માણસથી મનોરથ સેવાય છે'. આ વાક્યનું કર્તરિ વાક્ય વિકલ્પોમાંથી પસંદ કરો.

1. માણસથી મનોરથ સેવાતા હોય છે.
2. કર્તરિ રચના શક્ય નથી.
3. માણસ મનોરથ સેવે છે.
4. માણસથી મનોરથ સેવાશે.

Correct Ans: C

QGL8.લોહી' શબ્દ પર આધારીત કયો એક રૂઢિપ્રયોગ નથી?

1. લોહી ચઢાવવું
2. લોહીનું પાણી થવું
3. લોહી ઊકળવું
4. લોહી પીવું

Correct Ans: A

QGL9.નીચેનામાંથી કયું સમાનાર્થી જોડકું યોગ્ય નથી?

1. નિરામય-નીરોગી
2. પ્રથમી-પાણી
3. તોખાર-અશ્વ
4. શોણિત-રક્ત

Correct Ans: B

QGL10.નીચેના વાક્યોના પ્રકાર જણાવો.

1. વિદ્વાનો અને વડીલો સાથે વાતો કરવાથી જ્ઞાન મળે છે.

૨. જો શિક્ષક હા પડે તો જ રજા મળે.

1. વાક્ય ૧ અને વાક્ય ૨ બંને સંયુક્ત વાક્યો છે.
2. વાક્ય ૧ સાદું વાક્ય અને વાક્ય ૨ સંકુલ વાક્ય છે.
3. વાક્ય ૧ અને વાક્ય ૨ બંને સંકુલ વાક્યો છે.
4. વાક્ય ૧ સંયુક્ત અને વાક્ય ૨ સંકુલ વાક્ય છે.

Correct Ans: B

QGK1.Who among the following sports persons was awarded "Sports Person of the Year 2020" by Federation of Indian Commerce and Industry (FICCI India Sports Awards 2020)?

1. Shagun Chowdary
2. Deepali Deshpande
3. Elizabeth Koshy
4. Elavenil Valarivan

Correct Ans: D

QGK2.Recently, the ruler Mohammed Hosni Mubarak passed away. He belongs to which country?

1. Egypt
2. Jordan
3. Iraq
4. Syria

Correct Ans: A

QGK3.Which of the following productions refers to 'Brown Revolution' in Indian Economy?

1. Agriculture
2. Cocoa
3. Oil Seeds
4. Wool

Correct Ans: B

QGK4.What is the full form of 'CVC', an apex Indian governmental body?

1. Control Vigilance Commission
2. Central Voluntary Commission
3. Crime Vigilance Commission
4. Central Vigilance Commission

Correct Ans: D

QGK5.Which place was an emporium of western trade during the Mughal period?

1. Madras
2. Hampi
3. Surat
4. Delhi

Correct Ans: C

QGK6.Which apex development bank is set up by the Government of India in the field of credit for agriculture and other economic activities in rural areas in India?

1. SIDBI
2. FCI
3. DRDO
4. NABARD

Correct Ans: D

QGK7.Which is the world's largest inhabited riverine island?

1. Srirangam
2. Lulu Island
3. Majuli
4. Csepel

Correct Ans: C

QGK8.Who has won the 'Global Child Prodigy Award 2020' in the category of fitness and martial arts?

1. Anubhav Seth
2. Ishwar Sharma
3. Alpesh Patwari
4. Ajay Tokas

Correct Ans: B

QGK9.When was the British East India company formed?

1. 1571
2. 1602
3. 1532
4. 1600

Correct Ans: D

QGK10.Which of the following states does not share International border with Bhutan?

1. Sikkim
2. Manipur
3. West Bengal
4. Assam

Correct Ans: B

QEK1.Fill in the correct prepositions.

The team's late arrival was ______ the train.

1. within
2. owing to
3. at
4. instead of

Correct Ans: B

QEK2.Choose the word which means most nearly the same as the given word " INDEFATIGABLE"

1. Vigorous
2. Wavering
3. Lazy
4. Idle

Correct Ans: A

QEK3.Select the one word which can substitute the given phrase/sentence.

A false written statement to damage a person's repute.

