QEE1.Select the odd power plant from the following considering the capability to generate power at predictable time.

1. Solar power plant
2. Wind power plant
3. Thermal power plant
4. Tidal power plant

Correct Ans: C

QEE2.Which of the following is NOT an atomic fuel?

1. Cadmium
2. Plutonium
3. Uraninum
4. Thorium

Correct Ans: A

QEE3.Which of the following devices distributes, filters, or transforms the light emitted from one or more lamps?

1. Igniters
2. Luminaire
3. Ballast
4. Control gear

Correct Ans: B

QEE4.The armature of a three-phase alternator has 240 slots. The armature has 8 poles. Its distribution factor is ____________.

1. \(\frac{10sin15^\circ}{sin3^\circ}\)
2. \(\frac{sin30^\circ}{10sin3^\circ}\)
3. \(\frac{sin3^\circ}{10sin30^\circ}\)
4. \(\frac{sin15^\circ}{10sin3^\circ}\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE5.What is medium voltage, according to IE Rules 28?

1. Voltage that does not exceed 11000 V under normal conditions
2. Voltage that does not exceed 440 V under normal conditions
3. Voltage that does not exceed 650 V under normal conditions
4. Voltage that does not exceed 22000 V under normal conditions

Correct Ans: C

QEE6.An inductor having an inductance of 0.14H and a resistance of \(6\:\Omega\) is connected in series with a capacitor across 50Hz Supply. Calculate the capacitive reactance required to give the circuit power factor 0.6 lagging. Assume supply voltage to be sinusoidal.

1. 117 \(\Omega\)
2. 36 \(\Omega\)
3. 27.2 \(\Omega\)
4. 44 \(\Omega\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE7.which of the following statement is NOT true for cause/effect of hunting in a synchronous motor?

1. Hunting increases the possibility of resonance.
2. A load containing harmonic torque is not the cause of hunting.
3. Sudden change in the field current is one of the causes of hunting.
4. Hunting increases machine losses.

Correct Ans: B

QEE8.Stray load-losses in a motor vary according to square of the load current; are caused by the leakage flux induced by load currents in laminations and account for 4% to 5% of total losses. What is the way to reduse these losses?

1. By careful selection of slot numbers, tooth/slot geometry and air gap
2. By using thinner laminations
3. By utilising silicon steel laminations of low-loss grade
4. By reducing that heat generated by stator and rotor losses; by using a smaller fan

Correct Ans: A

QEE9.If the KVAR of an electric circuit is equal to 'ZERO', then the operating power factor of the same circuit is equal to:

1. 0
2. 2
3. 1
4. 0.5

Correct Ans: C

QEE10.The given equation represents which of the following?

\(\frac{A}{\sin \alpha}=\frac{B}{\sin \beta}=\frac{C}{\sin \gamma}\)

1. Lambert's law
2. Law of superposition
3. Lami's theorem
4. Equilibrium law

Correct Ans: C

QEE11.What is the thickness of the n-type semiconductor of p-n junction diode used for photovoltaic effect to generate solar energy?

1. Less then one nanometre
2. Less then one millimetre
3. Less then one micrometre
4. Less then one picometre

Correct Ans: C

QEE12.What is the type of converter shown in the given figure?

1. Boost converter
2. Cyclo converter
3. Buck converter
4. Cuk converter

Correct Ans: B

QEE13.Which of the following electrical quantities is represented by '\(\sigma\)(sigma)'?

1. Conductance
2. Conductivity
3. Resistance
4. Resistivity

Correct Ans: B

QEE14.What is the magnetising component (\(I_m\)) of no load current (\(I_0\)) wherein primary voltage is \(V_1\)?

1. \(I_m=I_0\sin\phi\) lagging \(V_1\) by \(90^\circ\)
2. \(I_m=I_0\sin\phi\) leading \(V_1\) by \(90^\circ\)
3. \(I_m=I_0\cos\phi\) leading \(V_1\) by \(90^\circ\)
4. \(I_m=I_0\cos\phi\) lagging \(V_1\) by \(90^\circ\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE15.What is the change called when the pressure and volume of a gas change, but no heat is allowed to enter or leave the gas?

1. Isothermal change
2. Isochoric change
3. Isobaric change
4. Adiabatic change

Correct Ans: D

QEE16.In a DC machine, with the number poles being equal to 4, which of the following is possible?

1. \(Electrical \: degrees =8\times (mechanical \: degrees)\)
2. \(Electrical \: degrees =2\times (mechanical \: degrees)\)
3. \(Electrical \: degrees = mechanical \: degrees\)
4. \(Electrical \: degrees = 4\times (mechanical \: degrees)\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE17.Which of the following are independent of circuit voltage?

1. Current

2. Bandwidth

3. Quality factor

4. Resonant frequency

1. 2,3 and 4
2. 1,2 and 4
3. 1,2 and 3
4. 2 and 3

Correct Ans: A

QEE18.How is energy performance of a plant measured?

1. (Current year's energy - Reference year equivalent) \(\times\) 100 / current year's energy
2. (Reference year equivalent - Current year's energy) \(\times\) 100 / Reference year equivalent
3. (Reference year equivalent - Current year's energy) \(\times\) 100 / Current year's energy
4. (Current year's energy - Reference year equivalent) \(\times\) 100 / Reference year equivalent

Correct Ans: B

QEE19.What is VAWT considering the wind turbine?

1. Variable Axis Wind Turbines
2. Vertical Axis Wind Turbines
3. Volt Ampere Wind Turbines
4. Variable Area Wind Turbines

Correct Ans: B

QEE20.Grid-connected PV systems always have a connection to the public electricity grid via a suitable_________.

1. microcontroller
2. inverter
3. control box
4. switchgear

Correct Ans: B

QEE21.What is the range of operating power factor for any given RC series circuit?

1. 0.5 to 1
2. 0 to 0.5
3. 0 to 1
4. -1 to 0

Correct Ans: C

QEE22.The continuous and uninterrupted availability of energy to a specific country or region is called as:

1. energy conservation
2. energy density
3. energy quality
4. energy security

Correct Ans: D

QEE23.What is the technical feasibility of priority 'C', as per project priority guidelines for energy conservation measures?

1. Existing technology may be updated, lack of information
2. Existing technology is adequate
3. Need major breakthrough
4. Existing technology is inadequate

Correct Ans: D

QEE24.Find the current in the circuit which supplies an active power of 600 watts and reactive power of 800 VAR, if the voltage applied is 200 V (RMS value).

1. 5A
2. 7.5 A
3. 3.75 A
4. 2.75 A

Correct Ans: A

QEE25.Which of the following is NOT a possible system of electric power transmission?

1. AC two-phase, four-wire system
2. AC single-phase, three-wire system
3. AC three-phase, five-wire system
4. DC three-wire system

Correct Ans: C

QEE26.\(\frac{energy\:consumption}{GDP}=?\)

1. Energy intensity
2. Energy consumed per customer
3. Energy density
4. Energy consumed in a country

Correct Ans: A

QEE27.Select the odd man out of the following, considering the commercial and non-commercial energy sources.

1. Electricity
2. Natural gas
3. Oil
4. Biomass

Correct Ans: D

QEE28.Which of the following graphs represent a DC series motor?
\((a)\)



\((b)\)



\((c)\)



\((d)\)

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. b

Correct Ans: C

QEE29.Define the phase angle error \((\theta)\) in a current transformer instrument, wherein
\(I_m=\) Magnetizing component of exiting current,
\(\delta=\) Angle between secondary induced voltage and secondary current
\(I_c =\) Core loss component of exciting current
\(n =\) turns ratiio
\(I_s =\) Secondary winding current
\(I_p =\) Primary winding current

1. \(\theta=\frac{I_m\: \cos\delta-I_c\:\sin\delta}{nI_s}\) rad.
2. \(\theta=\frac{I_m\: \sin\delta-I_c\:\cos\delta}{nI_p}\) rad.
3. \(\theta=\frac{I_m\: \cos\delta-I_c\:\sin\delta}{nI_p}\) rad.
4. \(\theta=\frac{I_m\: \sin\delta-I_c\:\cos\delta}{nI_s}\) rad.

Correct Ans: A

QEE30.Which of following statements is true for a slip ring induction motor?

1. Efficiency is less.
2. Construction is very simple.
3. Frequent maintenance is not required.
4. Starting torque is very low and cannot be improved.

Correct Ans: A

QEE31.Which of the following is a non-contact instrument used in energy audit exercises for speed measurement?

1. Tachometer
2. Fyrite
3. Manometer
4. Stroboscope

Correct Ans: D

QEE32.The reactance offered by a capacitor to alternating current of frequency 'f' is 10 ohm. If the frequency is made to operate at '2f', then the reactance becomes equal to_________________.

1. 40 ohm
2. 20 ohm
3. 2.5 ohm
4. 5 ohm

Correct Ans: D

QEE33.An earth tester is a special type of megger with some additional constructional features. What are these features?

1. Rotating current reverser and rectifier
2. Rotating current reverser and inverter
3. Voltage transformer and rectifier
4. Current transformer and inverter

Correct Ans: A

QEE34.An (0 V-100 V) MC voltmeter with an internal resistance of \(2\:\Omega\) is used to measure voltage of up to 200 V. The additional resistance to be connected in series with volmeter is \(_{-----------}\).

1. \(2\:\Omega\)
2. \(2000\:\Omega\)
3. \(200\:\Omega\)
4. \(20\:\Omega\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE35.Which of the following logic gates are called 'universal gates'?

1. NOR and NAND gates
2. OR and NOR gates
3. AND and NAND gates
4. OR, NOT and AND gates

Correct Ans: A

QEE36.Which of the following does the given graph represent?

1. Practical current source
2. Ideal current source
3. Practical voltage source
4. Ideal voltage source

Correct Ans: D

QEE37.For a short-pitched synchronous machine, (distribution factor) \(\times\) (pitch factor) is___________.

1. always equal to 1
2. always less than 1
3. always 0
4. always greater than 1

Correct Ans: B

QEE38.Find the current flowing through \(10\:\Omega\) load resistors shown in the given circuit, using Thevenin's theorem or Norton's theorem.

1. 2.54 Amps
2. 4.05 Amps
3. 3.93 Amps
4. 0.32 Amps

Correct Ans: D

QEE39.Which of the following is used to increase the acting head on the water wheel in a hydro- electric power plant?

1. Penstock
2. Draft tube
3. Surge tank
4. Reservoir

Correct Ans: B

QEE40.Which type of connection is used in transformers to link a 3-phase system with a 2-phase system with the flow of power in either direction?

1. Delta star
2. Star Delta
3. V-V connectioin
4. T-T connection

Correct Ans: D

QEE41.The current control range of an SCR is:

1. 0 -30 A
2. 130 - 160 A
3. 100 - 130 A
4. 30 - 100 A

Correct Ans: D

QEE42.Why is the rotor bar of the squirrel cage rotor permanently short-circuited at the ends?

1. For reducing the magnetic hum and locking tendency
2. To prevent short circuit
3. To ensure that insertion of external resistance is not possible
4. To eliminate the chances of open circuit

Correct Ans: C

QEE43.A measuring instrument is said to be 'dead beat' when the instrument is \(_{-----------}\).

1. undamped
2. underdamped
3. critically damped
4. overdamped

Correct Ans: C

QEE44.Which of the following is called a service main?

1. Conductor connecting generating station to substation
2. Conductor connecting consumer's terminal to the distributor
3. Conductor connecting substation to substation
4. Conductor connecting consumer's terminal to the distribution substation

Correct Ans: B

QEE45.What is per unit regulation in a transformer when \(V_{20}\) is the secondary terminal voltage on no-load and \(V_2\) is the secondary terminal voltage on give load?

1. \((V_{2}-V_{20})/V_{20}\)
2. \((V_{20}-V_{2})/V_{2}\)
3. \((V_{2}-V_{20})/V_{2}\)
4. \((V_{20}-V_{2})/V_{20}\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE46.\(LT^{-2}\) is the dimension of which of the following quantities?

1. power
2. Acceleration
3. Momentum
4. Density

Correct Ans: B

QEE47.In a 4-pole lap wounded DC machine,

\((\frac{no. \:of\:poles}{no. \:of\:brushes})\times\:\) no. of parallel paths=?

1. 3
2. 2
3. 1
4. 4

Correct Ans: D

QEE48.Which of the following is the best, considering the speed of operation?

1. SCR
2. IGBT
3. MOSFET
4. BJT

Correct Ans: C

QEE49.Which of the following comes under the category of potential energy?

1. Electrical energy
2. Thermal energy
3. Nuclear energy
4. Sound energy

Correct Ans: C

QEE50.Reference year equivalent = (reference year energy use) \(\times\) (__________).

1. Load factor
2. Monthly energy performance
3. Production factor
4. Plant energy performance

Correct Ans: C

QEE51.Which part of the wind power plant senses the direction of wind and passes the direction to PLC, after which the PLC faces the blades in such a way that it cuts the maximum wind?

1. Pitch drive
2. Wind vane
3. Yaw drive
4. Nacelle

Correct Ans: B

QEE52.Which of the following is NOT used as a deflecting force in indicating instruments?

1. Eddy current effect
2. Chemical effect
3. Thermal effect
4. Induction effect

Correct Ans: A

QEE53.For a single phase transformer, the maximum efficiency occurs at 75% of the load, then \(\frac{iron\:loss\:at\:full\:load}{copper\:loss\:at\:full\:load}=?\)

1. \(\frac{3}{4}\)
2. \(\frac{16}{10}\)
3. \(\frac{16}{25}\)
4. \(\frac{9}{16}\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE54.Identify the type of motor shown in the given figure

1. Short shunt compound motor
2. Short shunt series motor
3. Long shunt compound motor
4. Long shunt series motor

Correct Ans: C

QEE55.A 230 V motor has an armature circuit resistance of 0.8 ohms. If the full load armature current is 25 A, Find the amount of back EMF induced in the armature.

1. 210 V
2. 200 V
3. 240 V
4. 250 V

Correct Ans: A

QEE56.Which of the following types of wiring CANNOT be implemented easily once the construction of the house is completed?

1. Batten wiring
2. Cleat wiring
3. Concealed conduit wiring
4. Surface conduit wiring

Correct Ans: C

QEE57.How is the efficiency of instrument calculated?

1. Instrument efficiency = \(\frac{Power\:taken\:at\:measured\:quantity}{Power\:taken\:by\:the\:instrument\:at\:full\:scale}\)
2. Instrument efficiency = \(\frac{Power\:taken\:by\:the\:instrument\:at\:full\:scale}{Power\:taken\:at\:measured\:quantity}\)
3. Instrument efficiency = \(\frac{Power\:taken\:by\:the\:instrument\:at\:full\:scale}{Measuring\:quantity\:at\:full\:scale}\)
4. Instrument efficiency = \(\frac{Measuring\:quantity\:at\:full\:scale}{Power\:taken\:by\:the\:instrument\:at\:full\:scale}\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE58.For which of the following power plants, the ratio of operating cost to initial cost is least?

1. Thermal power plant
2. Nuclear power plant
3. Gas power plant
4. Hydro-electric power plant

Correct Ans: D

QEE59.An instrument with an internal resistance of 100 \(\Omega\) and full-scale current of 1 mA is to be converted into a DC voltmeter with range of 0 V-500 V. Find the value of the resistance used as a multiplier

1. 49900 \(\Omega\)
2. 40000 \(\Omega\)
3. 499900 \(\Omega\)
4. 9900 \(\Omega\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE60.In 8051, after the execution of the following instruction, the content of the accumulator is:
\(CLR\: A\)

1. 00 H
2. FF H
3. 0F H
4. AA H

Correct Ans: A

QEE61.Which of the following is NOT a control register in 8051 microcontroller?

1. IE
2. IP
3. TMOD
4. SP

Correct Ans: D

QEE62.Which of the following is NOT a part of a digital energy meter?

1. A metering circuit
2. A processing and communication circuit
3. A digital-to-analog converter
4. A real-time clock

Correct Ans: C

QEE63.The minimum anode current, which must flow through the SCR in order for it to stay ON initially after the gate signal is removed, is known as_________________.

1. latching current
2. holding current
3. minimum trigger current
4. surge current

Correct Ans: A

QEE64.In a program status word special function register, if RS1 = 1 and RS2 = 1, then which of the following register bank is selected?

1. Register bank 0
2. Register bank 1
3. Register bank 2
4. Register bank 3

Correct Ans: D

QEE65.Considering extending the range of measuring instruments, the ratio \(\frac{resistance\:of\:ammeter\:shunt}{resistance\:of\:voltmeter\:multiplier}\) ?

1. Very small value
2. Zero (0)
3. Very large value
4. One (1)

Correct Ans: A

QEE66.The given figure represents the maximum demand of different substations (substation A,B,C,D,E maximum demands are A MW, B MW, D MW, and E MW, respectively). Also the simultaneous maximum demand on the substation X is X MW, the diversity factor of substation X is:

1. \(\frac{A+B+C+D+E+X}{X}\)
2. \(\frac{A+B+C+D+E}{X}\)
3. \(\frac{A+B+C+D-E}{X}\)
4. \(\frac{A+B+C+D+E-X}{X}\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE67.How much is the ripple frequency in a bridge rectifier with respect to the input frequency?

1. 3 \(\times\) input frequency
2. 4 \(\times\) input frequency
3. 2 \(\times\) input frequency
4. Same as input frequency

Correct Ans: C

QEE68.The stators of which of the following motors is similar?

1. Induction motor and stepper motor
2. Induction motor and DC motor
3. Synchronous motor and DC motor
4. Induction motor and synchronous motor

Correct Ans: D

QEE69.For unity power factor, the voltage regulation of a short transmission line is:

1. \(I(R+X_L)\)
2. \(IX_L\)
3. \(IX_L/R\)
4. \(X_L/R\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE70.What is the maximum firing angle achievable using resistance-capacitance triggering of SCR?

1. \(180^\circ\)
2. \(30^\circ\)
3. \(60^\circ\)
4. \(90^\circ\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE71.Which of the following parts of a single phase induction energy meter are NOT in direct connection with the supply?

1. Current coil

2.Potential coil

3.Aluminium disc

4.Braking magnet

1. Both 4 and 1
2. Both 2 and 3
3. Both 3 and 4
4. Both 1 and 2

Correct Ans: C

QEE72.In an induction motor, the ratio of the power developed by the motor to the air gap power is 0.96. The percentage slip is:

1. 10%
2. 4%
3. 2%
4. 8%

Correct Ans: B

QEE73.Find DELTA equivalent resistance \(R_{12}\), \(R_{23}\), and \(R_{31}\) from the given STAR configuration.

1. 9\(\Omega\),24\(\Omega\),12\(\Omega\)
2. 18\(\Omega\),24\(\Omega\),9\(\Omega\)
3. 6\(\Omega\),18\(\Omega\),12\(\Omega\)
4. 18\(\Omega\),12\(\Omega\),24\(\Omega\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE74.Weston frequency meters are________type of instrumemts.

1. electrostatic
2. moving iron
3. electromagnetic
4. moving coil

Correct Ans: B

QEE75.What is the main disadvantage of thermal power plant?

1. Fuel cost is relatively very high.
2. Huge emission of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
3. Mechanism is very complicated
4. It requires comparatively large space to be installed.

Correct Ans: B

QEE76.Which of the following is NOT a commonly used fuel for nuclear power plants?

1. Pu-236
2. U-238
3. Pu-244
4. U-235

Correct Ans: C

QEE77.What is the maximum length of a 1-phase transmission line having copper conductor of 0.7\(cm^2\) cross-section, over which 180 kW at unity power factor and at 3600 V are to be delivered? The efficiency of transmission is 90% (Take specific resistance as 1.4 \(\mu\)\(\Omega\) cm.)

1. 12.5 km
2. 10 km
3. 20 km
4. 13.7 km

Correct Ans: C

QEE78.Which of the following statements is true pertaining to the commutation of SCR?

1. Class-B commutation is also known as complementary commutation.
2. Class-D commutation is also known as load commutation.
3. Class-C commutation is also known as complementary auxiliary commutation.
4. Class-A commutation is also known as load commutation.

Correct Ans: D

QEE79.The given figure represents part of which of the following power plants?

1. Wind power plant
2. Solar power plant
3. Thermal power plant
4. Tidal power plant

Correct Ans: A

QEE80.Which of the following offers the least power loss?

1. IGBT
2. MOSFET
3. BJT
4. SCR

Correct Ans: D

QEE81.Which of the following is NOT true for an LED lamp used as a panel indicator lamp in place of a filament lamp?