1. Universal
2. Flounder
3. Protocol
4. Libel

Correct Ans: D

QEK4.\(\color{blue}{Case \: Study}\)
\(\color{blue}{Read\: the\: following \: passage \: and \: answer \: the \: question \: that\: follow.}\)
Targeting risk factors is key to reducing deaths due to cardiovascular diseases. The reinvention of the wheel can be painful. Taking lessons from those who have already run the wheel several revolutions and tweaking those lessons for domestic conditions might not be a bad idea. For India, there is indeed valuable learning from the results of the Prospective Urban Rural Epidemiology (PURE) study published in The Lancet this week. Studying the situation in 21 countries across five continents, categorised by income levels, researchers showed that while cardiovascular disease (CVD) is the leading cause for death overall, there have been some transitions, particularly in the high-income countries, which have managed to reduce the number of deaths from CVD. In low income countries, including India, however, CVD is still the top killer, with death three times more frequent than that due to cancer. What flies in the face of logic is that the risk burden of CVD linked mortality is inversely proportional — lower risk but higher mortality in low-income countries, and higher risk but lower mortality in high-income countries. PURE’s analysis concluded that the higher mortality in poorer countries was likely due to other factors, including ‘lower quality and less health care’. Access to affordable, quality health care is still a dream in many pockets in India. A great amount of out-of-pocket expenditure (according to Health Ministry data for 2014-15, nearly 62.6 \(\%\) of India’s total health expenditure) often frustrates continuation of treatment, or adherence to drug regimens. While some States have shown limited successes with government-sponsored health insurance schemes, the Centre’s Ayushman Bharat Yojana will have to take much of the burden of hospitalisation for complications of non-communicable diseases. National and State schemes running on mission mode, including the National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD and Stroke will have to step up efforts to target people at risk with life saving interventions. While most of the \(\color{blue}{predominant}\) risk factors for cardiovascular disease present no startling medical revelation, it is significant that the single largest risk factor is a low education level. It is no doubt part of the job description of the National Programme to modify this risk factor. However, governments will have to muscle up to tackle a rather startling finding — ambient air pollution and indoor air pollution have an impact on CVD and mortality. Household air pollution is the third top risk factor in low-income countries, according to the study. The need of the hour is out-of-the-box solutions combined with inspiration from models of those who seem to have belled this particular cat. Any plans that target the risk factors and prevent the onset of non communicable diseases will clearly have to be truly game-changing, and incorporate the environmental angle as well.

What is the conceptual meaning of the highlighted word 'Predominant'?

1. Casual
2. Inferior
3. Important
4. Trivial

Correct Ans: C

QEK5.Case Study

Read the following passage and answer the question that follow.

Targeting risk factors is key to reducing deaths due to cardiovascular diseases. The reinvention of the wheel can be painful. Taking lessons from those who have already run the wheel several revolutions and tweaking those lessons for domestic conditions might not be a bad idea. For India, there is indeed valuable learning from the results of the Prospective Urban Rural Epidemiology (PURE) study published in The Lancet this week. Studying the situation in 21 countries across five continents, categorised by income levels, researchers showed that while cardiovascular disease (CVD) is the leading cause for death overall, there have been some transitions, particularly in the high-income countries, which have managed to reduce the number of deaths from CVD. In low income countries, including India, however, CVD is still the top killer, with death three times more frequent than that due to cancer. What flies in the face of logic is that the risk burden of CVD linked mortality is inversely proportional — lower risk but higher mortality in low-income countries, and higher risk but lower mortality in high-income countries. PURE’s analysis concluded that the higher mortality in poorer countries was likely due to other factors, including ‘lower quality and less health care’. Access to affordable, quality health care is still a dream in many pockets in India. A great amount of out-of-pocket expenditure (according to Health Ministry data for 2014-15, nearly 62.6 \(\%\) of India’s total health expenditure) often frustrates continuation of treatment, or adherence to drug regimens. While some States have shown limited successes with government-sponsored health insurance schemes, the Centre’s Ayushman Bharat Yojana will have to take much of the burden of hospitalisation for complications of non-communicable diseases. National and State schemes running on mission mode, including the National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD and Stroke will have to step up efforts to target people at risk with life saving interventions. While most of the predominant risk factors for cardiovascular disease present no startling medical revelation, it is significant that the single largest risk factor is a low education level. It is no doubt part of the job description of the National Programme to modify this risk factor. However, governments will have to muscle up to tackle a rather startling finding — ambient air pollution and indoor air pollution have an impact on CVD and mortality. Household air pollution is the third top risk factor in low-income countries, according to the study. The need of the hour is out-of-the-box solutions combined with inspiration from models of those who seem to have belled this particular cat. Any plans that target the risk factors and prevent the onset of non communicable diseases will clearly have to be truly game-changing, and incorporate the environmental angle as well.




Read the following statements and select the option as per the passage given above.

Statement A : In India, CVD is the top killer as compared to Cancer.

Statement B : The number of deaths due to CVD in the low-income countries is more than the number of deaths in the high-income countries.

1. Statement A is True and Statement B is False
2. Both the statements A and B are True
3. Statement A is False and Statement B is True
4. Both the Statement A and B are False

Correct Ans: B

QEK6.Case Study

Read the following passage and answer the question that follow.

Targeting risk factors is key to reducing deaths due to cardiovascular diseases. The reinvention of the wheel can be painful. Taking lessons from those who have already run the wheel several revolutions and tweaking those lessons for domestic conditions might not be a bad idea. For India, there is indeed valuable learning from the results of the Prospective Urban Rural Epidemiology (PURE) study published in The Lancet this week. Studying the situation in 21 countries across five continents, categorised by income levels, researchers showed that while cardiovascular disease (CVD) is the leading cause for death overall, there have been some transitions, particularly in the high-income countries, which have managed to reduce the number of deaths from CVD. In low income countries, including India, however, CVD is still the top killer, with death three times more frequent than that due to cancer. What flies in the face of logic is that the risk burden of CVD linked mortality is inversely proportional — lower risk but higher mortality in low-income countries, and higher risk but lower mortality in high-income countries. PURE’s analysis concluded that the higher mortality in poorer countries was likely due to other factors, including ‘lower quality and less health care’. Access to affordable, quality health care is still a dream in many pockets in India. A great amount of out-of-pocket expenditure (according to Health Ministry data for 2014-15, nearly 62.6 \(\%\) of India’s total health expenditure) often frustrates continuation of treatment, or adherence to drug regimens. While some States have shown limited successes with government-sponsored health insurance schemes, the Centre’s Ayushman Bharat Yojana will have to take much of the burden of hospitalisation for complications of non-communicable diseases. National and State schemes running on mission mode, including the National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD and Stroke will have to step up efforts to target people at risk with life saving interventions. While most of the predominant risk factors for cardiovascular disease present no startling medical revelation, it is significant that the single largest risk factor is a low education level. It is no doubt part of the job description of the National Programme to modify this risk factor. However, governments will have to muscle up to tackle a rather startling finding — ambient air pollution and indoor air pollution have an impact on CVD and mortality. Household air pollution is the third top risk factor in low-income countries, according to the study. The need of the hour is out-of-the-box solutions combined with inspiration from models of those who seem to have belled this particular cat. Any plans that target the risk factors and prevent the onset of non communicable diseases will clearly have to be truly game-changing, and incorporate the environmental angle as well.



Which is still a dream in India as per the above passage?

1. Quality Education
2. Free Transport
3. Affordable petrol rates
4. Affordable and quality health care

Correct Ans: D

QEK7.Choose the correct article to complete the following sentence.

Russian policies are thought by many to be among ______ best in the world.

1. an
2. No article
3. the
4. a

Correct Ans: C

QEK8.Choose the correct article to complete the following sentence.

Australia's jobless rate unexpectedly increased in ______ January despite a surge in full-time employment.

1. the
2. No article
3. a
4. an

Correct Ans: B

QEK9.Choose the word express nearly the opposite meaning of the given word "SMUTTY".

1. Foul
2. Clean
3. Nasty
4. Rough

Correct Ans: B

QEK10.Fill in the correct prepositions.

The world should be ______ animal experimentation.

1. by
2. across
3. against
4. to

Correct Ans: C

QCK1.Microsoft Excel automatically adjusts the cell reference when the formula is copied and paste into the rest of the cell locations in the column, this process is called __________.

1. ABSOLUTE REFERENCES
2. RELATIVE REFERENCES
3. VARIABLE REFERENCES
4. CONSTANT REFERENCES

Correct Ans: B

QCK2.________ enable/s Excel to dynamically produce new outputs when one or more inputs in the referenced cells are changed.

1. Wordwrap
2. Pastespecial
3. Queries
4. Cell References

Correct Ans: D

QCK3.Statement A: Flash memory is slower than DRAM but needs no power to retain its contents.

Statements B: Solid-state disks have several variants but in general are faster than magnetic disks and nonvolatile.

1. Statement A is false and Statement B is true
2. Both the statements are false
3. Both the statements are true
4. Statements A is true and Statements B is false

Correct Ans: C

QCK4.Which of the following computers belongs to Second generation of computers?

1. CDC 6600
2. ENIAC
3. TRADIC
4. IBM 360

Correct Ans: C

QCK5."Which of the following is a primary method of VLAN hopping?<br>
A) Switch spoofing <br>
B) Double tagging <br>
C) DNS spoofing <br>"

1. B & C
   
2. A & B
   
3. only B
   
4. A & C
   

Correct Ans: B

QCK6.A color code "FFFFFF" refers to white color. Which number system is used to denote this value?

1. Decimal
2. Hexadecimal
3. Octal
4. Binary

Correct Ans: B

QCK7.Device driver is defined as_______.

1. a shell and is essential if human interaction is to be supported.
2. a memory management technique that provides an "idealized abstraction of the storage resources that are actually available on a given machine" which "creates the illusion to users of a very large (main) memory".
3. a specific type of computer software developed to allow interaction with hardware devices.
4. an abstract layer on top of a more concrete file system.

Correct Ans: C

QCK8.Which type of section break is used when your document is set up with double sided printing and mirror margins?