1. Lesser power consumption
2. Longer operating life
3. Sensitive to voltage fluctuations
4. Failure of lamp is low

Correct Ans: C

QEE82.The range of a projectile is double the maximum height attained. Find the angle of projection

1. \(Cot^{-1}(2)\)
2. \(Sin^{-1}(2)\)
3. \(Cos^{-1}(2)\)
4. \(Tan^{-1}(2)\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE83.To ensure that sufficient amount of water is available in the main reservoir to meet the peak loads, when the demand for electricity is low, the water from the lower reservoir is pumped into the upper (main) reservoir. Which type of hydroelectric power plant is this done in?

1. Pumped storage plant
2. Surge tank power plant
3. . Run-of-river plant
4. Conventional power plant

Correct Ans: A

QEE84.In the given network, if the 10-ohm resistor is open circuited, then the equivalent resistance between A and B is equal to ______________.

1. 20 ohm
2. 15 ohm
3. 10 ohm
4. 5 ohm

Correct Ans: A

QEE85.How does the proximity switch work?

1. By sensing magnetic or electrostatic field
2. By responding to the change in temperature
3. By coupling to a moving shaft
4. Depending on the liquid or gas vapour

Correct Ans: A

QEE86.Identify the expression:
\(\frac{V_{max}}{2\pi R_L}(1+cos\alpha)\)

1. The average current in a full wave rectifier circuit constructed with the help of diodes
2. The average current in a full wave rectifier circuit constructed with the help of SCRs
3. The average current in a half wave rectifier circuit constructed with the help of diodes
4. The average current in a half wave rectifier circuit constructed with the help of SCRs

Correct Ans: D

QEE87.For the circuit shown, if the resistance of each resistor is 100 ohm, the potential at X is ________.

1. 1 volt
2. 0 volt
3. the same as the voltage drop across any resistor
4. the same as that of Y

Correct Ans: D

QEE88.

The figure shown above represents construction of which of the following?

1. Diode
2. Transistor
3. MOSFET
4. SCR

Correct Ans: C

QEE89.Which principle is used to find the direction of rotation of a conductor in a DC motor?

1. Faraday's laws of electromagnetic induction
2. Fleming's right-hand rule
3. Fleming's left-hand rule
4. Lenz's law

Correct Ans: C

QEE90.A hybrid VR stepping motor has 8 main poles, which have been castellated to have 5 teeth each. If the rotor has 50 teeth, calculate the stepping angle.

1. \(1.8^\circ\)
2. \(3.6^\circ\)
3. \(9^\circ\)
4. \(90^\circ\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE91.A three-phase 20 HP. 208 V, 60 Hz, 6-pole, star-connected induction motor delivers 15 kW at 5% slip. Calculate the frequency of the rotor current.

1. 30 Hz
2. 18 Hz
3. 6 Hz
4. 3 Hz

Correct Ans: D

QEE92.A 40 kVA, single-phase transformer has 901 turns on the primary and 100 turns on the secondary. The primary is connected to a 2000 V, 50 Hz supply. Determine the maximum value of flux.

1. 0.0018 Weber
2. 0.0125 Weber
3. 0.01 Weber
4. 0.025 Weber

Correct Ans: C

QEE93.A typical circuit whose parameters change their values with the change in time, temperature, voltage etc. is known as ____________________.

1. unilateral circuit
2. non-linear circuit
3. bilateral circuit
4. linear circuit

Correct Ans: B

QEE94.For the transformer circuit shown, if the turns ratio is 3 : 1, then the power transferred to the load is ____________.

1. 0 Watt
2. the minimum
3. 500 Watt
4. the maximum

Correct Ans: D

QEE95.The force of attraction between two particles of masses \(m_1\) and \(m_2\) separated by distance d is give by \(F=Gm_1m_2/d^2\). What is the value of G?

1. \(6.733\times10^{-17}\:Nm^2kg^2\)
2. \(6.6733\times10^{-17}\:Nm^2kg^2\)
3. \(6.6733\times10^{-11}\:Nm^2kg^2\)
4. \(6.733\times10^{-11}\:Nm^2kg^2\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE96.Which of the following phenomena is NOT accompanied with the corona effect on conductors of overhead power transmission lines?

1. Deep red glow
2. Hissing noise
3. Production of ozone gas
4. Radio interference

Correct Ans: A

QEE97.The relation between the height of the transmission tower and the capacitance of the line to earth is_______________.

1. non-linear
2. directly proportional
3. inversely proportional
4. exponential

Correct Ans: C

QEE98.Three capacitors of 15 \(\mu F\), 25 \(\mu F\) and 40 \(\mu F\) are connected in parallel across a 250 V supply. Find the amount of energy stored.

1. 2.35 Joules
2. 0.235 Joules
3. 0.25 Joules
4. 2.5 Joules

Correct Ans: D

QEE99.Identify the type of cable shown in the given figure.

1. Belted cable
2. Oil-filled cable
3. H-type cable
4. Gas presure cable

Correct Ans: D

QEE100.Which of the following is NOT a true difference between EMF and potential difference (PD)?

1. EMF refers to source of electrical energy, while PD exists between any points in a circuit.
2. EMF is measured in an open circuit, whereas PD is measured in a closed circuit
3. PD is a cause of current flow, while EMF is the effect of current flow
4. PD is less than the EMF in the same circuit, whereas EMF is greater than the PD in the same circuit.

Correct Ans: C

QEE101.What is the main purpose of using stranded conductors in overhead lines for power transmission?

1. reduce the cost
2. To increase the mechanical strength
3. To increase the flexibility
4. To increase the current-carrying capability

Correct Ans: C

QEE102.Which of the following is true for an earth wire?

1. Slight potential exists
2. Only fault current flows
3. It does not protect from electric chokes
4. Return current passes through the load

Correct Ans: B

QEE103.The graph represents three-phase synchonous motor,and it is plot between which of the following?

1. Armature current and armature resistance
2. Armature current and field current
3. Armature current and power factor
4. Field current and power factor

Correct Ans: B

QEE104.Which of the following statements is true for solid state relay (SSR)?

1. SSR consists of a step-down transformer, diode and RC charging circuit.
2. SSR consists of a coil connected in series with the motor.
3. SSR has no moving parts.
4. The solenoid valve of SSR has two distinct parts.

Correct Ans: C

QEE105.In 8051 architecture, which of the following is NOT an 8-bit specific feature?

1. Data Pointer
2. Stack Pointer
3. Program Status Word
4. Accumulator

Correct Ans: A

QEE106.The maximum load allowed in

\(\frac{power\:sub\:circuit}{light\:fan\:sub\:circuit}=?\)

1. \(\frac{30}{8}\)
2. \(\frac{80}{3}\)
3. \(\frac{3}{8}\)
4. \(\frac{8}{3}\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE107.Structured text (ST) is a high-level textual language that encourages structured programming. Which language does the language structure resemble?

1. Fox pro
2. Visual basic
3. PASCAL
4. FORTAN

Correct Ans: C

QEE108.The starting torque in a three phase induction motor, will be the maximum when, \(\frac{rotor\:restistance\:per\:phase}{rotor\:reactance\:per\:phase}=?\)

1. -1
2. infinity
3. 1
4. 0

Correct Ans: C

QEE109.Which of the following figures represents bulk head fitting in electrical symbols?

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Correct Ans: D

QEE110.Which of the following is also called as ‘series transformer’?

1. Power transformer
2. Current transformer
3. Distribution transformer
4. Potential transformer

Correct Ans: B

QEE111.Which of the following is NOT true for a common collector transistor?

1. Input impedance is high
2. It can be used for impedance matching
3. Output impedance is low
4. Power gain is high

Correct Ans: D

QEE112.A 132 kV transmission line has the following data: Weight of conductor = 700 kg/km; Length of span = 250 m; Ultimate strength = 4375 kg; Safety factor = 2. Calculate the height above ground at which the conductor should be supported. (Ground clearance required is 10 m.)

1. 15 m
2. 11.25 m
3. 12.5 m
4. 13.7 m

Correct Ans: C

QEE113.What type of power is generated by power factor correction capacitors connected to plants and used for improvement of the power factor?

1. Reactive power
2. True power
3. Apparent power
4. Active power

Correct Ans: A

QEE114.The characteristics of IGBT is a combination of which of the following two devices?

1. SCR and TRIAC
2. MOSFET and SCR
3. SCR and BJT
4. MOSFET and BJT

Correct Ans: D

QEE115.Considering wind power plants,

\(\frac{tip\:speed\:of\:the\:blade}{wind\:speed}=?\)

1. Tip speed ratio
2. Wind speed ratio
3. Turbine speed ratio
4. Blade speed ratio

Correct Ans: A

QEE116.Which of the following is equal to 1 volt?

1. \(\frac{joule}{coulomb}\)
2. \(\frac{joule}{second}\)
3. \(\frac{watt}{coulomb}\)
4. \(\frac{second}{coulomb}\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE117.Find the Reynolds number ( R ) for liquids following through cylindrical pipe, wherein V is velocity of the liquid, \(\rho\) is density of the liquid, \(\eta\)is coefficient of viscosity of the liquid and D is diameter of the pipe.

1. \(R=V \rho D /\eta^2\)
2. \(R=V \rho D /\eta\)
3. \(R=V /\eta\rho D \)
4. \(R=V D/\eta\rho\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE118.Which of the following modes of operation allows you to change the processor mode from a program/operator device and perform online program editing using programmable logic control?

1. Test mode
2. PROG mode
3. Run mode
4. REM mode

Correct Ans: D

QEE119.What is the true condition for maximum power transform from source to load as per maximum power transform theorem?

1. Load resistance is negligible
2. Load resistance in infinity
3. Source resistance is equal to load resistance
4. Source resistance is negligible

Correct Ans: C

QEE120.Which of the following can result in large amount of energy production?

1. Energy obtained by burning 1500 tonnes of high grade coal
2. Energy obtained by fission of 1 kg uranium
3. Energy obtained by fission of 1 kg thorium
4. Energy obtained by burning 1500 tonnes of low grade coal

Correct Ans: B

QSA1.Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.


Mary took time to assimilate all the information provided by the insurance agent.

1. overlook
2. reciprocate
3. enhance
4. comprehend

Correct Ans: D

QSA2.Select the most appropriate option to substitute the underlined segment in the given sentence.


James became sufficient at typing because he practiced for several hours every day.

1. proficient
2. prudent
3. frequent
4. redundant

Correct Ans: A

QSA3.Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.


Blood is thicker than water.

1. Jealousy leads to differences among brothers.
2. Family ties are stronger than other relationships.
3. Friends are more helpful than family members.
4. Blood relations are of no value.

Correct Ans: B

QSA4.Select the most appropriate ANTONYM of the underlined word in the given sentence.


One must make judicious use of one’s resources.

1. rational
2. indiscreet
3. prudent
4. shrewd

Correct Ans: B

QSA5.Select the most appropriate synonym of the underlined word in the given sentence.


The sight of the brutal murder gave him nightmares.

1. reckless
2. savage
3. benign
4. valiant

Correct Ans: B

QSA6.Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.


She______ with the dream of becoming a playback singer.

1. set out
2. set up
3. set on
4. set in

Correct Ans: A

QSA7.Select the option that can be used as a one-word substitute for the given group of words.


One who has no money

1. Pauper
2. Draper
3. Wanderer
4. Volunteer

Correct Ans: A

QSA8.Identify the option that arranges the given words in the correct order to form a meaningful sentence.


inventions armed which are miracles has science not less than with man

1. Science has armed man with inventions which are not less than miracles.
2. Science has miracles armed with man which are not less than inventions.
3. Science has armed inventions with man which are not less than miracles.
4. Science has armed miracles with man which are not less than inventions.

Correct Ans: A

QSA9.Sentences of a paragraph are given below in jumbled order. Arrange the sentences in the correct order to form a meaningful and coherent paragraph.


A. They lived in a cohesive joint family structure where they were happier than we are.

B. The joint family provided an emotional cushioning effect against stress.

C. The structural framework of our forefathers’ families was different from ours.

D. The bond of love which they shared cannot easily be found in nuclear families of today.

1. CBDA
2. DABC
3. BDCA
4. CABD

Correct Ans: D

QSA10.Select the most appropriate meaning of the given proverb.


A leopard cannot change its spots.

1. One cannot change one’s dressing style
2. One cannot change one’s profession
3. One cannot change one’s innate nature
4. One cannot change one’s looks

Correct Ans: C

QSA11.\(\mathbf{Comprehension:}\)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.


A fisherman, enfeebled with age, could no longer go out to sea, so he began fishing in the river. Every morning he would go down to the river and sit there fishing the whole day long. In the evening he would sell whatever he had caught, buy food for himself and go home. It was a hard life for an old man. One hot afternoon while he was bemoaning his fate, a large bird with silvery feathers alighted on a rock near him. It was Kaha, the heavenly bird. “You should not be doing such work at your age,” said the bird. ‘From now on I will bring you a big fish every evening. You can sell it and live in comfort’. True to her word, the bird began to drop a large fish at his doorstep every evening. As big fish were in great demand, the fisherman was soon rolling in money. He bought a cottage near the sea, with a garden around it and engaged a servant to cook for him.

One day, he heard the royal courtier make an announcement. ‘Whoever can give information about the Kaha bird and help catch it will be rewarded with half the kingdom !’ ‘Why does the king want the bird?’ he asked. ‘He has lost his sight and a wise man has advised him to bathe his eyes with the blood of Kaha.” Do you know where she can be found?’ he asked. ‘No…I mean …no, no…’ the fisherman could not give a coherent reply. The courtier, sensing that he knew something about the bird, took him to the palace. ‘If you have information about the bird, tell me. I will personally crown you king of half my domain’, said the king. The fisherman agreed. ‘But Kaha is strong. I will need help’. The king sent a dozen soldiers with him. That evening when Kaha came with the fish, the fisherman said, ‘Today I have laid out a feast for you. Please alight and come in so that I can thank you’. Kaha was reluctant but the fisherman pleaded so earnestly that she finally gave in, and alighted. The moment she was on the ground, the fisherman grabbed one of her legs and shouted to the soldiers for help. They rushed to his aid, but their combined effort could not keep Kaha down.

She rose into the air with the fisherman still clinging onto her leg and neither he nor Kaha were ever seen again.


Which word in the story means the same as ‘descend’?

1. engage
2. alight
3. bemoan
4. plead

Correct Ans: B

QSA12.\(\mathbf{Comprehension:}\)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.


A fisherman, enfeebled with age, could no longer go out to sea, so he began fishing in the river. Every morning he would go down to the river and sit there fishing the whole day long. In the evening he would sell whatever he had caught, buy food for himself and go home. It was a hard life for an old man. One hot afternoon while he was bemoaning his fate, a large bird with silvery feathers alighted on a rock near him. It was Kaha, the heavenly bird. “You should not be doing such work at your age,” said the bird. ‘From now on I will bring you a big fish every evening. You can sell it and live in comfort’. True to her word, the bird began to drop a large fish at his doorstep every evening. As big fish were in great demand, the fisherman was soon rolling in money. He bought a cottage near the sea, with a garden around it and engaged a servant to cook for him.

One day, he heard the royal courtier make an announcement. ‘Whoever can give information about the Kaha bird and help catch it will be rewarded with half the kingdom !’ ‘Why does the king want the bird?’ he asked. ‘He has lost his sight and a wise man has advised him to bathe his eyes with the blood of Kaha.” Do you know where she can be found?’ he asked. ‘No…I mean …no, no…’ the fisherman could not give a coherent reply. The courtier, sensing that he knew something about the bird, took him to the palace. ‘If you have information about the bird, tell me. I will personally crown you king of half my domain’, said the king. The fisherman agreed. ‘But Kaha is strong. I will need help’. The king sent a dozen soldiers with him. That evening when Kaha came with the fish, the fisherman said, ‘Today I have laid out a feast for you. Please alight and come in so that I can thank you’. Kaha was reluctant but the fisherman pleaded so earnestly that she finally gave in, and alighted. The moment she was on the ground, the fisherman grabbed one of her legs and shouted to the soldiers for help. They rushed to his aid, but their combined effort could not keep Kaha down.

She rose into the air with the fisherman still clinging onto her leg and neither he nor Kaha were ever seen again.


Why did the king need Kaha?

1. To enhance his power
2. To keep him company
3. To cure his blindness
4. To bring him prosperity

Correct Ans: C

QSA13.\(\mathbf{Comprehension:}\)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.


A fisherman, enfeebled with age, could no longer go out to sea, so he began fishing in the river. Every morning he would go down to the river and sit there fishing the whole day long. In the evening he would sell whatever he had caught, buy food for himself and go home. It was a hard life for an old man. One hot afternoon while he was bemoaning his fate, a large bird with silvery feathers alighted on a rock near him. It was Kaha, the heavenly bird. “You should not be doing such work at your age,” said the bird. ‘From now on I will bring you a big fish every evening. You can sell it and live in comfort’. True to her word, the bird began to drop a large fish at his doorstep every evening. As big fish were in great demand, the fisherman was soon rolling in money. He bought a cottage near the sea, with a garden around it and engaged a servant to cook for him.

One day, he heard the royal courtier make an announcement. ‘Whoever can give information about the Kaha bird and help catch it will be rewarded with half the kingdom !’ ‘Why does the king want the bird?’ he asked. ‘He has lost his sight and a wise man has advised him to bathe his eyes with the blood of Kaha.” Do you know where she can be found?’ he asked. ‘No…I mean …no, no…’ the fisherman could not give a coherent reply. The courtier, sensing that he knew something about the bird, took him to the palace. ‘If you have information about the bird, tell me. I will personally crown you king of half my domain’, said the king. The fisherman agreed. ‘But Kaha is strong. I will need help’. The king sent a dozen soldiers with him. That evening when Kaha came with the fish, the fisherman said, ‘Today I have laid out a feast for you. Please alight and come in so that I can thank you’. Kaha was reluctant but the fisherman pleaded so earnestly that she finally gave in, and alighted. The moment she was on the ground, the fisherman grabbed one of her legs and shouted to the soldiers for help. They rushed to his aid, but their combined effort could not keep Kaha down.

She rose into the air with the fisherman still clinging onto her leg and neither he nor Kaha were ever seen again.


Which of the following is the most appropriate moral of the story?

1. Look before you leap
2. Unity is strength
3. Greediness is a curse
4. Pride hath a fall

Correct Ans: C

QSA14.\(\mathbf{Comprehension:}\)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.


A fisherman, enfeebled with age, could no longer go out to sea, so he began fishing in the river. Every morning he would go down to the river and sit there fishing the whole day long. In the evening he would sell whatever he had caught, buy food for himself and go home. It was a hard life for an old man. One hot afternoon while he was bemoaning his fate, a large bird with silvery feathers alighted on a rock near him. It was Kaha, the heavenly bird. “You should not be doing such work at your age,” said the bird. ‘From now on I will bring you a big fish every evening. You can sell it and live in comfort’. True to her word, the bird began to drop a large fish at his doorstep every evening. As big fish were in great demand, the fisherman was soon rolling in money. He bought a cottage near the sea, with a garden around it and engaged a servant to cook for him.

One day, he heard the royal courtier make an announcement. ‘Whoever can give information about the Kaha bird and help catch it will be rewarded with half the kingdom !’ ‘Why does the king want the bird?’ he asked. ‘He has lost his sight and a wise man has advised him to bathe his eyes with the blood of Kaha.” Do you know where she can be found?’ he asked. ‘No…I mean …no, no…’ the fisherman could not give a coherent reply. The courtier, sensing that he knew something about the bird, took him to the palace. ‘If you have information about the bird, tell me. I will personally crown you king of half my domain’, said the king. The fisherman agreed. ‘But Kaha is strong. I will need help’. The king sent a dozen soldiers with him. That evening when Kaha came with the fish, the fisherman said, ‘Today I have laid out a feast for you. Please alight and come in so that I can thank you’. Kaha was reluctant but the fisherman pleaded so earnestly that she finally gave in, and alighted. The moment she was on the ground, the fisherman grabbed one of her legs and shouted to the soldiers for help. They rushed to his aid, but their combined effort could not keep Kaha down.

She rose into the air with the fisherman still clinging onto her leg and neither he nor Kaha were ever seen again.


Why did Kaha offer to bring fish for the fisherman?

1. He was too old and weak to work.
2. She wanted to make him rich.
3. He loved to eat fish.
4. There were no fish left in the river.

Correct Ans: A

QSA15.\(\mathbf{Comprehension:}\)

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.