1. Next page section breaks
2. Newspaper section breaks
3. New page section breaks
4. Odd page and Even page section breaks

Correct Ans: D

QCK9.Statement A: Distributed Operating System manages a group of distinct, networked computers and makes them appear to be single computer, as all computations are distributed ( divided amongst the constituent computers).

Statement B: In the distributed and cloud computing context of an OS, templating refers to creating a single virtual machine image as a guest operating system, then saving it as a tool for multiple running virtual machines.

1. Statement A is false and Statement B is true
2. Both the statement are true
3. Both the statements are false
4. Statements A is true and Statements B is false

Correct Ans: B

QCK10.________ is used where the company's telephone system meets its computer system with PBX.

1. Computer Telephony Integration
2. Print server
3. Network Controller
4. Database

Correct Ans: A

QEE1.Calculate the value of ∮ H.dl, for the currents and closed path of figure

1. 10 A
2. -70 A
3. 70 A
4. -10 A

Correct Ans: D

QEE2.Which of the following relay is used to detect incipient faults which are initially minor but may cause major faults in due course of time in a transformer?

1. over current relays
2. thermal relays
3. temperature sensitive relays
4. Buchholz relay

Correct Ans: D

QEE3.For a ramp input, the steady state error for \(G(s)=\frac{k(s+z_1)(s+z_2)}{s(s+p_1)(s+p_2)}\) is

1. \(\frac{1}{K_v}\)
2. Infinity
3. 0
4. \(K_v\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE4.A synchronous motor has excitation emf of 0.6 pu. If it is operated from a bus voltage of 1.0 pu and drawing 1.0 pu zero power factor leading current, the synchronous reatance of the motor will be

1. 0.4
2. 2.6
3. 1
4. 1.6

Correct Ans: A

QEE5.Which controller is used for improving steady state performance?

1. Integral Controller
2. Proportional Controller
3. Derivative Controller
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: A

QEE6.In a three phase unbalanced, four wire star connected system, the current in the neutral wire is given as

1. zero
2. vector sum of the currents in the three lines
3. \(\sqrt{3}\) times the current in each phase
4. three time the current in individual phase

Correct Ans: B

QEE7.A 5 kVA transformer has iron losses and full load copper losses are 250 W, 350W respectively. The tranformer will deliver maximum efficiency when the total loss is

1. 250W
2. 600W
3. 350W
4. 500W

Correct Ans: D

QEE8.single phase full wave thyristor converter is supplying an RL load. The supply voltage is 200 V, and triggering angle is 60º. If the load is drawing a constant current from the source the output voltage will be

1. 75 V
2. 90 V
3. 135 V
4. 110 V

Correct Ans: B

QEE9.The type of DC generator suitable for battery charging in automobiles is

1. DC shunt
2. DC differentially compound
3. DC cummulative compound
4. DC series

Correct Ans: A

QEE10.The transfer function of a system is \(\frac{C(s)}{R(s)}= \frac{K}{s(s^2+2s+2)(s+2)}\). Find the range of \(K\) for which the system will be stable.

1. \(0 < K < \infty\)
2. \(0 < K < 25\)
3. \(0 < K < 20\)
4. \(0 < K < 5\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE11.For an EHV transmission line, to increase transmission capacity of the line which of the follwing is used

1. Series inductive compensation
2. Shunt inductive compensation
3. Shunt capacitive compensation
4. Series capacitive compensation

Correct Ans: D

QEE12.The time taken to perform one iteration of the computation in GS method as compared to NR method is

1. indefinite
2. relatively small
3. relatively high
4. equal

Correct Ans: B

QEE13.Point charges 50 nC, -40 nC, and 60 nC are located at (-1,0,8), (0,-1.5,0.5), and (1,1, -1), respectively. The total flux leaving a cube of side 4 m centered at the origin is:

1. -100 nC
2. -20 nC
3. 20 nC
4. 10 nC

Correct Ans: C

QEE14.The range of wind speed suitable for wind power generator is

1. 25-50m/s
2. 5-25 m/s
3. 50-70 m/s
4. 0-5 m/s

Correct Ans: B

QEE15.In two Wattmeter method if one of the wattmeter reads twice that of the other, then

1. Power factor is unity
2. Phase angle is 30 degree lag
3. Power factor is zero
4. None of the above

Correct Ans: B

QEE16.The energy stored in an 10 m long solenoid with 4000 turns and cross section of 5 square meter which carries the current of 20 mA in the coil is

1. 2 mJ
2. 50 μ J
3. 2 μ J
4. 15 μ J

Correct Ans: A

QEE17.The Energy Conservative element in a mechanical system is

1. Mass
2. Spring
3. Both (1) and (2)
4. Damper

Correct Ans: C

QEE18.Voltage shunt feedback amplifiers are also called as

1. Inverting amplifier without feedback
2. Non-inverting amplifier without feedback
3. Inverting amplifier with feedback
4. Non-inverting amplifier with feedback

Correct Ans: C

QEE19.In the circuit, the transistor has a large \(\beta\) value \((V_{BE} = 0.7V)\). Find the current through \(R_C\).

1. 2mA
2. 1.6mA
3. 1mA
4. 0.5mA

Correct Ans: C

QEE20.What is the purpose of Direct Memory Access (DMA) facility in microprocessor based system?

1. to increase the speed of data transfer between the microprocessor and the I/O device
2. to increase the speed of data transfer between the memory and the I/O device
3. to increase the speed of data transfer between the μP and the memory
4. to improve thr reliability of the system

Correct Ans: B

QEE21.For a relay, whose relay setting is 50% and the CT ratio is 500/5. What will be the value of fault current when the plug setting multiplier is 8.

1. 3000A
2. 2000A
3. 4000A
4. 1000A

Correct Ans: B

QEE22.Determine the current through all the parallel resistors

1. 5.5, 4.5, 1.5
2. 2.5, 1.67, 0.83
3. 3, 2, 1
4. 3.5, 2.7, 1.8

Correct Ans: B

QEE23.A straight conductor carries a current of \(4\pi \: A\). The magnetic field intensity at a distance of 5 cm from axis of the conductor is

1. 20 A/m
2. 1.25 A/m
3. 0.8 A/cm
4. 0.4 A/cm

Correct Ans: D

QEE24.Which of the following circuit breakers can be used in an indoor substation of 220 kV?

1. \(Air\)
2. \(Oil\)
3. \(SF_6\)
4. \(Vacuum\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE25.A system has eigen values -2 and -3. What will be the response of the system?

1. Cannot be determined
2. Overdamped response
3. Underdamped response
4. Undamped response

Correct Ans: B

QEE26.The size of jacobian matrix of a 13 bus power system with 5 voltage controlled buses and a slack bus is

1. 21 * 21
2. 15 * 15
3. 19 * 19
4. 17 * 17

Correct Ans: C

QEE27.The ratio between the fundamental current component and the total current component is called

1. displacement factor
2. power factor
3. harmonic factor
4. distortion factor

Correct Ans: D

QEE28.A 220 V, 40 A DC shunt motor has Ra = 0.3 Ω. The resistance to be inserted in armature circuit during starting so that the starting current does not exceed twice the rated value is

1. 5.2Ω
2. 5.8Ω
3. 2.45Ω
4. 5.5Ω

Correct Ans: C

QEE29.What is the minimum number of NAND and NOR gates required to construct half adder sum ?

1. 5,5
2. 4,5
3. 5,4
4. 4,4

Correct Ans: B

QEE30.Which of the following flags is not a part of Flag register of 8085 microprocessor?

1. Auxillary Carry Flag
2. Sign Flag
3. Overflow Flag
4. Carry Flag

Correct Ans: C

QEE31.When the nature of fault in a power system is L-L-G, the three sequence voltages at the point of fault are found to be

1. zero
2. equal
3. not equal
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

QEE32.Consider the following statements:

A three phase induction motor is connected to the grid. If P is active power and Q is reactive power, the signs of P and Q are respectively

1. positive and positive while operating as motor

2. positive and negative while operating as motor

3. negative and positive while operating as generator

4. positive and positive while operating as generator

1. 1,4 are corrrect
2. 2,4 are correct
3. 2,3 are correct
4. 1,3 are correct

Correct Ans: D

QEE33.Which of the following is true with respect to bridges?

1. Schering's bridge is used to measure inductance of the coil

2. Heavside Campbell bridge is used to measure capacitance

3. Wien's bridge is used for measuring frequency of the coil

4.Hay's bridge is used to measure capacitance of the coil

1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. 2 and 4
3. 3 only
4. 1 only

Correct Ans: C

QEE34.Which of the following is correct for an auto transformer for using it in transmission and distribution?

1. eddy current loss should be reduced
2. hysteresis loss should be reduced
3. efficiency considerations should ignored
4. transformation ratio should be small

Correct Ans: D

QEE35.What happens if the potentiometer is connected to negative supply?

1. Output waveform below +V_ref will be clipped off
2. Output waveform below -V_ref will be clipped off
3. Output waveform above +V_ref will be clipped off
4. Output waveform above -V_ref will be clipped off

Correct Ans: B

QEE36.A 220 V DC supply is connected to a DC chopper which is operating on TRC control mode at a frequecy of 5 kHz. When the output is 110 V, the ON and OFF period of each cycle are respectively

1. 150 \(\mu s\),50 \(\mu s\)
2. 50 \(\mu s\),50 \(\mu s\)
3. 50 \(\mu s\),150 \(\mu s\)
4. 100 \(\mu s\),100 \(\mu s\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE37.Which of the following logic expressions represents the logic diagram shown?