A fisherman, enfeebled with age, could no longer go out to sea, so he began fishing in the river. Every morning he would go down to the river and sit there fishing the whole day long. In the evening he would sell whatever he had caught, buy food for himself and go home. It was a hard life for an old man. One hot afternoon while he was bemoaning his fate, a large bird with silvery feathers alighted on a rock near him. It was Kaha, the heavenly bird. “You should not be doing such work at your age,” said the bird. ‘From now on I will bring you a big fish every evening. You can sell it and live in comfort’. True to her word, the bird began to drop a large fish at his doorstep every evening. As big fish were in great demand, the fisherman was soon rolling in money. He bought a cottage near the sea, with a garden around it and engaged a servant to cook for him.

One day, he heard the royal courtier make an announcement. ‘Whoever can give information about the Kaha bird and help catch it will be rewarded with half the kingdom !’ ‘Why does the king want the bird?’ he asked. ‘He has lost his sight and a wise man has advised him to bathe his eyes with the blood of Kaha.” Do you know where she can be found?’ he asked. ‘No…I mean …no, no…’ the fisherman could not give a coherent reply. The courtier, sensing that he knew something about the bird, took him to the palace. ‘If you have information about the bird, tell me. I will personally crown you king of half my domain’, said the king. The fisherman agreed. ‘But Kaha is strong. I will need help’. The king sent a dozen soldiers with him. That evening when Kaha came with the fish, the fisherman said, ‘Today I have laid out a feast for you. Please alight and come in so that I can thank you’. Kaha was reluctant but the fisherman pleaded so earnestly that she finally gave in, and alighted. The moment she was on the ground, the fisherman grabbed one of her legs and shouted to the soldiers for help. They rushed to his aid, but their combined effort could not keep Kaha down.

She rose into the air with the fisherman still clinging onto her leg and neither he nor Kaha were ever seen again.


What made the courtier suspect that the fisherman knew about Kaha?

1. The fisherman was hesitant when asked about Kaha.
2. The fisherman had been seen talking to Kaha.
3. The fisherman had the silver feathers of Kaha
4. The fisherman had been selling big fish every day.

Correct Ans: A

QSA16.Three partners A,B and C started a business. A invested \(\frac{1}{3}^{rd}\) of the total capital, B invested 60 % of the remaining capital and C invested the rest. At the end of a year, the total profit was Rs. 18 lakhs. What is the difference between the shares of profit of A and C?

1. Rs. 1,25,000
2. Rs. 1,15,000
3. Rs. 1,20,000
4. Rs. 1,28,000

Correct Ans: C

QSA17.The number of perfect cube factor of \(16 × 3^6 ×5^{10}\) is:

1. 18
2. 30
3. 36
4. 24

Correct Ans: D

QSA18.If \(x,\:y\) and \(z\) are the range, mode, and median respectively, of the data 12, 9, 10, 13, 15, 16, 12, 24, 25, 21, then what is the value of \((x + 2y -z)\) ?

1. 29
2. 26
3. 25
4. 24

Correct Ans: B

QSA19.X, Y and Z invest capitals in the ratio 18:20:25. After 6 months, X increases his capital by \(33\frac{1}{3}\)% and Y decreases his capital by 50% and no change in the capital of Z. What is the share of Y in the profit of Rs.15. 25 lakhs at the end of a year?

1. Rs. 3,75,000
2. Rs.3,20,000
3. Rs. 3,00,000
4. Rs. 3,50,000

Correct Ans: A

QSA20.Study the following pie chart and answer the following question.





Total number of students in five institutes = 3600





The difference between the average number of girls in institutes A, B and E and the number of boys in institute D is x. The value of x lines between

1. 50 and 60
2. 70 and 80
3. 60 and 70
4. 80 and 90

Correct Ans: B

QSA21.The speed of the stream in 4 km/h. The time taken by a boat to cover a certain distance upstream is equal to 2.5 of the time taken by it to cover the same distance downstream. What is the speed (in km/h) of the boat in still water ?

1. \(8\)
2. \(10\)
3. \(7\frac{1}{2}\)
4. \(9\frac{1}{3}\)

Correct Ans: D

QSA22.Study the following graph and answer the following question.





The total expenditure of the company in 2015, 2017 and 2018 is what per cent of 70% of the total revenue over five years?(correct to one decimal place)

1. 72.90%
2. 71.80%
3. 72.50%
4. 70.50%

Correct Ans: C

QSA23.A is 25% more efficient than B and C is 40% less efficient than A. B alone can complete a certain work in 25 days. B and C work together for 5 days. A alone can complete the remaining work in:

1. 10 DAYS
2. 13 DAYS
3. 7 DAYS
4. 9 DAYS

Correct Ans: B

QSA24.A man borrows a sum of Rs. 9792 from a finance company and returns it in two equal annual installments. If the rate of interest is \(12\frac{1}{2}\)% p.a, compounded yearly, than the value of each installment is:

1. Rs. 5670
2. Rs. 5751
3. Rs. 5832
4. Rs. 5760

Correct Ans: C

QSA25.A container is in the shape of frustum of a cone and its capacity is 80.08 litres. The radii of its circular end are 35 cm and 14 cm.
Its slant height (in cm )is closest to:

( Take \(\pi=\frac{22}{7}\) )

1. 44
2. 46
3. 45.2
4. 45.8

Correct Ans: C

QSA26.The average age of A,B and C, 5 years ago, was 32 years. The average age of B and C, 6 year ago, was 28.5 years. A will retire at the age of 60. After how many years from now will he retire?

1. 19
2. 17
3. 18
4. 20

Correct Ans: C

QSA27.Study the following graph and answer the following question.





What is the ratio of the total revenue of the company in 2017 and 2019 to its total expenditure year in 2015 and 2018?

1. 5:3
2. 7:5
3. 3:2
4. 13:9

Correct Ans: B

QSA28.The perimeter of a rhombus -shaped garden is 808 m. One of its diagonal is 396 m. What is the area ( in \(m^2\) ) of the garden?

1. 15920
2. 16276
3. 15840
4. 16632

Correct Ans: C

QSA29.A dealer gains 20% when he sells an article at a 25% discount on its marked price. If the cost price of the article decrease the by 10%, how much discount per cent should he give now on the same marked price so as the earn the same percentage of profit as before?

1. 35%
2. 32.50%
3. 30%
4. 30.50%

Correct Ans: B

QSA30.In a 60 liters solution of Spirit and water, the ratio of Spirit and water is 8:7. When 12 liters of solution is drawn off and 8 litres of water is added, then what will be the ratio of Spirit and water in the resulting solution?

1. 16:15
2. 13:10
3. 6:5
4. 16:19

Correct Ans: D

QSA31.If, 'A # B' means 'A is the mother of B' , 'A - B' means 'A is the daughter of B' , 'A @ B' means 'A is the brother of B' , 'A \$ B' means 'A is the father of B' , then how is F related to P in the expression of ' F # T @ G $ H -K # P ' ?

1. Father's sister
2. Mother's sister
3. Father's mother
4. Mother's mother

Correct Ans: C

QSA32.Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Correct Ans: C

QSA33.Select the number from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in
the following series.


428, 419, 435, 410, 446, ?

1. 378
2. 385
3. 397
4. 417

Correct Ans: C

QSA34.Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Correct Ans: D

QSA35.Study the given diagram carefully and answer the following question.
The number in the different section indicate the number of students participating in different event in the annual sports competition. How many students are participating in High Jump and Triple Jump both but NOT in Long Jump ?

1. 8
2. 7
3. 17
4. 12

Correct Ans: B

QSA36.Select the option that is related to the third letter-cluster in the same way as the second letter-cluster is related to the first letter-cluster.


NGS : QLZ :: KJP : ?

1. MQS
2. NOW
3. MPT
4. NPS

Correct Ans: B

QSA37.What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following
equation?


12372 + 122% of 158 – 3 x 1296 ÷ 7 = ?

1. 12300
2. 12000
3. 12500
4. 11800

Correct Ans: B

QSA38.Which two signs need to be interchanged to make the following equation correct?


198 ÷ 9 – 27 + 3 × 14 = 81

1. × and +
2. × and –
3. ÷ and –
4. ÷ and +

Correct Ans: D

QSA39.Six friends Arya, Jivika, Neelam, Ritu, Savita and Vinita are sitting on a straight bench, all facing towards the East. Only three friends are sitting to the right of Ritu. Only three friends are sitting between Jivika and Neelam. Only Savita is sitting between Vinita and Ritu. Who is sitting at the extreme left end?

1. Vinita
2. Arya
3. Jivika
4. Neelam

Correct Ans: B

QSA40.Four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and one is
different. Select the one that is different.

1. Musician
2. Lyricist
3. Singer
4. Choreographer

Correct Ans: D

QSA41.Six identical notebooks of different subjects Physics, Biology, Hindi, Geography, Chemistry and Mathematics are arranged one over the other in the following manner- only three notebooks are kept between Chemistry and Physics notebooks. Only Biology notebook is kept between Mathematics and Geography notebook. Hindi notebook is kept at the bottommost position.

Notebook of which subject is kept at the third position from the top?

1. Mathematics
2. Chemistry
3. Geography
4. Biology

Correct Ans: D

QSA42.A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the
statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.

Six students Kanika, Rupani, Mahip, Tejas, Vaishnavi and Gaurav are sitting on a bench all facing towards the North. Who is sitting at the extreme left end?

Statements:
(I) Only Rupani is sitting between Kanika and Gaurav. Tejas is sitting at the extreme right end.
(II) Mahip is sitting second to the left of Tejas. Kanika is the neighbour of Mahip.

1. (II) alone is sufficient while (I) alone is not sufficient.
2. Either (I) alone or (II) alone is sufficient.
3. Both (I) and (II) together are needed.
4. (I) alone is sufficient while (II) alone is not sufficient.

Correct Ans: C

QSA43.Mohan’s home is 400 m North of Radha’s home. Both started from their respective homes and moved 100 m towards the North. Mohan then turned left and moved 200 m and again turned left and moved 350 m straight and reached his school. Radha then turned right and moved 350 m straight and then turned left and moved 50 m and reached her school. What is the shortest distance between their schools?

1. 450 m
2. 350 m
3. 550 m
4. 650 m

Correct Ans: C

QSA44.Identify the number that does NOT belong to the following series.


12, 18, 26, 38, 48, 62

1. 38
2. 18
3. 26
4. 48

Correct Ans: A

QSA45.Five friends H, I, J, K and L are sitting around a circular table facing away from the centre, but not necessarily in the same order. L is sitting immediately to the right of J. K and H are not immediate neighbours of L. H is sitting second to the right of I. Who is sitting immediately to the left of H?

1. I
2. K
3. J
4. L

Correct Ans: B

QSA46.Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the given series will complete the series.


_B _M_ _PM_ BP_DB _ _

1. D P D B D M P P
2. D P B B D M P M
3. D P D B M M P M
4. D P D B D M P M

Correct Ans: D

QSA47.Select the letter-cluster from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.


SHD, TKI, UNN, VQS, ?

1. XYZ
2. WTX
3. XTW
4. WUX

Correct Ans: B

QSA48.Select the figure from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in the following series.

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Correct Ans: D

QSA49.A question is given, followed by two statements labelled I and II. Identify which of the
statements is/are sufficient to answer the question.


Shakuntala was born in the year 2016. What is her exact date of birth?


Statements:

(I) Shakuntala’s birth date is a prime number greater than 23.

(II) Shakuntala was born in a month having the least number of days.

1. (I) alone is sufficient while (II) alone is not sufficient.
2. Both (I) and (II) together are needed.
3. (II) alone is sufficient while (I) alone is not sufficient.
4. Either (I) alone or (II) alone is sufficient.

Correct Ans: B

QSA50.If ‘A + B’ means ‘A is the mother of B’, ‘A – B’ means ‘A is the father of B’, ‘A × B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’, ‘A & B’ means ‘A is the son of B’, then how is M related to K in the expression ‘ N − M + T × L & G & K ’ ?

1. Brother’s wife
2. Son’s wife
3. Son’s daughter
4. Daughter

Correct Ans: B

QEE1.A phasor is a complex number that represents ________ of a sinusoid.

1. Only phase
2. Only frequency
3. Only amplitude
4. The amplitude and phase

Correct Ans: D

QEE2.As per ISI, in a building, the illumination level required for kitchen is:

1. 200 lux
2. 100 lux
3. 50 lux
4. 150 lux

Correct Ans: A

QEE3.In a circuit, voltage and current are given by \(V=10(\sin \omega t+30^\circ\)) and \(I=10 (\sin \omega t-30^\circ\)). Calculate the power consumed in this circuit:

1. 100 W
2. 50 W
3. 15 W
4. 25 W

Correct Ans: D

QEE4.All synchronous generators are invariably _________.

1. 3-phase star connected machines
2. 1-phase delta connected machines
3. 3-phase delta connected machines
4. 1-phase star connected machines

Correct Ans: A

QEE5.A 460 V series motor runs at 500 rpm taking a current of 40 A. Calculate the percentage change in torque if the load is changed so that the motor takes 30 A.

1. 31.25%
2. 56.25%
3. 43.75%
4. 68.75%

Correct Ans: C

QEE6.The steady-state error due to unit step input to a type-1 system is:

1. \(1/ (1 + K_p)\)
2. Zero
3. \(1/K_p\)
4. Infinity

Correct Ans: B

QEE7.Which of the following voltage level is a valid secondary voltage distribution system?

1. 33 kV /11 kV
2. 6.6 kV / 3.3 kV
3. 415 V /240 V
4. 3.3 kV / 415 V

Correct Ans: C

QEE8.A travelling wave 400/1/50 means crest value of ___________.

1. 400 V with rise time of 1/50 s
2. 400 kV with rise time 1 s and fall time 50 s
3. 400 kV with rise time \(1\:\mu s\) and fall time \(50\:\mu s\)
4. 400 MV with rise time \(1\:\mu s\) and fall time \(50\:\mu s\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE9.If \(v(t) = 12\cos(50t+10^\circ)\) is the expression of a sinusoidal voltage, find the maximum amplitude.

1. 24
2. 12
3. 50
4. 10

Correct Ans: B

QEE10._________ conductors are most suitable for indoor and outdoor wires and cables.

1. Aluminium
2. Hard drawn copper
3. Annealed copper
4. Silver

Correct Ans: C

QEE11.Which one of the following matrices reveals the topology of the power system network?

1. Primitive impedance matrix
2. Bus impedance matrix
3. Primitive admittance matrix
4. Bus incidence matrix

Correct Ans: D

QEE12.Which of the following is not correct for an open loop control system?

1. Easy to maintain
2. Has a feedback element
3. Simple construction
4. Less expensive

Correct Ans: B

QEE13.According to the latest practice, the land required for 132 kV substation is:

1. 25 acres
2. 10 acres
3. 50 acres
4. 5 acres

Correct Ans: B

QEE14.Peak value of fundamental component of mmf produced by one N-turn coil carrying 1 ampere current is:

1. (4/π)*N
2. (1/2π)*N
3. (1/π)*N
4. (2/π)*N

Correct Ans: D

QEE15.The term control system means:

1. Any system
2. A system with a provision for controlling the response
3. A system having controlled input
4. A system having zero error

Correct Ans: B

QEE16.Find the median if the given data set is:

3, 3, 7, 8, 12, 13, 16, 19

1. 13
2. 8
3. 10
4. 12

Correct Ans: C

QEE17.The ripple factor of a half-wave rectifier is:

1. 0.48
2. 2
3. 2.25
4. 1.21

Correct Ans: D

QEE18.Which of the following application of electrolysis is not covered under electro-deposition?

1. Electro-polishing
2. Electro-facing
3. Electroplating
4. Electroforming

Correct Ans: A

QEE19.The flowmeter which cannot measure bidirectional flow is:

1. Ultrasonic flowmeter
2. Turbine flowmeter
3. Electromagnetic flowmeter
4. Coriolis mass flowmeter

Correct Ans: B

QEE20.The effect of increase of temperature on overhead lines is to

1. Decrease the length but to increase the stress.
2. Decrease the stress but to increase the length.
3. Decrease the stress and length.
4. Increase the stress and length

Correct Ans: B

QEE21.Open loop transfer function of a closed loop control system is defined as:

1. Actuating signal / Feedback signal
2. Output / Feedback signal
3. Output / Actuating signal
4. Feedback signal / Actuating signal

Correct Ans: D

QEE22.A standard conductor cable is expressed as 3/0.029. The number of strands in the cable is:

1. 6
2. 9
3. 3
4. 7

Correct Ans: C

QEE23.The outermost orbit of a Germanium atom has ________ electrons.

1. 16
2. 4
3. 18
4. 8

Correct Ans: B

QEE24.What will be the Magnetomotive force in a coil having 250 turns and carrying a current of 10A ?

1. 25000 AT
2. 25 AT
3. 250 AT
4. 2500 AT

Correct Ans: D

QEE25.Which of the following factor is always greater than unity?

1. Coincidence factor
2. Load factor
3. Use factor
4. Diversity factor

Correct Ans: D

QEE26.In case of a copper atom, atomic weight is 64 and atomic number is 29. What will be the
number of neutrons in a copper atom?

1. 35
2. 64
3. 93
4. 29

Correct Ans: A

QEE27.What should be the chording angle for eliminating 5th harmonic from the phase e.m.f.
generated in the phase of a 3-phase alternator?

1. 1/5 × full-pitch
2. 2/5 × full-pitch
3. 3/5 × full-pitch
4. 5 × full-pitch

Correct Ans: A

QEE28.If the input frequency of a bridge rectifier is 100 Hz, then the output frequency will be:

1. 50 Hz
2. 100 Hz
3. 400 Hz
4. 200 Hz

Correct Ans: D

QEE29.The frequency of a sinusoidal signal is 50 Hz. What will be the period of the signal?

1. 20 ms
2. 30 ms
3. 50 ms
4. 10 ms

Correct Ans: A

QEE30.Which of the following part is not located inside the cathode ray tube of the CRO?

1. Electron gun
2. Time base generator
3. Vertical deflection plates
4. Horizontal deflection plates

Correct Ans: B

QEE31.The coefficient of reflection for a short circuited line is

1. 1
2. 0
3. -1
4. infinity

Correct Ans: C

QEE32.Which of the following is not a valid advantage of bundle conductor?

1. Reduced reactance
2. Reduced voltage gradient
3. Reduced corona loss
4. Increased reactance

Correct Ans: D

QEE33.In USA, the power supply frequency is:

1. 60 Hz
2. 120 Hz
3. 50 Hz
4. 25 Hz

Correct Ans: A

QEE34.A Norton circuit with 10 A current source and \(15\:\Omega\) resistance is connected across a resistance of \(5\:\Omega\). The current in \(5\:\Omega\) resistance will be:

1. 5 A
2. 2.5 A
3. 7.5 A
4. 10 A

Correct Ans: C

QEE35.The cross sectional area of Bourdon tube is:

1. Circular
2. Triangular
3. Rectangular
4. Elliptical

Correct Ans: D

QEE36.Which of the following statement is CORRECT with reference to the process of Ionization?

1. Valence electron is removed from the atom.
2. Proton is added in to the nucleus.
3. Neutron is added in to the nucleus.
4. Proton is removed from the atom.

Correct Ans: A

QEE37.What will be the current in \(80\:\Omega\) resistor if it is connected to a supply of 220 V?

1. 2.25 A
2. 2.75 A
3. 2.50 A
4. 1.75 A

Correct Ans: B

QEE38.In a small flat there are 5 light points and 2 fan points. How many sub-circuits are required
for the flat?

1. 4
2. 2
3. 3
4. 1

Correct Ans: D

QEE39.For a specific wiring in a building, the full load current is 10 A. what will be the maximum
permissible leakage current?

1. 0.008 A
2. 0.002 A
3. 0.005 A
4. 0.003 A

Correct Ans: B

QEE40.Which of the following is most commonly used insulator material for overhead lines?

1. Wood
2. Steatite
3. Glass
4. Porcelain

Correct Ans: D

QEE41.Two coils having self-inductance of 10 H and 15 H are connected in series aiding
connection. Find total inductance of the series connection, if the mutual inductance
between the coils is 2.5 H.

1. 22.5 H
2. 27.5 H
3. 30 H
4. 25 H

Correct Ans: C

QEE42.The voltage of a particular bus can be controlled by controlling the ________.

1. Reactive power of the bus
2. Active power of the bus
3. Phase angle
4. Phase angle and reactive power

Correct Ans: A

QEE43.Street lighting is an example of ___________.

1. Irrigation load
2. Traction load
3. Municipal load
4. Residential load

Correct Ans: C

QEE44.For a specific wiring in a building, the full load current is 7.5 A. what will be the permissible
insulation resistance to earth for a 240 V system of supply?

1. \(0.20\:M \Omega\)
2. \(0.18\:M \Omega\)
3. \(0.16\:M \Omega\)
4. \(0.22\:M \Omega\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE45.The SI unit of permeability is:

1. Tesla
2. Henry−meter
3. Ampere turns
4. Henry/meter

Correct Ans: D

QEE46.In case of a sinusoidal current, the unit of the amplitude is:

1. Radians/second
2. Hertz
3. Radians
4. Amperes

Correct Ans: D

QEE47.Lamp efficiency is expressed in:

1. Lumens−meter
2. Lumens/ meter
3. Lux
4. Lumens/watt

Correct Ans: D

QEE48.For a transistor connected in common base connection, collector current is 0.95 mA and base current is 0.05 mA. Find the value of \(\alpha\):

1. 1.00
2. 0.5
3. 0.95
4. 0.05

Correct Ans: C

QEE49.In a DC motor, the mechanical output power actually comes from:

1. Field system
2. Back e.m.f.
3. Airgap flux
4. Electrical input power

Correct Ans: D

QEE50.In human body temperature control system, the command input is:

1. Temperature of the surroundings
2. Initial temperature of the body
3. Desired skin temperature
4. Actual skin temperature

Correct Ans: C

QEE51.For determination of load of an installation, if not specified, the rating assumed for power
socket outlet is __________.

1. 600 W
2. 2000 W
3. 500 W
4. 1000 W

Correct Ans: D

QEE52.According to voltage, the cables for operating voltage up to 33000 V are called _________.

1. Low voltage cables
2. High voltage cables
3. Super-tension cables
4. Extra high tension cables

Correct Ans: C

QEE53.If the effect of earth is taken into account, then the capacitance of line to ground

1. increases
2. decreases
3. remains unaltered
4. becomes infinite

Correct Ans: A

QEE54.The SI derived unit for conductance is:

1. Siemens
2. Ohm-metre
3. Ohm
4. Volts

Correct Ans: A

QEE55.Determine the ratio of weights of copper in an auto transformer and a two winding
transformer if the transformation ratio is 3.

1. 1/4
2. 1/3
3. 1/6
4. 2/3

Correct Ans: D

QEE56.If the collector current changes from 2 mA to 3 mA in a transistor when collector-emitter
voltage is increased from 2 V to 10 V. what is the output resistance?

1. 5 kΩ
2. 10 kΩ
3. 3.33 kΩ
4. 8 kΩ

Correct Ans: D

QEE57.Which one of the following is not a characteristic of magnetic flux?

1. Magnetic flux lines does not have physical existence.
2. Each line of magnetic flux is a closed loop by itself.
3. Magnetic flux lines having opposite direction repel each other.
4. Magnetic flux lines having opposite direction attract each other.

Correct Ans: C

QEE58.Two coils having self-inductance of 5 H and 4 H respectively, are magnetically coupled. Find
the coefficient of coupling if the mutual inductance between the coils is 2.5 H.

1. 0.28
2. 0.84
3. 0.96
4. 0.56

Correct Ans: D

QEE59.A sinusoidal current has a maximum value of 10 A. If the signal is half rectified, its rms
value will be:

1. 10 A
2. 7.07 A
3. 5 A
4. 14.14 A

Correct Ans: C

QEE60.The impulse response of an R-L circuit is:

1. Step function
2. Rising exponential function
3. Decaying exponential function
4. Parabolic function

Correct Ans: C

QEE61.Reciprocity theorem cannot be applied to the circuits having ______.

1. Linear elements
2. Dependent sources
3. Bilateral elements
4. Passive elements

Correct Ans: B

QEE62.With reference to the error analysis of the control systems, the term 'acceleration error
constant' stands for:

1. Ramp error constant
2. Step error constant
3. Parabolic error constant
4. Position error constant

Correct Ans: C

QEE63.Which of the following defect is most likely to cause a single-phase induction motor to run slower than normal?

1. Improper fuses
2. Shorted running winding
3. Open starting winding
4. Worn bearings

Correct Ans: D

QEE64.Which one of the following is a common application of a crystal diode?

1. A voltage regulator
2. An amplifier
3. A rectifier
4. An Oscillator

Correct Ans: C

QEE65.The chording angle for eliminating fifth harmonic should be:

1. \(35^\circ\)
2. \(45^\circ\)
3. \(36^\circ\)
4. \(40^\circ\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE66.D-type cartridge fuses have ratings from ___________.

1. 15 A to 75 A
2. 1 A to 100 A
3. 2 A to 63 A
4. 1 A to 5 A

Correct Ans: C

QEE67.As per IE Rules, the terminal voltage must be within the ________ range, if the nominal
voltage is 240 V.

1. 225 V to 255 V
2. 228 V to 252 V
3. 220 V to 260 V
4. 215 V to 265 V

Correct Ans: B

QEE68.A 3-phase induction motor is wound for 4 poles and is supplied from 50 Hz supply.
Calculate the rotor speed if the slip is 4%.

1. 1600 rpm
2. 1500 rpm
3. 1560 rpm
4. 1440 rpm

Correct Ans: D

QEE69.If two coils are magnetically coupled and if the entire flux produced by one coil is linked
with another coil, the coefficient of coupling k will be:

1. 0.75
2. 0
3. 0.5
4. 1

Correct Ans: D

QEE70.A 6-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase induction motor has a full load speed of 950 rpm. What will be the speed at half-load?

1. 1000 rpm
2. 500 rpm
3. 475 rpm
4. 975 rpm

Correct Ans: D

QEE71.The power factor of a spot welding machine is expected to be around:

1. unity
2. 0.8 lagging
3. 0.8 leading
4. 0.3 to 0.5 lagging

Correct Ans: D

QEE72.Which of the following statement is TRUE in case of a HVDC system?

1. neither charging current nor skin effect
2. charging current as well as skin effect
3. charging current but no skin effect
4. no charging current but skin effect

Correct Ans: A

QEE73.Demand factor is defined as:

1. Ratio of connected load to maximum demand
2. The sum of individual maximum demands
3. Ratio of average load to maximum demand
4. Ratio of maximum demand to connected load

Correct Ans: D

QEE74.In a non-magnetic material, the graph of flux density (B) versus filed strength (H) is:

1. A straight horizontal line parallel to the X-axis
2. A straight line passing through the origin
3. An exponentially rising curve
4. An exponentially falling curve

Correct Ans: B

QEE75.Weber is the unit of _______.

1. Reluctance
2. Magnetomotive force
3. Magnetic flux density
4. Magnetic flux

Correct Ans: D

QEE76.Impulse ratios of insulators and lightning arresters should be

1. both low.
2. high and low respectively.
3. low and high respectively.
4. both high.

Correct Ans: B

QEE77.A lighting discharge between clouds during a thunder storm is of 30 C. The time of the discharge is 10 msec. Determine the average lighting current:

1. 2 kA
2. 3 kA
3. 4 kA
4. 1 kA

Correct Ans: B

QEE78.Resistance switching is normally resorted in which of the following type of circuit breaker?

1. Controlled break oil circuit breakers
2. Air blast circuit breakers
3. Bulk oil circuit breakers
4. Minimum oil circuit breakers

Correct Ans: B

QEE79.Considering the principle of duality, which of the following pair is INVALID dual pair?

1. Resistance and Conductance
2. Impedance and Reactance
3. Voltage and Current
4. Inductance and Capacitance

Correct Ans: B

QEE80.What will be the phase difference between the two sinusoidal voltages \(V_1= -10 \cos(\omega t + 50^\circ)\) and \(V_2= 12 \sin(\omega t - 10^\circ)\) ?

1. \(30^\circ\)
2. \(90^\circ\)
3. \(120^\circ\)
4. \(60^\circ\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE81.Which of the following connections is best suited for 3-phase, 4-wire service?

1. Delta-Delta
2. Star-Star
3. Delta-Star
4. Star-Delta

Correct Ans: C

QEE82.Which of the following is not a valid method of neutral grounding?

1. Solid grounding
2. Reactance grounding
3. Voltage transformer ground
4. Pulse transformer grounding

Correct Ans: D

QEE83.A loop which does not contain any other loop within it is called _________.

1. Mesh
2. Super node
3. Node
4. Port

Correct Ans: A

QEE84.Four \(100\:\Omega\) resistor are connected in parallel. The equivalent resistance of the parallel connection is:

1. \(400\:\Omega\)
2. \(25\:\Omega\)
3. \(100\:\Omega\)
4. \(50\:\Omega\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE85.The color of sodium vapor discharge lamp is:

1. Yellow
2. Red
3. Green
4. Pink

Correct Ans: A

QEE86.The only promising solution of feeding the field winding of large turbogenerators (above 500 MW) is:

1. Static excitation system
2. Brushless excitation system
3. Only thyristor bridge
4. DC exciters

Correct Ans: B

QEE87.A fractional pitch winding cannot be used to reduce:

1. Size of the machine
2. Harmonics in the generated e.m.f.
3. Amount of copper in the winding
4. Cost of the machine

Correct Ans: A

QEE88.If δ is the loss angle of the cable then its power factor is

1. sin δ
2. Power factor is independent of δ
3. cos δ
4. tan δ

Correct Ans: A

QEE89.The primary standard for calibrating vacuum is:

1. McLeod gauge
2. Dead weight tester
3. Thermocouple gauge
4. Knudsen gauge

Correct Ans: A

QEE90.The net charge on a neutral atom of an element will be _______.

1. Positive
2. Negative
3. Infinite
4. Zero

Correct Ans: D

QEE91.Which of the following is a characteristic of a reverse biased p-n junction?

1. Very narrow depletion region
2. Large current flow
3. Almost no current
4. Very low resistance

Correct Ans: C

QEE92.A generator develops 200 V and has an internal resistance of \(100\:\Omega\). Find the power delivered to the load resistance of \(300\:\Omega\).

1. 75 W
2. 25 W
3. 100 W
4. 50 W

Correct Ans: A

QEE93.Calculate \(G{eq}\) in the following circuit:

1. 8 S
2. 4 S
3. 6 S
4. 10 S

Correct Ans: B

QEE94.Steel rails are welded by:

1. Argon arc welding
2. Gas welding
3. Resistance welding
4. Thermit welding

Correct Ans: D

QEE95.A sinusoidal is expressed as \(5 \sin(4\pi t -60^\circ)\). Find the frequency.

1. 2 Hz
2. 50 Hz
3. 60 Hz
4. 20 Hz

Correct Ans: A

QEE96.Which of the following property is not desirable for the insulating material used in electrical cables?

1. Non-inflammability
2. Low resistivity
3. High flexibility
4. High dielectric strength

Correct Ans: B

QEE97.Which type of earthing is most common and best system of earthing?

1. Rod earthing
2. Plate earthing
3. Wire earthing
4. Pipe earthing

Correct Ans: D

QEE98.In a signal flow graph representation, a loop consisting of a single branch and a single node is known as:

1. Non-touching loop
2. Self-loop
3. Touching loop
4. Mixed loop

Correct Ans: B

QEE99.What will be the period of the sinusoid, \(v(t)=12 \cos(50 t +30^\circ)\)?

1. 0.1257 s
2. 1.257 s
3. 12.57 s
4. 50 s

Correct Ans: A

QEE100.Two materials A and B have resistance temperature coefficients 0.004 and 0.0004 per \(^\circ C \) respectively at a given temperature. In what proportion should A and B be joined in series to produce a circuit having a temperature coefficient of 0.001.

1. 1 : 5
2. 1 : 2
3. 1 : 4
4. 1 : 3

Correct Ans: A

QEE101.A string insulator has 4 units. The voltage across the bottom-most unit is 33.33% of the total voltage. Find the string efficiency.

1. 1. 25%
2. 33.33%
3. 66.67%
4. 75%

Correct Ans: D

QEE102.The radius of a sphere is given as \(40.0 \pm 0.5 \: mm\). The estimated error in its mass is:

1. \(\pm 0.125\)%
2. \(\pm 1.25\)%
3. \(\pm 3.75\)%
4. \(\pm 12.5\)%

Correct Ans: C

QEE103.A DC voltage source has a source resistance variable from \(5\:\Omega\) to \(25\:\Omega\) and it is connected to a load of \(10\:\Omega\). For maximum power transfer, the source resistance should be:

1. \(5\:\Omega\)
2. \(10\:\Omega\)
3. \(15\:\Omega\)
4. \(20\:\Omega\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE104.The largest possible value of solid angle is _______.

1. \(\pi\)
2. \(2 \pi\)
3. \(3 \pi\)
4. \(4 \pi\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE105.A resistance measurement reading is \(68.0\:\Omega\). The number of significant figures in the reading is:

1. 2
2. 1
3. 3
4. 4

Correct Ans: C

QEE106.A stepper motor has a step angle of \(2.5^\circ\). Calculate the number of steps required for the shaft to Make 25 revolutions.

1. 1800
2. 3600
3. 2700
4. 900

Correct Ans: B

QEE107.In a star connected resistive network, each resistor has a value of \(100\:\Omega\). If the star to delta conversion is performed, each resistor in delta network will be:

1. \(200\:\Omega\)
2. \(150\:\Omega\)
3. \(250\:\Omega\)
4. \(300\:\Omega\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE108.The e.m.f. generated in an alternator is independent of:

1. Speed
2. Type of alternator
3. Series turns per phase
4. Coil span

Correct Ans: B

QEE109.For a sinusoidal wave, the value of the Crest factor is:

1. 2.82
2. 1.414
3. 0.707
4. 1.11

Correct Ans: B

QEE110.Which of the following is a disadvantage of synchronous motor over induction motor for power requirements from 35 kW up to about 2500 kW?

1. Cost
2. Size
3. Weight
4. Requirement of DC supply for field

Correct Ans: D

QEE111.Which of the following is not a part of Brushless Excitation scheme used for synchronous machines?

1. Pilot exciter
2. Main exciter
3. Brushes
4. 3-phase alternator

Correct Ans: C

QEE112.A 50 Hz overhead line has line to earth capacitance of \(1\:\mu F\). It is decided to use an earth fault neutralizer. Determine the reactance to neutralize the capacitance of entire length of the line.

1. 1061 \(\Omega\)
2. 2000 \(\Omega\)
3. 1261 \(\Omega\)
4. 1000 \(\Omega\)

Correct Ans: A

QEE113.For a transistor \(\beta=45\) and voltage drop across \(1\:k \Omega\) resistor, which is connected in the collector circuit is 1 volt. Find base current for CE configuration.

1. 22 mA
2. 0.022 mA
3. 0.22 mA
4. 2.2 mA

Correct Ans: B

QEE114.Phase modifier is normally installed in ________.

1. Short transmission lines
2. Medium transmission lines
3. Long transmission lines
4. All transmission lines

Correct Ans: C

QEE115.To construct the dual of a four-mesh network how many nodes are required?

1. 4
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5

Correct Ans: D

QEE116.In SI system, the base unit for the measurement of Luminous intensity is:

1. Lumen
2. Candela
3. Tesla
4. Kelvin

Correct Ans: B

QEE117.Which of the following alternatives will be cheaper?

1. Ten motors of 10 HP each
2. Five motors of 20 HP each
3. A 100 HP A.C. three phase motor
4. Four motors of 25 HP each

Correct Ans: C

QEE118.Which test is used to determine the efficiency of a traction motor?

1. Field's test
2. Hopkinson's test
3. Retardation test
4. Swinburne's test

Correct Ans: A

QEE119.As per IS 3043-1966, pipe type earth electrode made up of steel should not be smaller than _________ internal diameter.

1. 24 mm
2. 30 mm
3. 16 mm
4. 38 mm

Correct Ans: D

QEE120.The minimum size of aluminium cable generally used for light and fan sub-circuits is 1/1.40
mm having current capacity of _________.

1. 20 A
2. 25 A
3. 10 A
4. 15 A

Correct Ans: C

QRE1.RAJINDER is coded as 1-2-3-4-5-6-7-8 and RAVINDER is coded as 1-2-9-4-5-6-7-8, than


How will you code VIJENDER?

1. 9-4-1-7-5-6-7-8
2. 9-4-1-7-5-3-7-8
3. 9-4-3-7-5-1-7-8
4. 9-4-3-7-5-6-7-8

Correct Ans: D

QRE2.According to the first pattern of numbers find the value of D in second similar pattern.

15, 31, 11, 23, 5, 11

21, 43, A, B, C, D, E

1. 19
2. 21
3. 23
4. 15

Correct Ans: C

QRE3.What will be next figure in the series.:

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Correct Ans: C

QRE4.Premises :

1. No Dogs are Grey
2. All Elephants are Grey

From the above premises, which one of the following conclusions is true?

1. No conclusion can be drawn
2. No Elephants are Dogs
3. Some Elephants are not Dogs
4. Some Dogs are not Elephants

Correct Ans: B

QRE5.Higher education enrolment in Ravi college in the past four year, in which year the percentage of female candidate as of total candidate is 2nd largest among all the four years present.

1. 1990
2. 2000
3. 2010
4. 2019

Correct Ans: C

QRE6.What will be next in the series:

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Correct Ans: B

QRE7.A1B1, I3J9, U5V21,…………, E2F5 find the missing link in the given pattern.

1. 05P15
2. O4P15
3. O9P14
4. O6P16

Correct Ans: B

QRE8.In a row of girls, if Seeta who is 7th from the left and Leena who is 9th from the right
interchange their seats, Seeta becomes 11th from the left. How many girls are there in the row?

1. 19
2. 16
3. 17
4. 21

Correct Ans: A

QRE9.16, 17, 21, 30, 46, 71,……, find the NEXT number in the series.

1. 97
2. 104
3. 91
4. 107

Correct Ans: D

QRE10.In all the four zones of India, the sales of scooters ( in percentage ) in four categories are as given in chart. If the sale under category 1 is 4593 and under category 3 is 3297, then what percent east zone of category 1 is of west zone of category 3.

1. 91.72%
2. 119.02%
3. 109.02%
4. 99.72%

Correct Ans: C

QRE11.If COPY = 2-4-15-24 and PEN = 15-2-13 then SCALE = ?

1. 19-2-1-11-4
2. 18-2-1-11-2
3. 19-1-2-11-4
4. 18-2-1-11-4

Correct Ans: B

QRE12.Two statements are given under followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to consider these statements to be true, even if they seem at variance from commonly known facts.

Decide which of the given conclusions logically follow/s from the given statement.


Statements:

1. All pens are schools.

2. All schools are scales .


Conclusions:

I. All pens are scales.

II. Some schools are not pens.

1. Neither conclusion I nor II follows
2. Only conclusion I follows
3. Either conclusion I or II follows
4. Only conclusion II follows

Correct Ans: B

QRE13.The question below consists of a question followed by two statements labeled as 1 and 2.

You have to decide whether these statements are sufficient to answer the question.


Question: Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, U are sitting in a row facing north. P and U are sitting at two extreme ends of the row. Q is to the immediate right of P and S is 2nd left of U. What is the position of T with respect to P?


1. T is to the right of P.

2. T is to the left of R.

1. If you can get the answer from 1 and 2 together.
2. If statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement 1 alone is not
   sufficient to answer
3. If statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement 2 alone is not
   sufficient to answer
4. If you cannot get the answer from 1 and 2 together, still more data is required

Correct Ans: B

QRE14.The question below consists of a question followed by two statements labeled as 1 and 2.

You have to decide whether these statements are sufficient to answer the question.


Question: What is the value of \(X+Y\)?


Statements:

1. \(X - 2Y = 5\)

2. \(X^2 – 25 = 4XY- 4Y^2\)

1. If statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement 1 alone is not
   sufficient to answer
2. If you can get the answer from 1 and 2 together
3. If you cannot get the answer from 1 and 2 together, still more data is required
4. If statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question but statement 2 alone is not sufficient to answer

Correct Ans: C

QRE15.Raj starts from his office facing west and walks 100 mt. straight takes a right turn and
walks 100 mt. Further, he takes a left turn and walks 50 mt. In which direction is Raj now from the starting point.

1. North
2. North-West
3. South-West
4. North-East

Correct Ans: B

QGE1.From the options given below choose the proper suitable Articles and fill in the blanks.

We went to ______ school by ______ bike.

1. a, an
2. an, the
3. the, an
4. the, the

Correct Ans: D

QGE2.Choose an appropriate answer from the options given below.

The word genuine most likely means?

1. \(honest\)
2. \(true\)
3. \(appropriate\)
4. \(authentic\)

Correct Ans: D

QGE3.Choose an appropriate answer from the options given below.

The festival was bright and colourful, but Danish's clothes were PALLID and lacked vibrancy.

What is the definition of PALLID?

1. unaware
2. dull
3. hostile
4. dry

Correct Ans: B

QGE4.Choose an appropriate answer from the options given below.

What is an exaggerated fear of something called?

1. neur
2. scope
3. strength
4. phobia

Correct Ans: D

QGE5.From the options given below choose the proper suitable Articles and fill in the blanks.