1. X=AB’+A’B
2. X=(AB)’+AB
3. X=A’B’+AB
4. X=(AB)’+A’B’

Correct Ans: C

QEE38.For a transfer function \(G(s)=\frac{1}{s}\) , the bode plot will be

1. -20 db/decade and phase shift of \(-\frac{\pi}{2}\)
2. Constant magnitude and phase shift of \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
3. Zero magnitude and zero phase shift
4. Constant magnitude and constant phase shift angle

Correct Ans: A

QEE39.In a single phase transformer, which kind of load gives highest voltage regulation

1. unity power factor
2. 0.8 power factor lagging
3. 0.7 power factor leading
4. 0.8 power factor leading

Correct Ans: B

QEE40.In a thyristor, the relation between the holding current I_H and the latching current I_L is

1. I_H ˃ I_L
2. I_H < I _L
3. I_H = I_L
4. both are zero

Correct Ans: B

QEE41.In an integrated power systems, pumped storage power plant is most suitable to meet

1. base load only
2. peak load only
3. peak load and base load
4. none of the above

Correct Ans: B

QEE42.What is the barrier potential for the germanium diode ?

1. 1.45 V
2. 0.7 V
3. 0.9 V
4. 0.3 V

Correct Ans: D

QEE43.Point charges of 1.5 μC each are located at A(2, 0, 0), B(-2, 0,0), C(0, 2, 0), and D(0, −2, 0) in freespace. Find the total force on the charge at A.

1. 8.6 mN
2. 7.6 mN
3. 9.6 mN
4. 4.8 mN

Correct Ans: D

QEE44.Which of the following determines the capacitance of a capacitor?

1. plate area, dielectric strength and plate seperation
2. plate area,dielectric constant and plate seperation
3. temperature co-efficient, plate area and plate seperation
4. voltage rating, dielectric constant and temperature co-efficient

Correct Ans: B

QEE45.A two port network is defined by the relations \(I_1=V_1+2V_2\) and \(I_2=3V_1+2V_2\). then \(Z_{12}\) is

1. -2
2. 2
3. 1/2
4. - 1/2

Correct Ans: C

QEE46.Find the centroid value for the open loop transfer function \(G(s)=\frac{K}{s(s+2)(s+4)}\)

1. -6
2. 4
3. -1
4. -2

Correct Ans: D

QEE47.Which of the following are the properties of state transition matrix?

\(1. \quad \phi^{-1} (t)=\phi(-t)\)


\(2. \quad \phi(t_1+t_2)=\phi(t_1)\phi(t_2)\)


\(3. \quad \phi(0)=I\)

1. 1 and 2
2. 1
3. 2
4. 1,2 and 3

Correct Ans: D

QEE48.For a single phase square wave inverter, what is the persentage of the third order harmonic component in relation to the fundamental component

1. 25%
2. 33.33%
3. 48%
4. 15.30%

Correct Ans: B

QEE49.Find the current through 3 \(\Omega\) resistor in the figure shown below

1. 2A
2. 1A
3. 5A
4. 3A

Correct Ans: B

QEE50.The collector current is \(2.945 \:mA\) and \(\alpha = 0.98\). The leakage current is \(2\:\mu A\). What is the emitter current and base current?

1. \(3\:mA\) and \(55 \:\mu A\)
2. \(2.945\:mA\) and \(55\:\mu A\)
3. \(3.64\:mA\) and \(33\:\mu A\)
4. \(5.89\:mA\) and \( 65\:\mu A\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE51.The change in collector emitter voltage from 6V to 9V causes increase in collector current from 6mA to 6.3mA. Determine the dynamic output resistance.

1. 20kΩ
2. 10kΩ
3. 60kΩ
4. 50kΩ

Correct Ans: B

QEE52.The power factor of a single phase full wave diode bridge rectifier is

1. 0.45 lagging
2. 0.707 lagging
3. 0.9 lagging
4. 0.707 leading

Correct Ans: C

QEE53.Time constant of a series RC circuit is equal to

1. \(CR\)
2. \(CR^2/2 \)
3. \(CR/2\)
4. \(CR^2\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE54.For the circuit below the inductor is initially relaxed. The switch is closed at \(t=0\). Find the value of voltage across \(2\:\Omega\) resister at \(t = 0_+\).

1. 0.5 V
2. 5 V
3. 3 V
4. 2 V

Correct Ans: B

QEE55.An active network is supplying a load. Rth and Vth at the terminals to which the load is connected is 15 Ω and 90 V respectively. Then maximum power supplied to the load is

1. 150 W
2. 1350 W
3. 1500 W
4. 135 W

Correct Ans: D

QEE56.The system with open loop transfer function is \(G(s)H(s)= \frac{1}{s(s^2+s+1)}\). What is the gain margin of the system?