______ teacher and ______ guardian of the lad were discussing his case.

1. the, a
2. a, a
3. the, the
4. a, the

Correct Ans: C

QGE6.From the options given below choose the proper suitable prepositions and fill in the blanks.

It is difficult to agree _______ those critics who ascribe the work of shakespeare _____ Bacon.

1. of, with
2. with, to
3. over, to
4. to, on

Correct Ans: B

QGE7.From the options given below choose the proper suitable preposition and fill in the blank.

America has raised a tariff wall to protect home industries ______ foreign.

1. from
2. on
3. for
4. off

Correct Ans: A

QGE8.From the options given below choose the proper suitable Article and fill in the blank.

I have come without ______ umbrella.

1. an
2. not required
3. a
4. the

Correct Ans: A

QGE9.Comprehension :
Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Stephen Irwin was a famous Australian television personality, wildlife expert, and conservationist. Born on 22 February 1962 in Essendon, Australia, he grew up in the wild life park of his parents. There he mastered the technique of catching and managing crocodiles. He worked on the world famous television series, The Crocodile Hunter; in fact, he got his pseudonym from the title of the series. Even though he did not have any formal education or degree in his field, he was acclaimed as a wildlife expert the world over. He died in 2006 after being pierced by a stingray off Australia's Great Barrier Reef.

Where did he get his degree from?

1. Great Barrier Reef
2. Essendon, Australia
3. he had no formal degree
4. overseas

Correct Ans: C

QGE10.Comprehension :
Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Stephen Irwin was a famous Australian television personality, wildlife expert, and conservationist. Born on 22 February 1962 in Essendon, Australia, he grew up in the wild life park of his parents. There he mastered the technique of catching and managing crocodiles. He worked on the world famous television series, The Crocodile Hunter; in fact, he got his pseudonym from the title of the series. Even though he did not have any formal education or degree in his field, he was acclaimed as a wildlife expert the world over. He died in 2006 after being pierced by a stingray off Australia's Great Barrier Reef.

Who was Stephen Irwin?

1. a crocodile lover
2. conservationist
3. famous television actor
4. wildlife analyst

Correct Ans: B

QGE11.Comprehension :
Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Stephen Irwin was a famous Australian television personality, wildlife expert, and conservationist. Born on 22 February 1962 in Essendon, Australia, he grew up in the wild life park of his parents. There he mastered the technique of catching and managing crocodiles. He worked on the world famous television series, The Crocodile Hunter; in fact, he got his pseudonym from the title of the series. Even though he did not have any formal education or degree in his field, he was acclaimed as a wildlife expert the world over. He died in 2006 after being pierced by a stingray off Australia's Great Barrier Reef.

What was the pseudonym he got?

1. television personality
2. the crocodile hunter
3. conservationist
4. wildlife expert

Correct Ans: B

QGE12.Parts of a sentence are given in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the right order to form a meaningful sentence.


A : very first time

B : to Agra to see the

C : we went

D : Taj Mahal for the

1. DCAB
2. ABCD
3. CDBA
4. CBDA

Correct Ans: D

QGE13.Parts of a sentence are given in jumbled order. Arrange the parts in the right order to form a
meaningful sentence.


A : important meeting with

B : other monitors and

C : you have to attend

D : the teachers after school

E : as the monitor of your class.

1. EACDB
2. ABDEC
3. CABED
4. ECABD

Correct Ans: D

QGE14.Choose the correct synonym for the following word from the following given options.


\(\mathbf{DANK}\)

1. arid
2. dry
3. clammy
4. parched

Correct Ans: C

QGE15.Choose the correct synonym for the following word from the following given options.


\(\mathbf{CANDID}\)

1. biased
2. sincere
3. devious
4. tactful

Correct Ans: B

QQA1.Two fair dice are thrown once and the numbers appearing on their tops are multiplied. What is the probability that the product is a prime number or it is divisible by 10?

1. \(\frac{1}{6}\)
2. \(\frac{11}{36}\)
3. \(\frac{1}{3}\)
4. \(\frac{5}{18}\)

Correct Ans: C

QQA2.To complete a certain work, A and B together take 15 days; B and C together take 12 days, and C and A together take 10 days. All the three worked together for 6 days, then B and C left. A alone will complete the remaining work in:

1. \(6\) DAYS
2. \(8\frac{1}{2}\) DAYS
3. \(9\) DAYS
4. \(7\frac{1}{2}\) DAYS

Correct Ans: A

QQA3.A person bought goods for Rs. 8000. He sells 40% of the goods at 5% loss and 20% of the
remaining at 10% gain. At what percent profit must he sell the remaining goods so as to
gain 15% on the whole transaction? (nearest to an integer)

1. 33
2. 35
3. 30
4. 28

Correct Ans: A

QQA4.A number is chosen at random from 3-digit positive integers. What is the probability that the number chosen is a multiple of 5?

1. \(\frac{2}{9}\)
2. \(\frac{1}{5}\)
3. \(\frac{17}{90}\)
4. \(\frac{7}{36}\)

Correct Ans: B

QQA5.Amita decides to donate 16% of her monthly income to a charitable trust. On the day of
donation, she changes her decision and donates a sum of Rs. 3600, which is equal to 120% of what she decided to donate earlier. What is her monthly income (in Rs.)?

1. 18800
2. 18600
3. 18750
4. 18540

Correct Ans: C

QQA6.Pipes A and B can fill a tank in 6 hours and 8 hours, respectively while pipe C alone can
empty the full tank in 12 hours. A and B are opened together for 2 hours and then C is also opened. The total time (in hours) taken to fill the tank completely is:

1. 5
2. 7
3. 6
4. 4

Correct Ans: D

QQA7.Out of 75 students in a class, 60% are boys and rest are girls. The average score of girls in a test is 40% more than that of boys. If the average score of all the students in the class is 58, then what is the average score of girls?

1. 67.2
2. 63.8
3. 70
4. 50

Correct Ans: C

QQA8.A purse contains coins of Rs. 1, Rs. 2 and Rs. 5 only in the ratio 12 : 5 : 3. If the total amount in the purse is Rs. 1813, then the number of Rs. 2 coins is:

1. Rs. 264
2. Rs. 294
3. Rs. 245
4. Rs. 280

Correct Ans: C

QQA9.A boat can go 7.2 km downstream and 3.2 km upstream in 2 hours. It can also go 3 km
downstream and 1.2 km upstream in 48 minutes. In how much time (in hours) will it cover a distance of 43.2 km downstream?

1. 7.6
2. 7.2
3. 8.2
4. 6.8

Correct Ans: B

QQA10.‘A’ sold an article to ‘B’ at 20% profit and ‘B’ sold it to ‘C’ at a loss of 35%. ‘C’ sold the article to ‘D’ at 40% profit. If ‘D’ bought it for Rs. 218.40, then what is the difference (in Rs.) between the profits of ‘A’ and ‘C’?

1. \(23.60\)
2. \(22.40\)
3. \(25.80\)
4. \(24.20\)

Correct Ans: B

QQA11.The incomes of X and Y are in the ratio 3:5 and the ratio of their savings is 11:20. If the income of X is equal to the savings of Y, then the ratio of the expenditures of X and Y is:

1. 9:20
2. 27:40
3. 2:3
4. 3:5

Correct Ans: B

QQA12.A shopkeeper allows \(15 \frac{5}{8}\) % discount on the marked price of an article. What price should he mark on the article costing Rs. 238.50 so that he makes a profit of 35% ?

1. Rs.381.60
2. Rs.392.80
3. Rs.368.40
4. Rs.396.50

Correct Ans: A

QQA13.A sum of Rs. Χ is divided between A,B,C and D such that (A's share) : (B' s share) = (B' s share) : (C' s share) = (C' s share) : (D' s share) = 2:3. If the difference between the shares of B and D is Rs. 2424, then the value of X is:

1. 10908
2. 10504
3. 9696
4. 12120

Correct Ans: B

QQA14.Five years ago, the ratio of ages of A and B was 4 : 5. Fifteen years from now, the ratio of their ages will be 8 : 9. The ratio of their present ages is:

1. 5:6
2. 6:7
3. 7:8
4. 2:3

Correct Ans: A

QQA15.An unbiased coin is tossed three times. What is the probability of getting at least two heads?

1. \(\frac{1}{4}\)
2. \(\frac{5}{8}\)
3. \(\frac{3}{4}\)
4. \(\frac{1}{2}\)

Correct Ans: D

QQA16.A train of length 318 m crosses a bridge of length 882 m in 90 seconds. How much time will it take to cover a distance of 128 km with the same speed?

1. 2 hours 30 minutes
2. 2 hours 40 minutes
3. 3 hours 40 minutes
4. 3 hours 20 minutes

Correct Ans: B

QQA17.Sujatha marks an article 40% above the cost price. She sells it offering two successive discounts of 20% and 25% on the marked price and she suffers a loss of Rs. 83.20. If she sells the article at 75% of the marked price, (without offering any discount), then her profit is:

1. Rs. 42
2. Rs. 32
3. Rs. 26
4. Rs. 36

Correct Ans: C

QQA18.Raghu coverd a distance of 350 km at a certain speed. Had his speed been 25% less, he would covered the same distance in \(1 \frac{3}{4}\) hours in more time. His speed (in km/h ), initially, was:

1. \(66\frac{2}{3}\)
2. \(60\)
3. \(56\frac{2}{3}\)
4. \(72\)

Correct Ans: A

QQA19.A is 20% more than B, B is 18% less than C and C is 30% more than D. Which one of the following is true?

1. D is 6.6% less than B
2. A is 2.08% less than C
3. A is 27.92% more than D
4. C is 23.4% more than B

Correct Ans: C

QQA20.The average weight of n persons in a group was 68.4 kg. Later on, 5 persons having weights 59.2 kg, 60.4 kg, 62 kg, 76.4 kg and 78 kg joined the group. As a result, the average weight of all persons in the group decreased by 0.12 kg. The value of n is:

1. 50
2. 40
3. 35
4. 45

Correct Ans: D

QEE1.Which is an electrical machine?

1. Amplifier
2. Rotatory converter
3. Transformer
4. Control relay

Correct Ans: C

QEE2.Which type of transformer increases the current level from primary to secondary?

1. Step down
2. Step up
3. Isolation
4. Fixed winding transformer

Correct Ans: A

QEE3.Which type of machine produced the static induced emf?

1. DC generator
2. Alternator
3. AC generator
4. Transformer

Correct Ans: D

QEE4.Which type of machine produce the Rotating magnetic field?

1. DC shunt motor
2. Two phase Induction motor
3. Stepper motor
4. DC series motor

Correct Ans: B

QEE5.Which type of shape is used for carbon brushes in DC machine?

1. Triangular
2. Square
3. Cylindrical
4. Semi-circular

Correct Ans: B

QEE6.Which statement is correct for DC machine comparative to AC machine?

1. It doesn’t require any maintenance
2. The DC motor’s efficiency is high
3. Motor speed control can be done by changing the frequency.
4. In this motor, brushes, and commutators are not present.

Correct Ans: B

QEE7.Which type of losses not found in AC motor?

1. Iron losses
2. Copper losses
3. Brush losses
4. Mechanical losses

Correct Ans: C

QEE8.Which is the disadvantage of DC machine?

1. Torque is high
2. Installation and maintenance is easy
3. Free from harmonics
4. Operation is Seamless

Correct Ans: A

QEE9.Which is the wrong statement for DC Fan?

1. DC motor fans use 70% less energy than a standard AC fan
2. DC motor fans are less noisy.
3. DC motor fans have more rouged construction than an AC motor fan.
4. DC motor fans have more speed options than an AC motor fan.

Correct Ans: C

QEE10.Which statement is correct for AC machine comparative to dc machine?

1. In this motor, carbon brushes and commutators are present.
2. Motor speed control can be done by changing the frequency.
3. Motor’s efficiency is high
4. It requires maintenance

Correct Ans: B

QEE11.


The above circuit diagram is represents?

1. Three phase induction motor
2. Shunt DC motor
3. Synchronous motor
4. Three phase squirrel cage motor

Correct Ans: C

QEE12.Which of the following is not a self-start motor?

1. Three phase induction motor
2. Shunt dc motor
3. Synchronous motor
4. Three phase squirrel cage motor

Correct Ans: C

QEE13.Which type of motor will work as single excited motor?

1. Synchronous motor
2. Three phase squirrel cage motor
3. DC motor
4. Servo motor

Correct Ans: B

QEE14.Which statement is correct for synchronous machine comparative to induction machine?

1. Motor is a single excited machine.
2. The speed is independent of load.
3. Motor has self-starting torque.
4. Motor operates only at a lagging power factor

Correct Ans: B

QEE15.A Damper Winding consists of heavy copper bars inserted in the slots of _______.

1. Armature faces of stator
2. Armature faces of the rotor
3. Pole faces of the rotor
4. Pole faces of the stator

Correct Ans: C

QEE16.Which type of method is known as resistance Start Motor?

1. Capacitor Start Motor
2. Split Phase Motor
3. Two value capacitor motor
4. Shaded Pole Motor.

Correct Ans: B

QEE17.How much phase angle is made between main winding and starting winding in capacitor start single phase induction motor?

1. 60 degree
2. 90 degree
3. 120 degree
4. 180 degree

Correct Ans: B

QEE18.Which is wrong statement for single value capacitor motor?

1. The paper capacitor is used
2. No centrifugal switch is required.
3. Efficiency is high.
4. The power factor is high.

Correct Ans: A

QEE19.Which type of work cannot be done by nuclear reactor in plant?

1. Maintain the nuclear reaction
2. Initiated the nuclear reaction
3. Extracting the fuel from nuclear reaction
4. Controlling the nuclear reaction

Correct Ans: C

QEE20.Which can’t act as moderator in nuclear power plant?

1. Heavy water
2. Graphite
3. Friona
4. Paraffin

Correct Ans: C

QEE21.What is the average demand if the maximum demand of generation of power is 50 MW and the load factor of the plant is 60%?

1. 20 MW
2. 30 MW
3. 40 MW
4. 50 MW

Correct Ans: B

QEE22.what is the use of feed water in preheated by using flue gases to improve overall efficiency?

1. Super heater
2. Economizer
3. Air pre heater
4. Feed water pump

Correct Ans: B

QEE23.What should be the minimum clearing distance (in feet) between the equipment for 750 to 1000 kV line?

1. 20
2. 25
3. 45
4. 50

Correct Ans: C

QEE24.According to electricity rule, which type of pole is not used in overhead line?

1. Wooden poles
2. Concrete poles
3. Rail electric poles
4. Silicon PVC poles

Correct Ans: D

QEE25.Which type of poles is recommended for highest span?

1. Wooden pole
2. Steel tower
3. Steel pole
4. RCC pole

Correct Ans: B

QEE26.Which type of property is not required in fuse material?

1. Low melting point
2. Low ohmic loss
3. High conductivity
4. High resistivity

Correct Ans: D

QEE27.Which of the following line is considered in capacitor lumped type?

1. Short transmission line
2. Medium transmission line
3. Long transmission line
4. All of these

Correct Ans: B

QEE28.Which is correct, when the diversity factor of a plant is increases?

1. Plant Cost increases
2. Plant Cost decreases
3. Higher maximum demand
4. Higher capacity of plants

Correct Ans: B

QEE29.Which of the following plant have highest life span?

1. Nuclear
2. Coal power
3. Hydro power
4. Diesel generating station

Correct Ans: C

QEE30.Which is not a static compensation that used in transmission line?

1. Shunt capacitor bank
2. Synchronous condensers
3. VAR compensators
4. Series compensation

Correct Ans: B

QEE31.Which is correct for single phase supply comparison to three phase supply?

1. Low cost of Machinery in single phase
2. Low Reliability
3. Required less amount of conductor material
4. Better power factor and efficiency

Correct Ans: B

QEE32.Which is known as the heart of an atomic power plant?

1. Steamer
2. Turbine
3. Reactors
4. Cooling tower

Correct Ans: C

QEE33.The voltages that appears across the breaking contact at the instant of arc extinction is called_______

1. Restriking Voltage
2. Recovery Voltage
3. Active Recovery Voltage
4. Arc Voltage

Correct Ans: A

QEE34.Which is wrong statement for surge absorber?

1. Device to protect electrical equipment from over-voltage transients caused by external or internal events.
2. Increase the steepness of wave front of a surge
3. Used for protection against low-voltage high- frequency oscillations.
4. Surge arresters are not generally designed to protect against a direct lightning strike to a conductor

Correct Ans: B

QEE35.Which is a part of the circuit that consists of a conductor that melts easily and breaks the connection when the current exceeds the predetermined value?

1. Isolator
2. Circuit breaker
3. Rewireable fuse
4. Air-break switch

Correct Ans: C

QEE36.Which is an overcurrent relay with directional restraint?

1. Impedance relay
2. Mho relay
3. Reactance relay
4. Over current relay

Correct Ans: C

QEE37.An ideal volt meter provides the path for ______

1. Maximum current
2. Minimum current
3. Minimum voltage
4. Maximum voltage

Correct Ans: B

QEE38.How many wattmeter(s) is required to measure 6 – phase, 6 – wire without neutral wire system?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

Correct Ans: C

QEE39.Loss of charge method is used to measured ______.

1. High resistance
2. Medium resistance
3. Low resistance
4. Low inductance

Correct Ans: A

QEE40.Which is more suitable to measure the perfect capacitor?

1. Owen’s bridge
2. Anderson’s bridge
3. De-Sauty’s bridge
4. Hay’s bridge

Correct Ans: C

QEE41.Which is wrong statement for digital instruments?

1. Worst resolution
2. Highly accurate
3. Better readability
4. Energy consumption is very less

Correct Ans: A

QEE42.What is the minimum resistance required in insulation test voltage is 500 V DC accordance with BS 7671?

1. \(0.5\:M\Omega\)
2. \(1\:M\Omega\)
3. \(2\:M\Omega\)
4. \(5\:M\Omega\)

Correct Ans: B

QEE43.Which meter is used in electromagnet damping?

1. Flux meter
2. Moving iron
3. Electro-static voltmeter
4. PMMC

Correct Ans: A

QEE44.Which type of measurement is not done by Schering bridge?

1. Capacitance
2. Permittivity
3. Dielectric loss
4. High resistance

Correct Ans: D

QEE45.Which type of bridge is not suitable for measuring the quality factor of coil?

1. Anderson’s bridge
2. Maxwell’s inductance bridge
3. Hay’s bridge
4. Owen’s bridge

Correct Ans: B

QEE46.Which instrument is representing an integrating type instrument?

1. Ammeter
2. Energy meter
3. Voltmeter
4. Pressure recording instrument

Correct Ans: B

QEE47.If the material has negative temperature coefficient, the resistance ______ with increase in temperature.

1. No changes
2. Increases
3. Decreases
4. Very high

Correct Ans: C

QEE48.In absence of ______ the pointer will swing beyond its final steady-state position and the deflection will be indefinite

1. Deflecting torque
2. Damping torque
3. Controlling torque
4. Speeder torque

Correct Ans: C

QEE49.How many pressure and current coil is present in Megger?

1. Two pressure coils and one current coil
2. Two pressure coils and two current coil
3. one pressure coil and one current coil
4. One pressure coils and two current coil

Correct Ans: A

QEE50.Which type of measurement cannot be done by potentiometer?

1. Voltage
2. Power
3. Current
4. Resistance

Correct Ans: B

QEE51.Which type of meter is used in current that produced by chemical effect?

1. AC ammeter
2. DC ampere hour meter
3. DC ammeter
4. DC energy meter

Correct Ans: B

QEE52.In 3 phase power measurement by two watt meter methods reading can be same in both wattmeters then the power factor is____.

1. Leading
2. Lagging
3. Unity
4. Zero

Correct Ans: C

QEE53.Which condition is created by two wattmeters \(W_1\) and \(W_2\) for power factor is zero?

1. \(W_1= W_2\)
2. \(2W_1= W_2\)
3. \(W_1 = 0\)
4. \(W_1 = -Ve \:W_2= +Ve\)

Correct Ans: D

QEE54.Which linear circuit can be used as an equivalent circuit for a single voltage source and a series resistance?

1. Nortan’s equivalent
2. Thevenin equivalent circuit
3. Maximum power equivalent circuit
4. Reciprocal power circuit

Correct Ans: B

QEE55.What is the value of equivalent resistance if the resistor \(10\:\Omega\) is parallel to \(20\:\Omega\)?

1. \(30\:\Omega\)
2. \(12.68\:\Omega\)
3. \(6.67\:\Omega\)
4. \(3.28\:\Omega\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE56.What is value of current in given circuit?

1. 25A
2. 50A
3. 70A
4. 80A

Correct Ans: B

QEE57.A practical current source is equivalent to an ideal current source in parallel with________.