1. 6 dB
2. 0 dB
3. infinity
4. 3 dB

Correct Ans: B

QEE57.Determine the value of R in the circuit shown in the figure

1. 14
2. 10
3. 7
4. 9

Correct Ans: A

QEE58.Rotating magnetic field is produced in a shaded pole motor using

1. damper winding
2. main winding
3. armature coil
4. shading coil

Correct Ans: D

QEE59.The step response of a system is \((1+e^{-3t})\). It is cascaded with another control block with impulse response of \(e^{-2t}\). The transfer function of the cascaded combination is

1. \(\frac{1}{s(s+3)}\)
2. \(\frac{2s+3}{(s+2)(s+3)}\)
3. \(\frac{2}{(s+1)(s+2)}\)
4. \(\frac{1}{s(s+2)}\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE60.A bidirectional 4-bit shift register is storing the nibble 1110. Its input is LOW. The nibble 0111 is waiting to be entered on the serial data-input line. After two clock pulses, the shift register is storing ________

1. 1110
2. 111
3. 1001
4. 1000

Correct Ans: C

QCK1.How many layers do Network Communication have?

1. 8
2. 7
3. 6
4. 5

Correct Ans: B

QCK2.What is the shortcut key to select the whole document?

1. Ctrl+W
2. Ctrl+T
3. Ctrl+M
4. Ctrl+A

Correct Ans: D

QCK3.Which of these devices is not related to Magnets?

1. Magnetic Drum
2. Floppy Drive
3. Magnetic Disk
4. Pen Drive

Correct Ans: D

QCK4.What does RDBMS stand for?

1. Rational Database Management System
2. Relational Database Management System
3. Relational Database Management Software
4. Relational Database Managerial System

Correct Ans: B

QCK5.Which one of the following is not an internet browser?

1. Foxpro
2. Chrome
3. Opera
4. Mozilla Firefox

Correct Ans: A

QCK6.Which one of the following Operating System is proprietary to Microsoft?

1. Solaris
2. Windows
3. Linux
4. Ubuntu

Correct Ans: B

QCK7.What is the shortcut key to switch between the opened Excel files?

1. Ctrl+PageDown
2. Ctrl+PageUp
3. Ctrl+Tab
4. Shift+Tab

Correct Ans: C

QCK8.What does FAT stand for?

1. Folder Authenticat ion Transistor
2. Folder Access Transfer
3. File Accessing Table
4. File Allocation Table

Correct Ans: D

QCK9.Which one of the following is not an Operating System?

1. Unix
2. DOS
3. Lotus
4. Linux

Correct Ans: C

QCK10.Which one of the following features provide meaning of a word?

1. Spelling and Grammar
2. Language
3. Review
4. Synonyms

Correct Ans: D

QEK1.Choose the best option from the given alternatives which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

An imaginary ideal society free from poverty and suffering

1. Utopia
2. Regalia
3. Potable
4. Pantheism

Correct Ans: A

QEK2.Fill in the blanks with suitable Preposition from the given alternatives.

Everyone voted __________ the union leader in the election.

1. against
2. at
3. in
4. between

Correct Ans: A

QEK3.Fill in the blanks with suitable Idiom/Phrase from the given alternatives.

During the ________________ of summer, I always visit a cool tourist place with my family.

1. End of the day
2. Dog days
3. Middle of the road -
4. Salad days

Correct Ans: B

QEK4.choose the best option from the given alternatives which can be substituted for the given word/sentence.

One who is in love with himself/herself

1. Numismatist
2. Introvert
3. Narcissist
4. Iconoclast

Correct Ans: C

QEK5.Fill in the blanks with suitable Word from the given alternatives

The Management asked the officials to ______________ the documents of the candidates.

1. Scrutinize
2. Estimate
3. Balance
4. Scuffle

Correct Ans: A

QEK6.Choose the word which expresses nearly the opposite meaning of the given word "MOURNED"

1. Hurt
2. Grieve
3. Delight
4. Agonize

Correct Ans: C

QEK7.Fill in the blanks with suitable Preposition from the given alternative.

The results will be displayed ______ the notice board.

1. with
2. over
3. at
4. on

Correct Ans: D

QEK8.Fill in the blanks with suitable Article from the given alternatives.

I found _____ old letter, sent by my office while cleaning the house yesterday.

1. a
2. an
3. No article
4. the

Correct Ans: B

QEK9.Choose the word which best expresses the similar meaning of the given word "BREVITY"

1. Longevity
2. Stability
3. Permanence
4. Crispness

Correct Ans: D

QEK10.In the following question, one part of the sentence may have an error. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and select the option corresponding to it. If the sentence contains no error, Select "No error'' option. (Avoide punctuation errors)

(A) Each of the eight girls

(B) in the class has

(C) completed their work

(D) NO ERROR.