1. Shunt low resistance
2. Low resistance
3. High conductance
4. Low conductance

Correct Ans: D

QEE58.What is the value of charge flow in a conductor if the current is 5A flowing in 3 minute?

1. 900 C
2. 700 C
3. 1200 C
4. 150 C

Correct Ans: A

QEE59.When three identical bulbs of 60 watt, 200 volt rating are connected in series to a 200 volt supply, the power drawn by them will be :

1. 180 watt
2. 10 watt
3. 20 watt
4. 60 watt

Correct Ans: C

QEE60.Transistors are the examples of ______.

1. Irreversible circuit
2. Unilateral circuit
3. Bilateral circuit
4. Reversible circuit

Correct Ans: B

QEE61.Which is wrong statement for active element?

1. The elements that supply energy
2. Ability to control the flow of charge
3. Used for energy storage and discharge
4. Used for current control and voltage control applications

Correct Ans: C

QEE62.Which is not defining the unit of electric current?

1. coulomb /sec
2. Farad-coulomb/ sec
3. \(Volt/\Omega\)
4. ampere

Correct Ans: B

QEE63.Which part of the circuit breaker is made up by copper tungsten alloy?

1. Arcing contact
2. Main contact
3. Outer body
4. Arc quenching rod

Correct Ans: A

QEE64.Which is the correctly defining the fusing factor?

1. Current rate of fuse/fusing current
2. Fusing current/current rate of fuse
3. (Current rate of fuse +1)/fusing current
4. (Fusing current +1)/current rate of fuse

Correct Ans: B

QEE65.Which is not considered as a type of overload relay?

1. Directional
2. Thermal
3. Magnetic
4. Solid state

Correct Ans: A

QEE66.Which one is shown as the wrong duty of circuit breaker?

1. It should carry the full load current continuously without overheating or damage
2. It should open and close the circuit on no load
3. It must be capable of making the circuit when there is fault current.
4. It makes and breaks the normal operating current

Correct Ans: C

QEE67.Which is indicated the power consumption of the relay circuit element?

1. Load
2. Burden
3. Magnetic coil
4. Losses

Correct Ans: B

QEE68.Which type of relay represents the phasor difference of two or more similar electrical quantities exceed a predetermined value?

1. Over load relay
2. Differential relay
3. Over voltage relay
4. Thermal relay

Correct Ans: B

QEE69.For below 400 KV systems, the circuit breaker is designed to withstand ______above the normal system voltage.

1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 30%
4. 40%

Correct Ans: A

QEE70.Which supply line has highest current rating?

1. From meter line
2. From pole line
3. Sub circuit line
4. Main circuit line

Correct Ans: B

QEE71.Which type of relay is less affected by power surges?

1. Mho relay
2. Reactance relay
3. Impedance relay
4. All are same

Correct Ans: A

QEE72.An electric arc is a visible plasma discharge between two electrodes that is caused by _____ ionizing gasses in the air.

1. Electrical voltage
2. Electrical current
3. Electrical power
4. Electrical energy

Correct Ans: B

QEE73.Which type of number system is represented by base 8?

1. Decimal
2. Binary
3. Octal
4. hexadecimal

Correct Ans: C

QEE74.Which type of number system have alphanumeric type character?

1. Decimal
2. Binary
3. Octal
4. hexadecimal

Correct Ans: D

QEE75.How many outputs are represented by 4 input type of NAND gate?

1. 8
2. 16
3. 32
4. 64

Correct Ans: B

QEE76.What is maximum number represented by 4 bit BCD code?

1. 8
2. 9
3. 15
4. 24

Correct Ans: B

QEE77.Which group is represented as universal gate?

1. AND or OR
2. NAND or NOR
3. NOT, NOR, NAND
4. AND, OR, NOT

Correct Ans: B

QEE78.Which condition is shown in J-K flip flop as no changes next state from next state?

1. J = 0, K = 0
2. J = 0, K = 1
3. J = 1, K = 0
4. J = 1, K = 1

Correct Ans: A

QEE79.Which is used for storing the one bit digital data?

1. NAND GATE
2. GATE
3. Flip flop
4. Register

Correct Ans: C

QEE80.How many input terminal is represented by T flip flop?

1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1

Correct Ans: D

QEE81.Which is not a component of power electronics system?

1. Electric drive
2. Electronic power circuit
3. User electrical load
4. Control circuit

Correct Ans: A

QEE82.Which is wrong quality of power electronics converters?

1. Maximum efficiency
2. Maximum reliability
3. Less availability
4. Minimum cost

Correct Ans: C

QEE83.Which mode is described when anode is assigned a positive voltage, the gate is assigned a zero voltage disconnected and the cathode is assigned a negative voltage?

1. ON state conducting mode
2. Reverse blocking
3. OFF state forward conduction mode
4. OFF state forward blocking mode

Correct Ans: D

QEE84.Identify the above structure diagram of device?

1. BJT
2. TRIAC
3. Diac
4. MOSFET

Correct Ans: B

QEE85.Which represents the Transport Factor of BJT?

1. The ratio of the collector current and the emitter current
2. The ratio of the collector current and the Base current
3. The ratio of the emitter current and the Base current
4. The ratio of the collector current and the load current

Correct Ans: A

QEE86.Which is suitable for making the Variable frequency drives?

1. BJT
2. TRIAC
3. IGBT
4. MOSFET

Correct Ans: C

QEE87.Which is four terminals device?

1. FET
2. SCR
3. IGBT
4. MOSFET

Correct Ans: D

QEE88.MOSFET has a thin layer of silicon dioxide, which acts as ______.

1. Resistance
2. Semiconductor
3. Inductor
4. Capacitor

Correct Ans: D

QEE89.In open loop control systems, the control action is independent of the desired________.

1. Error detector
2. Input signal
3. Output signal
4. Actuating signal

Correct Ans: C

QEE90.In closed loop control system, the difference between the input and the feedback signal is represented by_________.

1. Error detector
2. Error signal
3. Accuracy signal
4. Correcting signal

Correct Ans: B

QEE91.Which statement is correct for open loop system?

1. Difficult to design.
2. These are economical.
3. Feedback path is present.
4. Control action is dependent of the desired output.

Correct Ans: B

QEE92.Which statement is correct for closed loop system?

1. These are economical.
2. Easy to design.
3. Output given Accurate
4. Control action is independent of the desired output.

Correct Ans: C

QEE93.

In above block diagram, what is representing the symbol of G?

1. Transfer function
2. Open loop gain
3. Closed loop gain
4. Feedback response

Correct Ans: A

QEE94.If the value of (1+GH) is less than 1, then sensitivity is/has _______.

1. No effect
2. Decreases
3. Increases
4. zero

Correct Ans: C

QEE95.A system is said to be ______, if its output is under control

1. Unstable
2. Stable
3. Constant
4. Flexible

Correct Ans: B

QEE96.The mathematical model is not used to represent the control systems model.

1. Transfer function model
2. State space model
3. Differential equation model
4. Integration equation model

Correct Ans: D

QEE97.How many bits of timer is used in 8051 microcontroller?

1. 4 bits
2. 8 bits
3. 16 bits
4. 2 bits

Correct Ans: C

QEE98.What is the size of ROM uses in 8051 microcontroller?

1. 64 Bits
2. 4 kb
3. 8 kb
4. 256 kb

Correct Ans: B

QEE99.What is the bit size of each temporary Internal Registers in 8051?

1. 4 bit
2. 8 bit
3. 16 bit
4. 2 bit

Correct Ans: B

QEE100.What is the size of RAM in 8051 microcontroller?

1. 128 bytes
2. 256 bytes
3. 1024 bytes
4. 2048 bytes

Correct Ans: A

QEE101.Which type of program is used for functions as counters, timers, shift registers, and math operations in PLC?

1. C programing
2. HTML
3. Ladder Logic
4. Logic function programing

Correct Ans: C

QEE102.A PLC would be used for the automation of industrial _________.

1. Electromagnetic processes
2. Electromechanical processes
3. Electrochemical processes
4. Recurrent process

Correct Ans: B

QEE103.What is the content of accumulator of 8085 microprocessor after the execution of XRI F0 H instruction?

1. Clear the lower four bits of the accumulator in 8085.
2. Complement the upper four bits of the accumulator in 8085
3. Clear the upper four bits of the accumulator in 8085
4. Complement the lower four bits of the accumulator in 8085.

Correct Ans: B

QEE104.How many byte of instruction XCHG is used to executed in 8085 microcontroller?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5

Correct Ans: A

QEE105.Which type of BJT configuration is providing the maximum power gain?

1. Common Base
2. Common Collector
3. Common Emitter
4. Both common emitter and base

Correct Ans: C

QEE106.How many degree phases have been shifted from input to output in common emitter configuration?

1. 0 degree
2. 90 degree
3. 180 degree
4. 220 degree

Correct Ans: C

QEE107.Which type of configuration has high output impedance but low input impedance ?

1. Common Base
2. Common Collector
3. Common Emitter
4. Both common emitter and base

Correct Ans: A

QEE108.Which type of mode is used as amplifier?

1. Cut off
2. Reverse Active
3. Active
4. Saturation

Correct Ans: C

QEE109.Which type of EB biasing and CB biasing is used for the application of ON switching?

1. Reverse, Forward
2. Forward, Reverse
3. Forward, Forward
4. Reverse, Reverse

Correct Ans: C

QEE110.Which circuit is called the limiter circuit?

1. Chopper circuit
2. Clipper circuit
3. Chopping circuit
4. Clamp circuit

Correct Ans: B

QEE111.Identify the above clipper circuit type?

1. Series negative clipper
2. Series positive clipper
3. Parallel negative clipper
4. Parallel positive clipper

Correct Ans: B

QEE112.The given figure represents?

1. Integrator
2. Precision rectifier
3. Differentiator
4. Summing amplifier

Correct Ans: B

QEE113.Which type of content is finding by ion-isoconcentration technique?

1. Vapour from air
2. Water in organic solvent
3. Organic component from solution
4. PH level of consternation solution

Correct Ans: B

QEE114.Water activity(AW) can be defined as the ______ obtained from measuring moisture containing sample.

1. ORH value
2. pH value
3. RH value
4. Concentration level value

Correct Ans: C

QEE115.Why we use low internal resistance in series of an ammeter?

1. Low selectivity
2. High sensitivity
3. Low voltage drop on ammeter
4. High voltage drop across ammeter

Correct Ans: C

QEE116.What is the average value of sinusoidal wave having maximum voltage value of 520V?

1. 330.72V
2. 360.45V
3. 420.35 V
4. 260 V

Correct Ans: A

QEE117.What is the maximum current rating of an induction meter?

1. 50A
2. 100A
3. 150A
4. 500A

Correct Ans: B

QEE118.Which type of quantity does not measured by multimeter?

1. Resistance
2. Power
3. DC voltage
4. AC voltage

Correct Ans: B

QEE119.Which type of device is used to measure low voltage form the circuit?

1. Moving iron voltmeter
2. Cathode ray oscilloscope
3. Capacitive voltage transformer
4. Instrument transformer

Correct Ans: B

QEE120.Which is the correct value of input resistance of a voltmeter that give accurate reading?

1. Very Low resistance
2. Medium resistance
3. High resistance
4. Very high resistance

Correct Ans: C

QSA1.Direction: Fill up the blanks with suitable prepositions from the alternative given.

During the course of speech the principal enlarged ______ the need of improving college library.

1. upon
2. to
3. in
4. by

Correct Ans: A

QSA2.Directions: Given sentence are in active/ passive voice. Out of four alternative, select one which best expresses the same sentence in passive/ active voice.

A fresh batch of eggs was collected by the farmer's wife.

1. The farmer's wife was collecting a fresh batch of eggs.
2. The farmer's wife collected a fresh batch of eggs.
3. The farmer's wife had collected a fresh batch of eggs.
4. The farmer's wife will be collecting a fresh batch of eggs.

Correct Ans: B

QSA3.Direction: Choose the best one which can be substituted for the given words/ sentence.

The depository where state records and documents are preserved.

1. Museum
2. Library
3. Emporium
4. Archive

Correct Ans: D

QSA4.Direction: From four alternative given, choose the correct meaning of the idioms given in bold in the sentence.
The party stalwarts have advised the president to take it \(\mathbf{lying \: down}\) for a while.

1. to show no reaction
2. to take rest
3. to be on the defensive
4. to be cautions

Correct Ans: A

QSA5.Direction: Some of the sentences are grammatically correct and some are incorrect. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark that part. If there is no error, mark that part as your answer.
Copernicus proved (A) that Earth (B) moves round the Sun (C) no error (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Correct Ans: B

QSA6.Direction: Compare the bold part of sentence with the expressions given as alternatives, choose the best expression which is an improvement in sentence.
When it was dark they decided to \(\mathbf{put \: at}\) an inn.

1. put off with
2. put up at
3. put out in
4. no improvement

Correct Ans: B

QSA7.Direction: Choose the word nearest in meaning to bold part.
Honest officers find it difficult to \(\mathbf{attune}\) themselves to corrupt bureaucracy.

1. tune
2. adapt
3. harmony
4. accusation

Correct Ans: B

QSA8.Direction: select the word or the phrase which is closest to the opposite in meaning of the bold word or phrase.
The politician was \(\mathbf{flummoxed}\) by the questions put to him.

1. comfortable
2. annoyed
3. delighted
4. disconcerted

Correct Ans: A

QSA9.Direction: Choose the best alternative to make the sentence meaningful.

My father keeps all his _______ papers in a lock and key.

1. required
2. necessary
3. useful
4. confidential

Correct Ans: D

QSA10.Direction: In the following questions, the first and last part of senetence is marked as 1and 6. The rest of the sentence is split into four parts and are named as P,Q,R and S. These four parts are not given in their proper order. Read the jumbled part of the sentence and find out which of four alternative combination is correct.

1. Religion has been used

P: both as a weapon of isolation

Q: to dull awareness

R: about real problems

S: and as morphia

6: like education, health and employment.

1. P Q R S
2. P S Q R
3. Q P S R
4. R P Q S

Correct Ans: B

QSA11.Direction: Choose the best alternative for bold part to make the meaningful sentence.
\(\mathbf{I \: accapted}\) a new method to solve the problem.

1. I have been adopted
2. I adopted
3. I was adapted
4. no improvement

Correct Ans: B

QSA12.I think she ______ the clock this week.

1. wounded
2. wind
3. wound
4. woundler

Correct Ans: C

QSA13.Direction: Some of the sentences are grammatically correct and some are incorrect. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark that part. If there is no error, mark that part as your answer.

I went to the temple (A) with my parents (B) my aunts and my cousins (C) No error (D)

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

Correct Ans: A

QSA14.Each set of the following sentences comprises four alternatives labelled as A,B,C and D. Candidate is required to select the most suitable alternative which conveys the exact meaning in accordance with the correct grammatical rules.

1. If he wins the prize I would be very happy
2. If he were to win the prize I'll be very happy.
3. If he was to win the prize I would be very happy.
4. If he were to win the prize I would be very happy.

Correct Ans: D

QSA15.Directions: Given sentence are in active/ passive voice. Out of four alternative, select one which best expresses the same sentence in passive/ active voice.

He had committed a mistake.

1. A mistake had committed by him
2. A mistake was committed by him
3. A mistake had been committed by him
4. A mistake has been committed by him

Correct Ans: C

QSA16.Direction: Choose the alternative, which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase.

To drive home

1. to find one's root
2. to return to place to rest
3. back to original position
4. to emphasise

Correct Ans: D

QSA17.Simplify: 8888 + 888 + 88 + 8

1. 9872
2. 9672
3. 8672
4. 9782

Correct Ans: A

QSA18.The face value of 9 in the number 458926 is

1. 1000
2. 9
3. 9000
4. 926

Correct Ans: B

QSA19.Find the H.C.F. of 42,63 and 140 is

1. 3
2. 4
3. 7
4. 2

Correct Ans: C

QSA20.Which of the following fraction is the largest?

1. 7/8
2. 13/16
3. 63/80
4. 31/40

Correct Ans: A

QSA21.If x=10 and y=0.1, which of the following is the greatest?

1. \(X^2+Y^2\)
2. \(X^2\)/\(Y^2\)
3. \(X^2\) \(Y^2\)
4. \(X^2 -Y^2\)

Correct Ans: B

QSA22.0.1*0.01*0.001=?

1. 0.0001
2. 0.00001
3. 0.000001
4. 0.0000001

Correct Ans: C

QSA23.345 +25*0.80-111 =

1. 254
2. 324
3. 666
4. 600

Correct Ans: A

QSA24.Kunal bought 65 books for Rs. 1050 from one shop and 50 books for Rs.1020 from another. What is the average price he paid per book?

1. Rs.18
2. Rs.18.20
3. Rs.24
4. Rs.36.40

Correct Ans: A

QSA25.The present ages of three persons are in the proportion 4:7:9. Eight years ago ,the sum of their ages was 56 years. The present age of the eldest person is

1. 28 years
2. 36 years
3. 45 years
4. None of these

Correct Ans: B

QSA26.5 kg of metal A and 20 kg of metal B are mixed to form an alloy. The percentage of metal A in the alloy is.

1. 20%
2. 25%
3. 40%
4. None of these

Correct Ans: A

QSA27.Pure ghee costs Rs.100 per kg. After adultering it with vegetable oil costing Rs.50 per kg, a shopkeeper sells the mixture at the rate of Rs.96 per kg, thereby making a profit of 20%. In what ratio does he mix the two?

1. 3:2
2. 2:3
3. 1:2
4. 3:1

Correct Ans: A

QSA28.if 20% of A=30% of B= 1/6 of C, then A:B:C is

1. 2:3:16
2. 3:2:16
3. 10:15:18
4. 15:10:18

Correct Ans: D

QSA29.Anand and Deepak started a business investing Rs.22500 and Rs.35000 respectively. Out of a total profit of Rs.13800, Deepak's share is

1. Rs.5400
2. Rs.7200
3. Rs.8400
4. Rs.9600

Correct Ans: C

QSA30.A can complete a certain work in 4 minutes, B in 5 minutes, C in 6 minutes, D in 10 minutes and E in 12 minutes. The average number of units of work completed by them per minute will be

1. 0.16
2. 0.40
3. 0.80
4. None of these

Correct Ans: A

QSA31.The difference between the length and breadth of a rectangle is 23m. If it's perimeter is 206m, then it's area is

1. \(1520\:m^2\)
2. \(2420\:m^2\)
3. \(2480\:m^2\)
4. \(2520\:m^2\)

Correct Ans: D

QSA32.In a simultaneous throw of two dice, what is the probability of getting a total 7?

1. 1/6
2. 1/4
3. 2/3
4. 3/4

Correct Ans: A

QSA33.If in a certain language , MADRAS is code as NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that language?

1. CPNCBX
2. CPNCBZ
3. CPOCBZ
4. CQOCBZ

Correct Ans: B

QSA34.In a code language, SOLID is written as WPSLPIMFHA. What does the code-word ATEXXQIBVO refer to?

1. WATER
2. WAGER
3. EAGER
4. WAFER

Correct Ans: A

QSA35.Pointing toward a boy, Veena said,"He is the son of only son of my grandaughter." How is that it related to Veena?

1. uncle
2. Brother
3. Cousin
4. None of these

Correct Ans: B

QSA36.Pointing to a man, a woman said,"His mother is the only daughter of my mother." How is the woman related to the mother?

1. Mother
2. Daughter
3. Sister
4. None of these

Correct Ans: B

QSA37.If P's father Q is paternal uncle of B and A's husband M is paternal uncle of P, then how is A related to B?

1. Mother
2. Cousin
3. Granmother
4. can not determined

Correct Ans: D

QSA38.Deepak said to Nitin, "The boy who plays football is the younger of the two brothers of my father's wife's daughter." How is the boy playing football related to Deepak?

1. Son
2. Brother
3. Nephew
4. Brothet-in-law

Correct Ans: B

QSA39.Which of the given shapes would complete the sequence?

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Correct Ans: C

QSA40.Two statements are given P & Q: You may look into their logic and mark your answer as (a) if both P & Q are true: (b) if P is correct and Q is wrong or doubtful (c ) if P is wrong or doubtful and Q is correct: (d) if both P and Q are wrong or doubtful. P: All A's are B's. All B's are C's. Therefore all C's are A's. Q:Some A's are B's. All B's are C's. Therefore some A's are C's.

1. a
2. b
3. c
4. d

Correct Ans: C

QSA41.4,8,28,80,244,?

1. 278
2. 428
3. 628
4. 728

Correct Ans: D

QSA42.Find the statement that must be true according to the given information. Vincent has a paper route. Each morning, he delivers 37 newspapers to customers in his neighborhood. It takes Vincent 50 minutes to deliver all the papers. If Vincent is sick or has other plans, his friend Thomas, who lives on the same street, will sometimes deliver the papers for him.