1. D
2. C
3. B
4. A

Correct Ans: B

QGK1.Mrs. Srimavo Bandaranaike was the first female Prime Minister in the world. Name of the country for which she was Prime Minister is ___________?

1. Iceland
2. Sri Lanka
3. Philippines
4. Israel

Correct Ans: B

QGK2.In 1921 All India Home Rule League changed its name to ______________?

1. Non-Co-Operation Movement
2. Swarajya Sabha
3. Azad Hind Fauj
4. Civil Disobedience Movement

Correct Ans: B

QGK3.Who is the present Chief Election Commissioner of India?

1. Harivansh
2. Sunil Arora
3. Om Prakash Rawat
4. Ashok Lavasa

Correct Ans: C

QGK4.Who among the following is the first Indian to receive the Nobel Prize?

1. Mother Teresa
2. Rabindranath Tagore
3. C.V.Raman
4. Kailash Satyarthi

Correct Ans: B

QGK5.The amount of funds that banks have to maintain with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) at all times is called____________

1. SLR
2. Bank Rate
3. Repo Rate
4. CRR

Correct Ans: D

QGK6.Which of the following languages is recognized as a Official Language under the Eighth Schedule of Indian Constitution?

1. Lepcha
2. Nagpuri
3. Maithili
4. Kamtapuri

Correct Ans: C

QGK7.Cue' is a term used

1. Billiards
2. Bridge
3. Golf
4. Horse Racing

Correct Ans: A

QGK8.‘Munich’ known for its art and culture is located in which country?

1. Switzerland
2. Turkey
3. France
4. Germany

Correct Ans: D

QGK9.Who compiled the “Adi Granth” ?

1. Guru Govind Singh
2. Guru Nanak
3. Guru Arjan Dev
4. Guru Ramdas

Correct Ans: C

QGK10.Where does the Indus River originates?

1. Punjab
2. Pakistan
3. Tibetan Plateau
4. Gilgit-Baltistan

Correct Ans: C

QGL1.કયું જોડકું સમાનાર્થી છે?

1. પડછંદ : કદાવર
2. માફી: સજા
3. ચડતી:પડતી
4. લાભ: નુકસાન

Correct Ans: A

QGL2.ક્રિયાનો જેમાં આધાર હોય એ કઈ વિભક્તિ ગણાય છે?

1. સંપ્રદાન
2. અપાદાન
3. સંબંધ
4. કરણ

Correct Ans: D

QGL3.શેરડી ભેગો એરંડો પાણી પીએ

કહેવતનો સાચો અર્થ કયો વિકલ્પ દર્શાવે છે?

1. લાગવગથી પ્રવેશ પામી શકાય
2. માણસ સર્વ ગુણ સંપન્ન નથી
3. એકની સાથે બીજું લાભ પામે
4. જાત અનુભવ અનુસાર જ્ઞાન હોય

Correct Ans: C

QGL4.નીચે પૈકી કહેવતોનાં એવા કેટલા અલગ-અલગ સમૂહ બનેછે જે અલગ-અલગ અર્થ દર્શાવે છે?

1. સોબત તેવી અસર

2. સેજ તેવો સાથરો

૩. સંગ તેવો રંગ

4. ઝાઝા હાથ રિળયામણા

1. બધી જ કહેવતો સમાનાર્થી છે
2. કુલ 2 સમૂહ
3. માત્ર 1 સમૂહ
4. કુલ ૩ સમૂહ

Correct Ans: D

QGL5.ગાયોનો સમૂહ- એક શબ્દમાં શું કહેવાય?

1. ગોધણ
2. વૃંદ
3. ટોળું
4. ભીડ

Correct Ans: A

QGL6.ક્રિયાપદનાં અર્થમાં જે વધારો કરે એ શું કહેવાય?

1. કેવળપ્રયોગી
2. વિશેષણ
3. નામયોગી
4. ક્રિયાવિશેષણ

Correct Ans: D

QGL7.નીચેમાંથી કયો શબ્દ "મુફલિસ" નો વિરોધી છે?

1. સંત
2. મુસાફર
3. તવંગર
4. સૂર્ય

Correct Ans: C

QGL8.નીચેપૈકી કઈ જોડણી સાચી છે?

1. પરિસમ્વાદ
2. પરીસંવાદ
3. પરિસંવાદ
4. પરીસમ્વાદ

Correct Ans: C

QGL9.નીચેમાંથી કયા શબ્દનો અર્થ 'પરાજય' એવો થાય છે?

1. અભિભવ
2. વ્યાહતિ
3. અનૃત
4. વિચેતર

Correct Ans: A

QGL10.નીચેમાંથી કયા સમાસમાં પ્રથમપદ સંખ્યા આવે?

1. કર્મધારય
2. તત્પુરુષ
3. દ્વિગુ
4. બહુવ્રીહિ

Correct Ans: C