1. Vincent and Thomas live in the same
   neighborhood.
2. It takes Thomas more than 50 minutes to
   deliver the papers.
3. It is dark outside when Vincent begins his
   deliveries.
4. Thomas would like to have his own paper route.

Correct Ans: A

QSA43.Find the statement that must be true according to the given information. Erin is twelve years old. For three years, she has been asking her parents for a dog. Her parents have told her that they believe a dog would not be happy in an apartment, but they have given her permission to have a bird. Erin has not yet decided what kind of bird she would like to have.

1. Erin's parents like birds better than they like
   dogs.
2. Erin does not like birds.
3. Erin and her parents live in an apartment.
4. Erin and her parents would like to move.

Correct Ans: C

QSA44.If GOLD is coded as HOME, COME is coded as DONE and CORD is coded as DOSE, how would you code SONS?

1. TPOT
2. TOOT
3. TOOS
4. TONT

Correct Ans: B

QSA45.If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7, Then what is the code for GOVERNMENT?

1. 6
2. 8
3. 9
4. 10

Correct Ans: A

QSA46.There are four males sitting on a bench to be photographed. Ravi, Vijay, Ram, Sonu They are sitting as per the below conditions: 1. Vijay is sitting to the left of Ravi. 2. Ram is sitting to the right of Ravi. 3. Sonu is between Ravi and Ram. Who would be 2nd to the left, in the photograph?

1. Ravi
2. Vijay
3. Ram
4. Sonu

Correct Ans: D

QSA47.Q is the brother of C and C is the sister of Q. R and D are brother and sister. R is the son of A while A & C are wife and husband. How is Q related with D.

1. maternal uncle
2. brother
3. nephew
4. uncle

Correct Ans: A

QSA48.which of the given shapes fit the pattern in the sample images?

1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 

Correct Ans: D

QSA49.What will come at the place of question mark?

8, 28,116,584,?

1. 1752
2. 3504
3. 3508
4. 3502

Correct Ans: C

QSA50.Find the missing term:

9,27,31,155,161,1127,?

1. 316
2. 1135
3. 1288
4. 2254

Correct Ans: B

QGE1.Choose the right synonym for " barbaric"

1. Civilized
2. Barber-like
3. Kind
4. savage

Correct Ans: D

QGE2.Choose the most appropriate arrangement of the jumbled words into a meaningful sentence
from the given options.

if the/ quarrels/ fault were /would not/ only on one side/last long/

1. If the fault would not last long quarrels were only on one side
2. If the quarrels would not last long fault were only on one side
3. If the quarrels were only on one side the fault would not last long
4. Quarrels would not last long if the fault were only on one side.

Correct Ans: D

QGE3.Choose the right synonym for "abduct"

1. Ravage
2. Kidnap
3. Kill
4. Deceive

Correct Ans: B

QGE4.Select the most appropriate meaning of the underlined idiom.

Our neighbours suddenly left their house bag and baggage.

1. leaving all bags behind
2. with lots of bags
3. baggage consisting of bags
4. with all one's belongings

Correct Ans: D

QGE5.Select the option that is incorrect spelling as per standard English dictionary.

1. realistic
2. frolik
3. picnic
4. panic

Correct Ans: B

QGE6.Choose the gramatically correct sentence from the given options.

1. A woman is more sensitive than the man.
2. A woman is more sensitive than a man.
3. A woman is many sensitive then men
4. A woman is more sensitive then men.

Correct Ans: B

QGE7.Fill in the blanks with appropriate article:

______cow is a useful animal.

1. Many
2. An
3. Those
4. The

Correct Ans: D

QGE8.Choose the right synonym for "backdrop"

1. Foreground
2. Backside
3. Setting
4. Drop

Correct Ans: C

QGE9.Choose the most appropriate arrangement of the jumbled words into a meaningful sentence
from the given options.

he has / either mad/ or/is/ a criminal/ he / become

1. He is either mad or he has become a criminal
2. He is a criminal or he has become mad either.
3. Either mad he is or he has become a criminal
4. He is become either mad or he has a criminal

Correct Ans: A

QGE10.Fill in the blank from the given options.

She ___________with her lover.

1. Argue
2. Eloped
3. Break up
4. Fight

Correct Ans: B

QGE11.Choose the grammatically correct sentence from the given options.

1. A Mr. Roy whom you met last night is my uncle.
2. A Mr. Roy whom you meeting last night is my uncle
3. The Mr. Roy whom you met last night is my uncle.
4. Some Mr. Roy whom you met last night is my uncle.

Correct Ans: C

QGE12.Fill in the blank from the given options

She _______ very melodiously.

1. Debated
2. Sings
3. Declares
4. Chats

Correct Ans: B

QGE13.Choose the most appropriate arrangement of the jumbled words into a meaningful sentence
from the given options.

I think/ your proposals/for / them to be reasonable/I agree/ to

1. I think them to be reasonable for I agree to your proposals
2. I agree to your proposals, for I think them to be reasonable.
3. I agree for your proposals I think to them reasonable
4. I agree for your proposals I think them to be reasonable

Correct Ans: B

QGE14.Fill in the blank from the given options.

I have ordered __________three cups of coffee.

1. No word required
2. With
3. For
4. At

Correct Ans: A

QGE15.Fill in the blank from the given options.

__________in life could not break her.

1. Happiness
2. Longevity
3. Hardships
4. Rewards

Correct Ans: C

QGE16.Select the most appropriate option to fill in the blank.

Please _____me in cleaning up the kitchen.

1. assisting
2. assisted
3. assist
4. to assist

Correct Ans: C

QRE1.In a certain code “DELHI” is written as 38, how is “PATNA” written in that code?

1. 50
2. 61
3. 52
4. 55

Correct Ans: C

QRE2.Study the following graph and answer the questions that follow:-



In which year the value of India's export of crude oil was the highest?

1. 1978
2. 1977
3. 1975
4. 1976

Correct Ans: A

QRE3.Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

1. None of the other options
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1

Correct Ans: C

QRE4.The question below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II given
below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to
answer the question. Read both the statements and give answer:


Question: In which year was Saraswati born?


Statements: -


I. Saraswati at present is 35 years younger to her father.

II. Saraswati's brother, who was born in 1974, is 45 years younger to his father.

1. Both I and II together are sufficient
2. Both I and II together are not sufficient
3. II alone is sufficient while I alone is not sufficient
4. I alone is sufficient while II alone is not sufficient

Correct Ans: A

QRE5.Choose the missing numbers to complete the series.

9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, 81 ,100, ?, ?

1. 121 , 144
2. 110 , 140
3. 111 , 141
4. 110 , 144

Correct Ans: A

QRE6.Study the following graph and answer the questions that follow:-


If in 1978 Crude oil were exported at the same rate per barrel as in 1977, then what would
have been the value of exports in 1978? (Crores of Rupees)

1. 420
2. 400
3. 330
4. 352

Correct Ans: D

QRE7.The question below consists of statements and two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to read them carefully and select the correct option.


Statements: No girls can sing. Some girls are singers.


Conclusions:

I. Boys can sing.

II. Singers can sing.

1. Only conclusion I follows
2. Either I or II follows
3. Neither I nor II follows
4. Only conclusion II follows

Correct Ans: C

QRE8.Which one will replace the question mark?

1. 153
2. 161
3. 158
4. 145

Correct Ans: B

QRE9.If “MUMBAI” is written as “NTNABH” in a certain code, how will “BHUTAN” be written in that
code?

1. CGVSMB
2. CGVSBM
3. CGVBMS
4. SBMCGV

Correct Ans: B

QRE10.Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

1. 1
2. Either 3 or 2
3. 2
4. 3

Correct Ans: A

QRE11.In a certain code, “SCHOOL” is written as “UFJRQO”. How will “MARKET” be written in that
code?

1. ODTNWG
2. ODTWGN
3. WGNODT
4. ODTNGW

Correct Ans: D

QRE12.Which one will replace the question mark?

1. 25
2. 30
3. 20
4. 15

Correct Ans: A

QRE13.‘Microscope’ is related to ‘Laboratory’ in the same way as ‘Periscope’ is related to ‘________’.

1. Aeroplane
2. Music Studio
3. Submarine
4. Hospital

Correct Ans: C

QRE14.Which one will replace the question mark?

1. 280
2. 283
3. 284
4. 282

Correct Ans: D

QRE15.Study the following graph and answer the questions that follow:-



In which year the quantity of India's export of crude oil was the lowest?

1. 1977
2. 1978
3. 1975
4. 1976

Correct Ans: D

QRE16.Complete the series. 10, 32, 98, 296, 890, ?

1. 2672
2. 2670
3. 2668
4. 2600

Correct Ans: A

QRE17.The question below consists of statements and two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to read them carefully and select the correct option.


Statements: Some boys are Girls. All Girls are beautiful.


Conclusions:

I. All Boys are beautiful.

II. All girls are boys.

1. Neither I nor II follows
2. Either I or II follows
3. Only conclusion II follows
4. Only conclusion I follows

Correct Ans: A

QQA1.Sita crosses a 60 m long street in 5 seconds. What is her speed in km per hour?

1. 10
2. 84
3. 43.2
4. 36.4

Correct Ans: C

QQA2.A bag contains 2 black , 3 yellow and 2 purple balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is
the probability that none of the balls drawn is purple?

1. \(\frac{10}{21}\)
2. \(\frac{11}{21}\)
3. \(\frac{4}{3}\)
4. \(\frac{6}{5}\)

Correct Ans: A

QQA3.Seema went to the Market and bought things worth Rs. 25, out of which 30 paise went tax
over purchases. If the tax rate was 6%, then what was the cost of the tax-free items?

1. Rs. 40
2. Rs. 15
3. Rs. 15.70
4. Rs. 19.70

Correct Ans: D

QQA4.Ram, Mohan, and Rakesh can do a piece of work in 20, 30 and 60 days respectively. In how many days can Ram do the work if he is assisted by Mohan and Rakesh on every third day?

1. 18 days
2. 16 days
3. 12 days
4. 15 days

Correct Ans: D

QQA5.X is 30% more efficient than Y. How much time will they, working together, take to complete
a job which X alone could have done in 23 days?

1. 11 days
2. 14 days
3. 13 days
4. 25 days

Correct Ans: C

QQA6.The ratio of the present ages of Ram and his father is 4: 8. The father's age at the time of
Ram's birth was 36 years. Find the Ram and his father's present age respectively.

1. 40 and 69 yrs.
2. 36 and 75 yrs.
3. 42 and 80 yrs.
4. 36 and 72 yrs.

Correct Ans: D

QQA7.The ratio of the present ages of Rakesh and Mohan is 5:3. Two years hence it will be 3 : 2.
Find the present age of Rakesh and Mohan respectively.

1. 10 and 6 yrs.
2. 10 and 5 yrs.
3. 15 and 6 yrs.
4. 5 and 10 yrs.

Correct Ans: A

QQA8.What percentage of numbers from 1 to 50 have 1 or 9 in the unit's digit?

1. 18
2. 21
3. 15
4. 20

Correct Ans: D

QQA9.If Rashmi walks at 15 km/hr instead of 10 km/hr, she would have walked 30 km more. The
actual distance travelled by her is:

1. 50 km
2. 60 km
3. 70 km
4. 55 km

Correct Ans: B

QQA10.The cost price of 20 Mangoes is the same as the selling price of x mangoes. If the profit is
25%, then the value of x is:

1. 21
2. 16
3. 18
4. 20

Correct Ans: B

QQA11.Piece of clothes 70 meters in length was cut into pieces, the ratio of whose lengths was 3:7. Find the length of smallest piece.

1. 07 Meter
2. 21 Meter
3. 70 Meter
4. 49 Meter

Correct Ans: B

QQA12.Shyam buys Camera for Rs. 5000 and spends Rs. 300 on its Lenses. If he sells the Camera
for Rs. 6000, then his gain percentage is?

1. 16.5%
2. 13.20%
3. 17%
4. 14%

Correct Ans: B

QQA13.A car can travel 50% faster than a Bus. Both start from point A at the same time and reach
point B, 75 kms away from A at the same time. On the way, however, the Car lost about 12.5
minutes while stopping at the car stop. The speed of the Bus is:

1. 130 kmph
2. 100 kmph
3. 120 kmph
4. 110 kmph

Correct Ans: C

QQA14.Kamla bought pencils at 6 for a rupee. How many for a rupee must she sell to gain 20%?

1. 2
2. 5
3. 7
4. 3

Correct Ans: B

QQA15.X can do a work in 10 days and Y in 20 days. If they work on it together for 3 days, then the
fraction of the work that is left is:

1. \(\frac{6}{5}\)
2. \(\frac{11}{20}\)
3. \(\frac{20}{11}\)
4. \(\frac{11}{15}\)

Correct Ans: B

QQA16.On selling 17 Pens at Rs. 720, there is a loss equal to the cost price of 5 pens. The cost
price of a pen is:

1. Rs. 45
2. Rs. 65
3. Rs. 60
4. Rs. 80

Correct Ans: C

QQA17.What percentage of numbers from 1 to 60 have 9 in the unit's digit

1. 20
2. 12
3. 10
4. 21

Correct Ans: C

QEE1.Which of the following type of logic gate represent the above truth table?

1. NOT gate
2. NAND gate
3. NOR gate
4. OR gate

Correct Ans: C

QEE2.______ is used for improving load availability in a stand-alone plant in a wind power system.

1. Power electronics
2. Control electronics
3. Stall controller
4. A battery

Correct Ans: D

QEE3._______utilize high pressure compressed air for arc extinction, and need a compressed air plant.

1. \(SF_6\) circuit breaker
2. Air-blast circuit breaker
3. Vacuum circuit breaker
4. Air-break circuit breaker

Correct Ans: B

QEE4.Which among the following is a/an dependent source?

1. DC generator
2. Transistor
3. Alternator
4. Battery

Correct Ans: B

QEE5.Which among the following type of bulbs are used for ceiling lights and wall lights?

1. High pressure sodium
2. Metal halide
3. Mercury vapor
4. Low pressure sodium

Correct Ans: C

QEE6.______ may be variously defined as the periphery of the armature divided by the number of poles of the generator i.e., the distance between two adjacent poles.

1. Pole shoes
2. Pole coils
3. Pole-pitch
4. Pole cores

Correct Ans: C

QEE7.Identify the correct property of insulator for overhead lines?

1. Dielectric strength must be high
2. They should be porous
3. There must be some internal flaws
4. They should be minimum affected by temperature

Correct Ans: A

QEE8.Which of the following effect is associated with voltmeters only?

1. Thermal effect
2. Electrostatic effect
3. Chemical effect
4. Electro-dynamic effect

Correct Ans: B

QEE9.Which of the following is the characteristic of Field-effect transistor?

1. It is a unipolar component and provides high thermal stability
2. The input impedance of Bipolar Junction transistor is low
3. It is a noisy component due to occurrence of minority charge carriers
4. The collector terminal's area in FET is high as compared to BJT

Correct Ans: A

QEE10.


Which of the following is associated with current-time graph given here?

1. Pulsating d.c
2. Polar waveform
3. Direct current
4. Alternating current

Correct Ans: D

QEE11.The region at which the turbine starts producing power. Below this speed, it is not worthwhile, nor efficient, to turn the turbine on is called as

1. The cut-in speed region
2. The cutoff speed region
3. Still higher wind speeds
4. The constant maximum region

Correct Ans: A

QEE12.Which of the following statement for ammeter is true when compared to voltmeter?

1. Ideal resistance of ammeter is infinity
2. High series resistance is connected to extend range
3. The resistance is low in ammeter
4. It is connected in parallel with load

Correct Ans: C

QEE13.What is the maximum vertical distance where a "No guy insulator' shall be located from the ground?

1. 2.5 meter
2. 6.2 meter
3. 5.0 meter
4. 3.5 meter

Correct Ans: D

QEE14.Which one of the following is a correct solar collector or concentrator?

1. Parabolic trough type without line focusing
2. Heliostats with centre receiver focusing
3. Fresnel lens without centre focusing
4. Flat plate type with focusing

Correct Ans: B

QEE15.Which of the following is the main drawback of 'double bus double breaker' scheme in substations?

1. It may lose half the circuits for breaker failure if circuits are not connected to both buses
2. Any breaker cannot be taken out for maintenance separately as in single bus arrangement
3. In double bus double breaker scheme, each circuit has only one dedicated breakers
4. This arrangement has no flexibility in permitting feeder circuits to be connected to either bus

Correct Ans: A

QEE16.Find the circuit current for the following loads connected in a building if supply voltages are 230 V AC :
(a) 4 lamps each of 500 W
(b) 4 fans each of 100 W
(c) 1 TV of 200 W

1. 10.2 A
2. 26.5 A
3. 11.3A
4. 2.65 A

Correct Ans: C

QEE17.Which of the following step for solution of a network utilizing reciprocity theorem is truly stated?

1. The current in the branch where voltage source was existing earlier is calculated
2. The current source is interchanged between the branches concerned
3. The voltage in the branch is obtained using conventional network analysis
4. The branch between reciprocity is to be established after computing voltage

Correct Ans: A

QEE18.

Identify the signal represented by the above figure?

1. Analog signal
2. Discrete signal
3. Low pass signal
4. Digital signal

Correct Ans: B

QEE19.Which of the following is an example of integrating type measuring instrument?

1. PMMC
2. Storage oscilloscope
3. Frequency meter
4. Ampere-hour meter

Correct Ans: D

QEE20.Identify the correct problem associated with the use of series compensation in EHV transmission system?

1. Ferro-dissonance
2. Line protection
3. Twin-synchronous resonance
4. Low recovery voltage

Correct Ans: B

QEE21.Which of the following characteristic is true for the materials of springs used for spring control in indicating instruments?

1. They are not subject to much fatigue
2. They are magnetic in nature
3. They have high temperature resistance coefficient
4. They have high temperature resistance

Correct Ans: A

QEE22.Which of the following improvement is obtained in negative feedback amplifier?

1. Lower input impedance
2. Average voltage gain
3. No change in frequency
4. More linear operation

Correct Ans: D

QEE23.Which of the following statement is correct for alternating current when compared to DC?

1. The steady magnetism makes AC flow in a single direction
2. The alternating current flows in a single direction steadily
3. AC cannot travel for a very long distance. It losses electric power
4. Electrons keep changing its direction-backward and forward

Correct Ans: D

QEE24.Which of the following is the advantage of flat plate collectors of solar?

1. High water temperature is achieved
2. Tracking of sun
3. It utilizes both the beam as diffuse radiation for heating
4. Small heat loss by conduction and radiation because of large area

Correct Ans: C

QEE25.A relay whose characteristic is modified by additional mechanical or electromagnetic procession is termed as

1. Static relay
2. IDMT relay
3. Biased relay
4. Electro-mechanical relay

Correct Ans: C

QEE26.What is 10011010 in decimal?

1. 154
2. 128
3. 142
4. 136

Correct Ans: A

QEE27.Which of the following is the merit of minimum oil circuit breaker?

1. Long contact and random maintenance
2. The space requirement is reduced
3. Less possibility of explosion
4. Smaller arcing time for small currents

Correct Ans: B

QEE28.The jumper should always be connected by

1. Free center suspension clamps
2. Bolted type tension clamps
3. Parallel groove clamps
4. Envelope type suspension clamps

Correct Ans: C

QEE29.Which among the following is an INCORRECT form of E.M.F. equation of an alternating quantity?

1. \(e=E_m\:sin(wt)\)
2. \(e=E_m\:sin(\frac{2\pi}{T}t)\)
3. \(e=E_m\:sin(\frac{2\pi fn}{T})\)
4. \(e=E_m\:sin(2\pi ft)\)

Correct Ans: C

QEE30.Identify the INCORRECT battery maintenance requirement of transmission substation?

1. Discharge test
2. Cell termination cleaning
3. Battery-monitoring relay test
4. Check of charger input voltage

Correct Ans: D

QEE31.Which of the following is the correct statement for magnetic circuit when compared to electric circuit?

1. Magnetic lines of flux are not closed, they start from positive charge and end on negative charge
2. There is a magnetic insulator as flux which can pass through all the materials
3. Both the Kirchhoff's m.m.f. law and flux law is applicable to the magnetic circuit
4. Energy is required to create and maintain the magnetic flux in magnetic circuit

Correct Ans: C

QEE32.Which loss in a D.C. generator is about 30 to 40 % of full-load losses?

1. Armature copper loss
2. Hysteresis loss
3. Eddy current loss
4. Field copper loss

Correct Ans: A

QEE33.Which of the following basic electrical parameter in AC and DC systems is generally monitored during energy audit?

1. Heat flow
2. Frequency
3. Noise
4. Temperature

Correct Ans: B

QEE34.Which of the following point regarding normal, over and under excitation on a synchronous motor is true?

1. p.f. tends to approach unity with increase in load, for normal excited motors
2. Both with under-and over-excitation, change in p.f. is greater than in \(I_a\) with increase in load.
3. With normal excitation, when load is decreased, change in \(I_a\) is greater than in p.f.
4. As load on the motor decreases, \(I_a\) increases regardless of excitation

Correct Ans: B

QEE35.Whose basic principle is that steam is used to drive the turbine, fuelled by fossil fuel?

1. Magneto-hydrodynamic
2. Geothermal power
3. Biomass power
4. Fuel cell power

Correct Ans: B

QEE36.When the pole is on roadside and there is no space for stay, one pole is used as a support to the line pole from opposite side of the stay. This support pole is called

1. Storm guys
2. Y type pole
3. Stay binding
4. Strut

Correct Ans: D

QEE37.Identify the INCORRECT feature of static VAR compensator of EHV transmission system?

1. Poor reliability factor
2. Lower speed of response
3. Low maintenance cost
4. Reduced power system oscillation

Correct Ans: C

QEE38.Identify the correct statement for a generator when compared to a motor?

1. In a generator, current is supplied to armature winding
2. Working principle is based on electromagnetic induction
3. Electric generator follows Fleming's left hand rule
4. This machine converts electrical energy to mechanical energy

Correct Ans: B

QEE39.Which of the following is NOT one of the important operation of conductor erection?

1. Joining of conductor
2. Compressing and hogging of conductor
3. Paying and stringing conductor
4. Transportation of conductor to work site

Correct Ans: B

QEE40.If the control springs of PMMC type instrument are purposely made of large moment of inertia, then it can be used as

1. Ballistic galvanometer
2. a.c. dynamometer
3. Pivoted type galvanometer
4. Fluxmeter

Correct Ans: A

QEE41."Generator circuit breaker maintenance is carried out only when the generator is out of service"
The above statement is an example of

1. Corrective maintenance
2. Preventive maintenance
3. Statutory maintenance
4. Opportunity maintenance

Correct Ans: D

QEE42.Which among the following is the property of lines of force?

1. They are always originating on a S-pole and terminating on N-pole, external to the magnet
2. They prefer a path with most opposition
3. Each line of force forms an open loop
4. Lines of force never intersect each other

Correct Ans: D

QEE43.In which of the following type of circuit breaker the interrupters are supported on porcelain insulators?

1. Single pressure puffer type
2. Dead tank design
3. Double pressure type
4. Live tank design

Correct Ans: D

QEE44.Which of the following is one of the type of secondary measuring instruments?

1. Raleigh current balance
2. Absolute electrometer
3. Tangent galvanometer
4. Ampere-hour meter

Correct Ans: D

QEE45.At the commissioning stage, trip relays should be injected with ______ and the values of current and voltage at the point of operation should be recorded.

1. No current
2. Increasing current
3. Constant current
4. Decreasing current

Correct Ans: B

QEE46.What may be defined as the distance (in terms of armature conductors) between the second conductor of one coil and the first conductor of next coil which are connected together at the front i.e., commutator end of the armature?

1. Front pitch
2. Commutator pitch
3. Back pitch
4. Resultant pitch

Correct Ans: A

QEE47.______ is a large switch that interrupts the load and fault current.

1. Circuit breaker
2. Surge arresters
3. Potential transformer
4. Disconnect switch

Correct Ans: A

QEE48.Which of the following is one of the resistance level in a diode, according to the applied signal?

1. large DC signal
2. Static (AC signal)
3. Static (large AC signal)
4. Dynamic (small AC signal)

Correct Ans: D

QEE49.Which of the following is the correct advantage of gravity control compared to spring control?

1. It is subjected to low fatigue
2. It also depends upon temperature
3. It is cheaper comparatively
4. It does not gives any cramped scale

Correct Ans: C

QEE50.Which of the following statement for a series magnetic circuit is true?

1. The resultant resistance is the sum of reciprocal of resistance of separate parts
2. The resultant M.M.F. necessary is sum of the M.M.F. in each individual part
3. The equivalent reluctance is sum of the square of the reluctance of different parts
4. The magnetic flux through all the individual parts is different irrespective of its nature

Correct Ans: B

QEE51.A 40 \(\mu F\) capacitor is connected across a 230 V, 50 Hz supply. Find the reactance offered by the capacitor and r.m.s. value of the current drawn by the capacitor. (May choose the most approximate values)

1. 79.5 \(\Omega\), 2.89 A
2. 11.3 \(\Omega\), 159 A
3. 11.3 \(\Omega\), 20.35 A
4. 63.6 \(\Omega\), 2.89 A

Correct Ans: A

QEE52.Which of the following is the merit of circuit breakers?

1. No frequent contact replacement
2. Sealing problem never arises due to joint loads
3. Deterioration of quality of gas does not affect reliability
4. Influx of moisture in the breaker in not so harmful

Correct Ans: A

QEE53.Following are the advantages of diesel power engines, except

1. High operating efficiency
2. Low noise
3. Easier handling of fuel
4. No standby loss

Correct Ans: B

QEE54.Which of the following criteria for selecting the site for tidal power projects is INCORRECT?

1. The site should allow the development of the necessary plant for reasonable cost
2. It should be environmentally acceptable
3. The storage area should be large
4. The tidal range should be small and limited

Correct Ans: D

QEE55.Which of the following type of force in indicating instrument can be occasionally produced by air frictions, eddy currents and fluid friction?

1. Deflecting force
2. Controlling force
3. Damping force
4. Restoring force

Correct Ans: C

QEE56.Which of the following is the correct advantage of series compensation in EHV transmission system?

1. Improvement of system stability
2. Increase in fault current
3. High recovery voltage of lines
4. Mal-operation of distance relay

Correct Ans: A

QEE57.A diode rectifier cannot perform rectification in both directions' is a perfect example of:

1. Unilateral circuit
2. Bilateral circuit
3. Quadrilateral circuit
4. Trilateral circuit

Correct Ans: A

QEE58.Which of the following is the basic component of the wind power system?

1. Stator with two or three blades
2. Shaft without mechanical gear
3. Yoke mechanism
4. Electrical motor

Correct Ans: B

QEE59.Identify the value of an alternating voltage which is NOT given by the coefficient of the sine of the time angle?

1. Amplitude value
2. Peak value
3. Maximum value
4. Form value

Correct Ans: D

QEE60.Identify an incorrect statement for capacitance of a circuit?

1. A capacitance consists of two metallic surfaces separated by a dielectric medium
2. Capacitance is its capacity to store electrical energy
3. It is proportionality constant relating the charge on the captive plates to the potential
4. It is a circuit element which is capable of storing electrical energy in its electric field

Correct Ans: C

QEE61.Battery charging and solar water pumping are the two main applications of

1. Stand-Alone PV systems
2. Hybrid PV system
3. Twin-supplied PV systems
4. Grid connected PV systems

Correct Ans: A

QEE62.Which of the following is NOT one of the main aim of initial site visit for detailed auditing?

1. To plan shipment of equipments required for carrying out the audit
2. To identify any existing instrumentation metering required
3. To collect macro data on plant energy resources
4. To identify main energy consuming areas to be surveyed during audit

Correct Ans: A

QEE63.Which of the following is the disadvantage of PMMC instruments?

1. The PMMC is very delicate instrument
2. It has a high torque to weight ratio
3. It produces low losses due to hysteresis
4. It does not have uniformly divide scale

Correct Ans: A

QEE64.According to the law of magnetism, the force exerted by one pole on the other pole is:

1. Inversely proportional to the nature of surrounding i.e., susceptibility
2. Independent of the nature of medium surrounding the poles
3. Inversely proportional to the square of the distance between poles
4. Inversely proportional to the square of resultant pole strength

Correct Ans: C

QEE65.Generation and distribution of power in EHV lines is

1. In AC only
2. Depend on load factor
3. Both in AC and DC
4. In DC only

Correct Ans: A

QEE66.Vacuum diode is an example of which below listed element?

1. Unilateral element
2. Bilateral element
3. Lumped element
4. Distributed element

Correct Ans: A

QEE67.In which of the following region of transistor operation, both the junction are reverse biased?

1. Cutoff
2. Saturation
3. ON switch
4. Active

Correct Ans: A

QEE68.Which among the following type of Gaurding is mainly used for L.T. lines passing through agriculture field and where formation of line is vertical?

1. Levice gaurding
2. P.V.C. gaurding
3. Carpet guarding
4. Cradle guarding

Correct Ans: B

QEE69.Identify the method of maintaining limited voltage in EHV system, which are installed near the load terminals i.e., factory substations and switching substations?

1. A static VAR compensators
2. A series compensators
3. A shunt reactors
4. A shunt capacitors banks

Correct Ans: D

QEE70.______ of a conductor is a very high amplitude, low-frequency type of conductor motion and occurs mainly in areas of relatively flat terrain under freezing rain and icing of conductors.

1. Aeolian vibration
2. Wake induced oscillation
3. Galloping vibration
4. Resonant vibration

Correct Ans: C

QEE71.Which of the following factor have value of 1.1 for sinusoidal alternating current only?

1. Crest factor
2. Form factor
3. Peak factor
4. Amplitude factor

Correct Ans: B

QEE72.______ is the energy used in industry-specific processes, such as chemical reactors, steel furnaces, glass melters, casting, welding or forging of parts, and so forth.

1. Water heat energy
2. Feedstock energy
3. Process energy
4. Primary energy

Correct Ans: C

QEE73.Which of the following is NOT the necessity of power factor improvement?

1. The size of feeders and distributors
2. Energy losses, generator voltage drops
3. The contact surface of the switchgear
4. Circumferential area of the bus-bars

Correct Ans: C

QEE74.Identify the motor which is single phase where the rotor is made of ferromagnetic material and of chrome, cobalt steel or alnico?

1. DC excited synchronous motors
2. Reluctance synchronous motors
3. Hysteresis synchronous motors
4. Permanent magnet synchronous motors

Correct Ans: C

QEE75.Which of the following statement is correct for lap winding compared to wave winding?

1. The e.m.f. of the lap winding is more
2. The winding cost of the lap winding is low
3. The efficiency of the lap winding is less
4. The additional coil used is dummy coil

Correct Ans: C

QEE76.Identify the factor which does not primarily influence the electrical design of the solar array?

1. The initial temperature
2. The load matching for maximum power
3. The sun angle
4. The sun intensity

Correct Ans: A

QEE77.Which among the following shape of bulb is most suitable for wall light & ceiling lights?

1. Candle
2. Blown tubular
3. Bulged
4. Arbitrary

Correct Ans: D

QEE78.Which among the following is the most widely used constant-gain amplifier circuit?

1. Inverting amplifier
2. Subtractor amplifier
3. Non-inverting amplifier
4. Summing amplifier

Correct Ans: A

QEE79.As per IS: 3043, plate electrodes thickness of Cu shall not be less than :

1. 4.75 mm
2. 3.15 mm
3. 4.05 mm
4. 2.55 mm

Correct Ans: B

QEE80.The type of energy audit to be performed does NOT depend on :

1. Function and type of industry
2. Potential of cost reduction desired
3. Magnitude of cost reduction desired
4. Venue of which final audit is needed

Correct Ans: D

QEE81.The use of EHV lines has no direct effect of the high electrostatic field on:

1. Vehicles
2. Aquatic habitats
3. Field animals
4. Plant life

Correct Ans: B

QEE82.Identify the INCORRECT application of attracted armature type electromechanical relay?

1. Simultaneous attracted armature relay for displacement protection
2. Over-current protection
3. Attracted armature relays are used as auxiliary all -or-nothing relays
4. Definite time lag over-current and earth fault protection

Correct Ans: A

QEE83.Identify the correct characteristic which all number systems have?

1. The digits are random
2. Zero is always the last digit
3. The size of base is more than the number of digits
4. The base number is never a digit

Correct Ans: D

QEE84.Which of the following is one of the drawback of pump storage power plants?

1. Machine is idle for several hours
2. These plants causes pollution in large scale
3. It offers low flexibility in operation
4. They are costlier compared to other peaking units

Correct Ans: A

QEE85.What is the material used during cable spiking process?

1. PVC
2. Rubber
3. Metal
4. Asbestos

Correct Ans: C

QEE86.Which of the following is NOT an essential part of a simple loop generator?

1. A commutator
2. Pole coils
3. Thermal shield
4. Armature windings

Correct Ans: C

QEE87.Which of the following is the function of static var system in EHV transmission?

1. Current support along the line
2. Control of over-current
3. Reduction in VAR flow
4. Stability disassociation

Correct Ans: C

QEE88.Identify the instrument that is used for D.C. only?

1. Electrostatic type
2. Repulsion type moving iron
3. Permanent-magnet type moving coil
4. Split phase induction type

Correct Ans: C

QEE89.For which of the following application, the vacuum interrupters rated 1.2/3.6/7.2 kV?

1. Indoor metalclad switchgear
2. Multi-Outdoor porcelain housed
3. Outdoor porcelain housed circuit breakers
4. Indoor metal enclosed control gear

Correct Ans: D

QEE90.Which of the following is the correct advantage of EHV lines?

1. Bundled conductor are not necessary for reducing corona effect
2. Current density decreases as voltage increases with charging current
3. Control of power flow in the lines is simple and natural
4. Insulation coordination based upon switching impulse level

Correct Ans: C

QEE91.Which of the following is true statement for fixed-speed system for wind power when compared to variable system?

1. Higher reliability
2. Inexpensive gear box
3. Higher rotor efficiency
4. Low transient torque

Correct Ans: A

QEE92.Which of the following error in moving iron type instruments can be removed by connecting a capacitor of suitable value in parallel with the swamp resistance of the instrument?

1. Error with a.c. work only
2. Error with d.c. work only
3. Error due to stray fields
4. Error due to hysteresis

Correct Ans: A

QEE93.The position of the HV/LV is to be shifted to the other side so that the clearance between
the live jumper and earthed metal parts should not less than :

1. 12 inches
2. 10 inches
3. 08 inches
4. 14 inches

Correct Ans: A

QEE94.What is the remedy for improper cooling system indication in electrical machine?

1. Reverse direction of fan
2. Improve cooling
3. Clear the cooling ducts
4. Check cooling system and rectify

Correct Ans: D

QEE95.What is the Laplace transform of unit ramp function?

1. \(S\)
2. \(\frac{1}{s^2}\)
3. \(\frac{1}{s}\)
4. 1

Correct Ans: B

QEE96.Following are the most common solar cell types using silicon semiconductor material (Si), except

1. Tetra-crystalline Si cells
2. Polycrystalline Si cells
3. Mono-crystalline Si cells
4. Amorphous Si cells

Correct Ans: A

QEE97.Which among the following serves the two purposes i.e.,
1. They support the exciting coils (or field coils)
2. They spread out the flux in the air-gap and also reduce the reluctance of the magnetic path

1. Armature core
2. A Yoke
3. Pole shoes
4. Commutator

Correct Ans: C

QEE98.Which of the following statement is correct for the primary cell with regard to the secondary cell?

1. Initial cost of the primary cell is cheap
2. It has very low internal resistance
3. It has a reversible chemical reaction
4. Its design is more complex and heavier

Correct Ans: A

QEE99.What should be the clearance above ground at the lowest conductor across a street for high voltage?

1. 4.0 meter
2. 6.1 meter
3. 5.2 meter
4. 5.8 meter

Correct Ans: B

QEE100.The integration and derivative of a sinusoidal function of AC is:

1. Saw-tooth function
2. Sinusoidal function
3. Triangular function
4. Square function

Correct Ans: B

QEE101.Which among the following category of rotary motion is INCORRECT?

1. One coil each on stator and on rotor
2. Switched currents in rotor coils
3. Machines with permanent magnets
4. Machines with no rotor coil, but with permeance variation

Correct Ans: B

QEE102.Which of the following motor may be used to supply VARs and improve voltage regulation?

1. Wound rotor induction motors
2. Synchronous motors
3. Single phase motors
4. Direct current motors

Correct Ans: B

QEE103.A 220-V d.c. machine has an armature resistance of 1.0 \(\Omega\). If the full-load armature current is 10 A, find the induced e.m.f. when the machine acts as (a) generator (b) motor. (Assume d.c. machine to be shunt connected and in each case it is considered negligible)

1. 220 V, 240 V
2. 230 V, 210 V
3. 220 V, 200 V
4. 230 V, 220 V

Correct Ans: B

QEE104.What does the system shown in above figure represents?

1. The 2-wire dc system with mid-point earthed
2. The ac single-phase, 2-wire system with mid-point earthed
3. The 2-wire dc system without mid-point earthed
4. The ac three-phase, 2-wire system without mid-point earthed

Correct Ans: C

QEE105.Identify the correct statement for bridge rectifier when compared to center tapped?

1. The magnitude of PIV is half of that of center tapped
2. Secondary winding of bridge rectifier is center tapped
3. Bridge rectifier uses two diodes in its circuit
4. Voltage drop across diodes is less compared to center tapped

Correct Ans: A

QEE106.Which of the following is one of the type of corona discharge from EHV transmission line conductors?

1. Pulse less
2. Flow corona
3. Reamer corona
4. Straight line

Correct Ans: A

QEE107.Which theorem is advantageous, when we have to determine the current in a particular element of a linear bilateral network particularly when it is desired to find the current which flows through a resistor for its different values?

1. Tellegen's theorem
2. Millman's theorem
3. Thevenin's theorem
4. Superposition theorem

Correct Ans: C

QEE108.Which of the following maintenance tools is used to provide grip to apply torque for turning objects such as nut or bolts?

1. Wrenches
2. Screwdriver
3. Spanner
4. Trimmer

Correct Ans: C

QEE109.A switching device capable of making, carrying and breaking electric current under normal and overload conditions is known as

1. Contactor
2. HRC fuse
3. Relay
4. Control gear

Correct Ans: A

QEE110.Identify the correct statement for EHVAC transmission on comparison to HVDC transmission system?

1. There is greater power per conductor and simpler line construction
2. Pollution affects less and less frequency clearing of insulators is required
3. A smaller amount of right of way and narrower tower are required
4. Corona loss, radio interference and audible emissions are less

Correct Ans: B

QEE111.Which of the following is the characteristic of an ideal op-amp?

1. Zero voltage gain
2. Zero input resistance
3. Infinite bandwidth
4. Infinite output resistance

Correct Ans: C

QEE112.A d.c. series motor takes 30 A at 220 V and runs at 800 r.p.m. If the armature and field resistance are 0.3 \(\Omega\) and 0.2 \(\Omega\) respectively and the iron and friction losses are 0.3 kW, what will be the output of the motor?

1. 6.6 kW
2. 7.35 kW
3. 5.85 kW
4. 7.5 kW

Correct Ans: C

QEE113.What is the permissible minimum ground clearance of 66 KV lines?

1. 8.8 meter
2. 8.0 meter
3. 7.0 meter
4. 6.1 meter

Correct Ans: D

QEE114.A solenoid of 200 cm is wound on a brass tube. If the current through the coil is 0.25 A, calculate the number of turns necessary over the solenoid to produce a field strength of 250 AT/m at the center of the coil.

1. 1000
2. 2000
3. 4000
4. 3000

Correct Ans: B

QEE115."The induced voltage across an inductor is zero if the current through it is constant".

What does the above statement means?

1. An inductor behaves as open circuit just after switching across dc voltage
2. It means an inductor acts as either open or short depending on input
3. It means an inductor acts as short circuit to dc
4. An inductor can never store finite amount of energy

Correct Ans: C

QEE116.Which of the following is NOT one of the characteristic of MIS in energy auditing?

1. Exception based
2. Sub system concept
3. Past oriented
4. Systems approach

Correct Ans: C

QEE117.What is the function of surge protection device in generator terminal equipment?

1. Metering
2. Synchronizing
3. Unit protection
4. Limit transient voltage

Correct Ans: D

QEE118.What is the category of generating unit of less than 100 MW capacity for energy audit?

1. Non-reheat, pulverized coal
2. Non-reheat, stoker fired
3. Reheat pulverized coal
4. Reheat, stoker fired

Correct Ans: B

QEE119.Identify the checks which is NOT necessary prior to starting of a machine?

1. Vibration tests
2. Tests on cooling system
3. Load tests
4. Efficiency tests

Correct Ans: D

QEE120.If the energy is consumed, then the electric circuit is a:

1. Pure capacitor
2. Pure resistor
3. Voltage source
4. Pure inductor

Correct Ans: B